Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Immunology and Serology > Introduction to Immunity + Innate Immunity > Flashcards

Introduction to Immunity + Innate Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

____ is the study of a host’s reactions when foreign substances are introduced into the body.

A

Immunology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ is the study of the molecules, cells, organs, and systems responsible for the recognition and disposal of foreign substances.

A

Immunology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Role of the Immune System

A
  • Defend against infections
  • Recognizing and responding to foreign substances
  • Defend against development of tumors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

____ is the condition of being resistant to infection.

A

Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

____ is the recognition of foreign substances and subsequent production of antibodies.

A

Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Immunity can be classified as either ____.

A

Innate or Acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Other terms for Natural Immunity

A
  • Innate
  • Non-specific
  • Non-adaptive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____ is the ability of the individual to resist infections by means of normally present body functions.

A

Natural Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Other terms for Acquired Immunity

A
  • Adaptive
  • Specific
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

____ is a type of resistance characterized by specificity for each individual pathogen, and the ability to remember a prior exposure.

A

Acquired Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

____ is a reaction resulting from invasion of foreign substances.

A

Acquired Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 Types of Adaptive Immunity

A
  • Active
  • Passive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which Type of Adaptive Immunity?

The body is involved in producing antibodies.

A

Active Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Types of Active Immunity

A
  • Natural
  • Artificial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which Type of Active Immunity?

Infection

A

Natural Active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which Type of Active Immunity?

Vaccination (Ag)

A

Artificial Active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Duration of Response: Active Immunity

A

Long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which Type of Adaptive Immunity?

Antibodies come from external source

A

Passive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Types of Passive Immunity

A
  • Natural
  • Artificial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which Type of Passive Immunity?

Breastfeeding

A

Natural Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which Type of Passive Immunity?

Vaccination (Ab)

A

Artificial Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which Type of Passive Immunity?

Transfer in vivo or colostrum

A

Natural Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which Type of Passive Immunity?

Infusion of serum or plasma

A

Artificial Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Duration of Response: Passive Immunity

A

Short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Mechanisms involved are non-specific.

A

Innate Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Mechanisms that pre-exist the invasion of foreign agents.

A

Innate Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Components are pre-formed

A

Innate Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

They are non-adaptive, has a standardized magnitude of response.

A

Innate Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Lacks immunologic memory

A

Innate Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Reinforcement

A

Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Inducibility

A

Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Specificity

A

Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Diversity

A

Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Memory

A

Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Specialization

A

Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Self-limitation

A

Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Identify which type of immunity is described based on the feature

Discrimination

A

Adaptive Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Two Categories of Adaptive Response

A
  1. Humoral
  2. Cell-mediated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Mechanism: Humoral

A

Antibody mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Mechanism: Antibody mediated

A

Humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Cell Type: Humoral

A

B Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Cell Type: B Lymphocyte

A

Humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Mode of Action: Humoral

A

Antibodies in serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Mode of Action: Antibodies in serum

A

Humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Purpose: Humoral

A

Defense against bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Purpose: Primary defense against bacterial infections.

A

Humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Mechanism: Cell Mediated

A

Cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Cell Type: Cell Mediated

A

T Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Cell Type: T Lymphocyte

A

Cell Mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Mode of Action: Cell Mediated

A

Direct cell-to-cell interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Mode of Action: Direct cell-to-cell contact

A

Cell Mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Purpose: Cell Mediated

A

Defense against viral and fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Characteristics of the Two Categories of Adaptive Immunity

Purpose: Defense against viral and fungal infections

A

Cell Mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

____ consists of defenses against infection that are ready for immediate action when a host is attacked by a pathogen.

A

Innate Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.

Regardless of the infectious agent to which the body is exposed, innate immunity produces the same response.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Components of the ____ can be thought of as the first responders because they react immediately to infectious agents.

A

Innate Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Components of the innate immunity can be thought of as the ____ because they react immediately to infectious agents.

A

first responders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

____ are composed of structural barriers that prevent most infectious agents from entering the body.

A

External Defense Mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Structural/Physical/Anatomical Barriers

A
  • Skin
  • Mucous membranes
  • Lacrimal apparatus
  • Cilia
  • Sweat & Sebaceous glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Structural/Physical/Anatomical Barriers

____ is a protein found in the skin which makes it impermeable to most infectious agents.

A

Keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Structural/Physical/Anatomical Barriers

____ bind to microorganisms to help move pathogens out.

A

Surfactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Structural/Physical/Anatomical Barriers

____ is a product of skin cells that has an antibacterial effect against gram-negative organisms.

A

Psoriasin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Structural/Physical/Anatomical Barriers

____ maintain skin pH of 5.6 to keep microorganisms from growing.

A

Lactic acid and Fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Mechanical Barriers

A
  • Peristaltic movement
  • Shedding of cells
  • Coughing and Sneezing
  • Flushing action of urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Chemical Barriers

A
  • Acid pH
  • Lysozyme
  • Lactoferrin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

____ attacks the cell wall of gram positive organisms.

A

Lysozyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

External Defense Mechanisms

A
  • Physical barriers
  • Mechanical barriers
  • Chemical barriers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

____ are designed to recognize molecules that are unique to infectious organisms.

A

Internal Defense Mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Physiological Factors

A
  • Body Temperature
  • Oxygen tension
  • Hormonal Balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Basic Polypeptides

A
  • Spermin
  • Defensin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

____ inhibits the growth of gram-positive bacteria.

A

Spermin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

____ limits the spread of viral infection.

A

Interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Types of Interferons

A
  • Alpha
  • Beta
  • Gamma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

____ is the principal soluble mediator of inflammatory response.

A

Complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

____ are normal serum constituents that increase rapidly due to infection, injury, or trauma to the tissues.

A

Acute-Phase Reactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Acute-phase reactants are produced by ____.

A

hepatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Acute-phase reactants are produced in the ____.

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Acute-phase reactants are produced in response to an ____.

A

increase in cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The major cytokines involved in inflammation are ____.

A
  • IL-1
  • IL-6
  • TNF-α
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Acute-phase reactants increase rapidly by at least ____.

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Acute-Phase Reactants

Function: Opsonization, complement activation

A

C-Reactive Protein (CRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

____ most widely used indicator (marker) of acute inflammation.

A

C Reactive Protein (CRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

____ is a trace constituent of serum originally thought to be antibody to the c-polysaccharide of pneumococci.

A

C Reactive Protein (CRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Elevated levels of CRP are indicated by ____.

A
  • Bacterial infections
  • Viral infections
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Malignant diseases
  • Tuberculosis
  • After a heart attack
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The main substrate of CRP is ____.

A

phosphocholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The main substrate of ____ is phosphocholine.

A

C-Reactive Protein (CRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Acute-Phase Reactants

Function: Activates monocytes and macrophages

A

Serum Amyloid A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

____ is involved in chemotaxis and phagocyte position.

A

Serum Amyloid A

89
Q

____ binds to lysosomal enzymes.

A

Serum Amyloid A

90
Q

____ removes cholesterol from cholesterol-filled macrophages at the site of tissue injury.

A

Serum Amyloid A

91
Q

____ has a high affinity for High-density Lipoprotein (HDL) Cholesterol.

A

Serum Amyloid A

92
Q

____ has been found to increase significantly in bacterial infections than in viral infections.

A

Serum Amyloid A

93
Q

____ refers to a series of proteins that are normally present and contribute to inflammation.

A

Complement

94
Q

Acute-Phase Reactants

Function: Opsonization, chemotaxis, and lysis of cells

A

Complement

95
Q

____ is a trimer that acts as an opsonin.

A

Mannose-Binding Protein/Lectin

96
Q

____ is calcium dependent.

A

Mannose-Binding Protein/Lectin

97
Q

____ is found widely in mucosal surfaces.

A

Mannose-Binding Protein/Lectin

98
Q

MBP is widely distributed on ____.

A

mucosal surfaces

99
Q

Lack of MBP is associated with ____.

A

recurrent yeast infections

100
Q

____ is involved in complement activation.

A

Mannose-Binding Protein/Lectin

101
Q

Acute-Phase Reactants

Function: Protease inhibitor

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin

102
Q

____ is a general plasma inhibtor of proteases released from leukocytes.

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin

103
Q

Alpha-1-antitrypsin is released from ____.

A

leukocytes

104
Q

____ counteract the effects of neutrophil invasion during inflammatory response.

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin

105
Q

____ regulates the expression of proinflammatory cytokines.

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin

106
Q

____ is an enzyme secreted by neutrophils during inflammation that can degrade elastin and collagen.

A

Elastase

107
Q

Acute-Phase Reactants

Function: Binds hemoglobin

A

Haptoglobin

108
Q

____ binds irreversibly to free hemoglobin.

A

Haptoglobin

109
Q

____ plays an important role in protecting the kidney from damage and in preventing loss of iron by urinary excretion.

A

Haptoglobin

110
Q

____ acts as an antioxidant to provide protection against oxidative damage mediated by free hemoglobin.

A

Haptoglobin

111
Q

Increased levels of Haptoglobin is indicated by ____.

A
  • Inflammation
  • Stress
  • Tissue necrosis
112
Q

Acute-Phase Reactants

Function: Clot formation

A

Fibrinogen

113
Q

____ is the most abundant of the coagulation factors in plasma.

A

Fibrinogen

114
Q

____ is an acute-phase protein involved in the coagulation pathway.

A

Fibrinogen

115
Q

____ makes the blood more viscous and serves to promote aggregation of red blood cells and platelets.

A

Fibrinogen

116
Q

Acute-Phase Reactants

Function: Binds copper and oxidizes iron

A

Ceruloplasmin

117
Q

____ is the principal copper-transporting protein in human plasma.

A

Ceruloplasmin

118
Q

____ acts as an enzyme, converting the toxic ferrous iron to the non-toxic ferric form.

A

Ceruloplasmin

119
Q

____ binds lidocaine and progesterone.

A

Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein

120
Q

Acute-Phase Reactants

A
  • C Reactive Protein (CRP)
  • Serum Amyloid A
  • Mannose Binding Protein/Lectin
  • Alpha-1-antitrypsin
  • Haptoglobin
  • Fibrinogen
  • Ceruloplasmin
  • Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein
121
Q

____ is a polymorphonuclear neutrophilic leukocyte.

A

Neutrophils

122
Q

____ represents approximately 50-70% of the total peripheral white blood.

A

Neutrophils

123
Q

Neutrophils represent approximately ____ of the total peripheral white blood cells.

A

50-70%

124
Q

____ are the first responder to infection and are capable of phagocytosis.

A

Neutrophils

125
Q

Neutrophils are ____ in diameter.

A

10-15 um

126
Q

____ are 10-15 um in diameter.

A

Neutrophils

127
Q

____ have a nucleus that has between 2 and 5 lobes.

A

Neutrophils

128
Q

Neutrophils have a nucleus that has between ____ lobes.

A

2-5

129
Q

____ contain antimicrobial products such as myeloperoxidase, elastase, proteinase-3, cathepsin G, and defensins.

A

Primary (Azurophilic) Granules

130
Q

____ are small proteins that have antibacterial activity.

A

Enzymes of the primary (Azurophilic) granules

131
Q

Enzymes of the primary (azurophilic) granules of neutrophils

A
  • Myeloperoxidase
  • Elastase
  • Proteinase-3
  • Lysozyme
  • Cathepsin G
  • Defensins
132
Q

Enzymes of the secondary granules of neutrophils

A
  • Collagenase
  • Lactoferrin
  • Lysozyme
  • NADPH oxidase
133
Q

Enzymes of the tertiary granules of neutrophils

A
  • Gelatinase
  • Plasminogen activator
134
Q

____ occurs to allow neutrophils to move from the circulating blood to the tissues.

A

Margination

135
Q

____ are also called segmented ____ or segs.

A

Neutrophils

136
Q

Eosinophils measure ____ in diameter.

A

10-15 um

137
Q

____ makes up 1-4% of the circulating WBC.

A

Eosinophils

138
Q

Eosinophils make up ____ of circulating WBC.

A

1-4%

139
Q

____ regulate adaptive immune response through cytokine release.

A

Eosinophils

140
Q

____ are responsible for killing parasites.

A

Eosinophils

141
Q

Its nucleus are usually bilobed or ellipsoidal and is often eccentrically located.

A

Eosinophils

142
Q

____ neutralizes basophil.

A

Eosinophils

143
Q

____ regulate mast cells.

A

Eosinophils

144
Q

Enzymes of the primary granules of eosinophils

A
  • Acid phosphatase
  • Arylsulfatase
145
Q

Eosinophil-specific granules contain which proteins?

A
  • Major basic protein
  • Eosinophil cationic protein
  • Eosinophil peroxidase
  • Eosinophil-derived neurotoxin
146
Q

____ less efficient in phagocytosis because they lack digestive enzymes.

A

Eosinophils

147
Q

____ make up less than 1 percent of all circulating WBCs.

A

Basophils

148
Q

____ stimulate the production of IgE.

A

Basophils

149
Q

____ induce and maintain allergic (hypersensitivity) reactions.

A

Basophils

150
Q

____ is the smallest granulocyte.

A

Basophils

151
Q

Basophils have a ____ nucleus.

A

bilobed

152
Q

____ have a deep bluish-purple granules.

A

Basophils

153
Q

Which granulocyte has a short life span?

A

Basophils

154
Q

Components of basophilic granules

A
  • Histamine
  • Heparin
  • Cytokines
  • Growth factors
  • Eosinophil chemotactic factor-A
155
Q

____ contracts the smooth muscle.

A

Histamine

156
Q

____ is an anti-coagulant.

A

Heparin

157
Q

____ functions in antigen presentation.

A

Mast Cells

158
Q

____ plays a role in the enhancement and suppression of adaptive immune response.

A

Mast Cells

159
Q

____ are larger than basophils.

A

Mast Cells

160
Q

____ have a diameter of 20 um.

A

Mast Cells

161
Q

Which cell has a life span of 9-18 months?

A

Mast Cells

162
Q

Granular constituents of Mast Cells

A
  • Serine proteases
  • Heparin
  • Neutrophil chemotactic factor
  • Histamine
163
Q

____ act to increase vascular permeability, and blood flow to the affected area.

A

Mast Cells

164
Q

____ resemble basophils.

A

Mast Cells

165
Q

____ functions as a major conduit between the innate and adaptive immune response.

A

Mast Cells

166
Q

____ are the largest cells in the peripheral blood.

A

Monocytes

167
Q

____ are 12-20 um in diameter.

A

Monocytes

168
Q

____ have an irregularly folded or horseshoe-shaped nucleus.

A

Monocytes

169
Q

First Type of Granular Constituents of Monocytes

A
  • Acid phosphatase
  • Peroxidase
  • Arylsulfatase
170
Q

Second Type of Granular Constituents of Monocytes

A
  • B-glucoronidase
  • Lipase
  • Lysozyme
171
Q

____ are larger version of monocytes on tissues.

A

Tissue Macrophages

172
Q

What is the main difference between a monocyte and tissue macrophage?

A

Presence of peroxidase (absent in macrophages)

173
Q

Macrophages in the lungs

A

Alveolar macrophages

174
Q

Macrophages in the liver

A

Kupffer cells

175
Q

Macrophages in the brain

A

Microglial cells

176
Q

Macrophages in the connective tissue

A

Histiocytes

177
Q

____ play an important role in initiating and regulating both innate and adaptive immune responses.

A

Macrophages

178
Q

The role of macrophages in adaptive immunity is to ____.

A

present phogocytized antigens to T-lymphocytes

179
Q

The main function of ____ is to phagocytose antigen and present it to helper T lymphocytes.

A

Dendritic Cells

180
Q

____ are the most potent phagocytic cells.

A

Dendritic Cells

181
Q

____ are the most effective at antigen presentation.

A

Dendritic Cells

182
Q

____ are discovered by Steinman and Cohn in 1973.

A

Dendritic Cells

183
Q

Dendritic cells are discovered by ____.

A

Steinman and Cohn (1973)

184
Q

____ are discovered by Charles Jameway.

A

Toll-Like Receptors

185
Q

Toll-Like Receptors are discovered by ____.

A

Charles Jameway

186
Q

____ is the first receptor found in humans.

A

Toll-like Receptor (TLR)

187
Q

____ is a protein originally discovered in the fruit fly Drosophila.

A

Toll

188
Q

Toll is a protein originally discovered in the fruit fly ____.

A

Drosophila

189
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

A
  • TLR 1
  • TLR 2
  • TLR 4
  • TLR 5
  • TLR 6
190
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

Receptor: TLR 1
Substance Recognized:
Target: Mycobacteria

A

Lipopeptides

191
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

Receptor:
Substance Recognized: Lipopeptides
Target: Mycobacteria

A

TLR 1

192
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

Receptor: TLR 2
Substance Recognized:
Target: Gram positive bacteria, mycobacteria, yeasts

A
  • Peptidoglycan
  • Lipoproteins
  • Zymosan
193
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

Receptor:
Substance Recognized: Peptidoglycan, lipoproteins, zymosan
Target: Gram positive bacteria, mycobacteria, yeasts

A

TLR 2

194
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

Receptor: TLR 4
Substance Recognized:
Target: Gram negative bacteria, respiratory syncytial virus, fungi

A
  • Lipopolysaccharide
  • Fusion proteins
  • Mannan
195
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

Receptor:
Substance Recognized: Lipopolysaccharide, fusion proteins, mannan
Target: Gram negative bacteria, respiratory syncytial virus, fungi

A

TLR 4

196
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

Receptor: TLR 5
Substance Recognized:
Target: Bacteria with flagellae

A

Flagellin

197
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

Receptor:
Substance Recognized: Flagellin
Target: Bacteria with flagellae

A

TLR 5

198
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

Receptor: TLR 6
Substance Recognized:
Target: Mycobacteria, gram positive bacteria, yeasts

A
  • Lipopeptide
  • Lipoteichoic acid
  • Zymosan
199
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Cell Surfaces

Receptor:
Substance Recognized: Lipopeptides, lipoteichoic acid, zymosan
Target: Mycobacteria, gram positive bacteria, yeasts

A

TLR 6

200
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Endosomal Compartments

A
  • TLR 3
  • TLR 7
  • TLR 8
  • TLR 9
  • TLR 10
201
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Endosomal Compartments

Receptor:
Substance Recognized: Double-stranded RNA
Target: RNA viruses

A

TLR 3

202
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Endosomal Compartments

Receptor:
Substance Recognized: Single-stranded RNA
Target: RNA viruses

A
  • TLR 7
  • TLR 8
203
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Endosomal Compartments

Receptor:
Substance Recognized: Double-stranded DNA
Target: DNA viruses, bacterial DNA

A

TLR 9

204
Q

TLR Receptors Found on Endosomal Compartments

Receptor:
Substance Recognized: Unknown
Target: Unknown

A

TLR 10

205
Q

____ binds to mannan and b-glucans found in the target cell.

A

C-type Lectin Receptor (CLR)

206
Q

____ recognizes RNA from RNA viruses.

A

Retinoic acid-inducible gene-I-like receptors (RLRs)

207
Q

____ binds to peptidoglycan.

A

Nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain receptors (NOD)

208
Q

____ is the engulfment of cells and particulate matter by leukocytes, macrophages, and other cells.

A

Phagocytosis

209
Q

Cells that die after phagocytosis are called ____.

A

Kamikaze Cells

210
Q

Types of Phagocytosis

A
  1. Direct
  2. Indirect
211
Q

Which Type of Phagocytosis?

Via opsonin receptors that recognize opsonins such as IgG, CRP, and C3b bound to the microorganism.

A

Indirect

212
Q

Which Type of Phagocytosis?

Via pathogen recognition receptors that recognize lipid and carbohydrate sequences on microorganisms.

A

Direct

213
Q

4 Major Steps of Phagocytosis

A
  1. Attachment/Adherence
  2. Formation of Phagosome
  3. Fusion with cytoplasmic granules to form a Phagolysosome
  4. Digestion and Release of debris
214
Q

____ is the overall reaction of the body to injury or invasion by an infectious agent.

A

Inflammation

215
Q

Cardinal Signs

A
  • Rubor (redness)
  • Calor (heat)
  • Tumor (swelling)
  • Dolor (pain)
  • Functio Laesa (loss of function)
216
Q

Major events associated with the process of inflammation

A
  1. Increased blood supply (vasodilation)
  2. Increased capillary permeability
  3. Diapedesis
  4. Chemotaxis
217
Q

____ is the movement of WBC across the blood vessel wall.

A

Diapedesis

218
Q

____ is the movement of WBC towards the site of inflammation.

A

Chemotaxis

219
Q

Receptors that Activate Immune Response

A
  • Toll-like Receptors
  • C-type Lectin Receptors (CLR)
  • Retinoic acid-inducible gene-I-like Receptors (RLRs)
  • Nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain Receptors (NOD)

Immunology and Serology (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions