Adaptive Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

____ allows the body to recognize, remember, and respond to a specific stimulus, an antigen.

A

Adaptive Immunity

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2
Q

Adaptive Immunity allows the body to ____ to a specific stimulus, an antigen.

A
  • Recognize
  • Remember
  • Respond
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3
Q

____ can result in the elimination of microorganisms and recover from disease and the host often acquires immunologic memory.

A

Adaptive Immunity

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4
Q

Adaptive immunity can result in the elimination of microorganisms and recover from disease and the host often acquires ____.

A

immunologic memory

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5
Q

____ allows the host to respond more effectively if reinfection with the same microorganism occurs.

A

Adaptive Immunity

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6
Q

Components of the Adaptive Immune System

A
  • Cellular
  • Humoral
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7
Q

Cellular Adaptive Immune System Components

A
  • T lymphocytes
  • B lymphocytes
  • Plasma cells
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8
Q

Humoral Adaptive Immune System Components

A
  • Antibodies
  • Cytokines
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9
Q

____ are the key cells involved in the adaptive immune response.

A

Lymphocytes

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10
Q

____ represent between 20-40% of the circulating WBCs.

A

Lymphocytes

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11
Q

Lymphocytes represent between ____ of the circulating WBCs.

A

20-40%

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12
Q

____ are 7-10 um in diameter, and are almost the same size as the RBCs.

A

Lymphocytes

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13
Q

Lymphocytes are ____ in diameter, and are almost the same size as the RBCs.

A

7-10 um

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14
Q

Lymphocytes are almost the same size as ____.

A

RBCs

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15
Q

3 Major Populations of Lymphocytes

A
  • T lymphocytes
  • B lymphocytes
  • NK cells
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16
Q

____ are the maturation site for lymphocytes.

A

Primary Lymphoid Organs: Bone marrow and Thymus

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17
Q

____ are the activation site for the lymphocytes.

A

Secondary Lymphoid Organs: Spleen, Lymph Nodes, Appendix, Tonsils, MALT

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18
Q

Lymphocytes arise from the ____.

A
  • Yolk sac
  • Liver
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19
Q

Mature lymphocytes will only be activated with the presence of ____.

A

antigens

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20
Q

The ____ is considered the largest tissue of the body.

A

Bone marrow

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21
Q

The bone marrow has a total weight of ____.

A

1300 - 1500 g

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22
Q

The ____ is the main source of hematopoietic stem cells.

A

Bone marrow

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23
Q

B cells received their name because they were originally found to mature in birds in an organ called the ____.

A

Bursa of Fabricius

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24
Q

Bursa of Fabricius is similar to the ____ in humans.

A

appendix

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25
Q

The bone marrow is the main source of ____.

A

Hematopoietic Stem Cells

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26
Q

The ____ is the maturation site of the B-cells.

A

Bone marrow

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27
Q

The ____ functions as the center for antigen-independent lymphophoiesis.

A

Bone marrow

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28
Q

The bone marrow functions as the center for ____.

A

antigen-independent lymphophoiesis

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29
Q

The ____ is considered as an endocrine gland.

A

Thymus

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30
Q

Thymus secretes ____, which stimulates T-cell maturation.

A

Thymosin

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31
Q

What does Thymosin do?

A

Stimulate T-cell maturation

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32
Q

The ____ is a small, flat, and bilobed organ.

A

Thymus

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33
Q

The thymus weighs an average of ____ at birth.

A

30 g

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34
Q

The thymus weighs an average of ____ during puberty.

A

35 g

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35
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.

As we grow old, the thymus also gets bigger in size.

A

False

Reason: It gradually atrophies (lose cellularity)

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36
Q

Main parts of the Thymus

A
  • Cortex
  • Medulla
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37
Q

Which part of the Thymus contains thymocytes?

A

Cortex

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38
Q

The thymic cortex is where the ____ are found.

A

Thymocytes (immature T-cells)

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39
Q

Which part of the Thymus contains mature T-cells?

A

Medulla

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40
Q

The thymic medulla is where the ____ are found.

A

Mature T-cells

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41
Q

The ____ is the maturation site of the T-cells.

A

Thymus

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42
Q

Approximately ____ of the cortical cells die in the thymus before becoming a mature T-cell.

A

97%

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43
Q

____ is the process of lymphocyte production.

A

Lymphopoiesis

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44
Q

____ occurs in the secondary tissue.

A

Lymphopoiesis

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45
Q

Lymphopoiesis occurs in the ____.

A

secondary tissue

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46
Q

How does lymphopoiesis in the primary lymphoid organs differ from that of the secondary lymphoid organs?

A
  • PLOs = antigen-independent
  • SLOs = antigen-dependent
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47
Q

The ____ is the largest secondary lymphoid organ.

A

Spleen

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48
Q

The ____ acts as a lymphatic filter within the blood.

A

Spleen

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49
Q

The spleen has a size of ____ and weighs ____ in adults.

A
  • 12 cm
  • 150 g
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50
Q

The ____ is a large discriminating filter, as it removes old and damaged cells and foreign antigens from the blood.

A

Spleen

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51
Q

Two Main Types of Splenic Tissue

A
  • Red pulp
  • White pulp
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52
Q

Which Splenic Tissue?

Destroys old red blood cells

A

Red pulp

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53
Q

Which Splenic Tissue?

Contains lymphoid tissue, which is arranged around arterioles in a periarteriolar lymphoid sheath.

A

White pulp

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54
Q

White pulp is arranged around arterioles in a ____.

A

Periarteriolar Lymphoid Sheath (PALS)

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55
Q

Determine which location in the spleen

Where T-cells are found

A

Central arteriole

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56
Q

____ are found in the central arteriole of the spleen.

A

T-cells

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57
Q

Determine which location in the spleen

Where Naive (unstimulated) B-cells

A

Primary follicles

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58
Q

____ are found in the primary follicles of the spleen.

A

Naive (unstimulated) B-cells

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59
Q

Determine which location in the spleen

Where active B-cells are found

A

Secondary follicles

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60
Q

____ are found in the secondary follicles of the spleen.

A

Activated B-cells

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61
Q

Determine which location in the spleen

Where macrophages are found

A

Marginal zone

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62
Q

____ are found in the marginal zone of the spleen.

A

Macrophages

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63
Q

The ____ acts as a lymphoid filter in the lymphatic system.

A

Lymph nodes

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64
Q

____ allows contact between lymphocytes and foreign antigens from the tissues to take place.

A

Lymph nodes

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65
Q

The ____ are located along lymphatic ducts and serve as central collecting points for lymph fluid.

A

Lymph nodes

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66
Q

Lymph nodes serve as ____ for lymph fluid.

A

central collecting points

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67
Q

Surface of the lymph nodes

A
  • Cortex
  • Paracortex
  • Medulla
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68
Q

Which region of the lymph node?

B-cell area

A

Cortex

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69
Q

____ are found in the cortex of the lymph nodes.

A

B-cells

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70
Q

Which region of the lymph node?

T-cell area

A

Paracortex

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71
Q

____ are found in the paracortex of the lymph nodes.

A

T-cells

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72
Q

Which region of the lymph node?

Differentiated cells and APCs

A

Medulla

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73
Q

____ are found in the medulla of the lymph nodes.

A

Differentiated cells and APCs

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74
Q

The lymph fluid flows slowly through spaces called ____, which are lined with macrophages, creating an ideal location where phagocytosis can take place.

A

sinuses

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75
Q

Numerous lymphocytes also enter the nodes from the bloodstream by means of specialized venules called ____.

A

High endothelial venules

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76
Q

____ is usually found in the gastrointestinal, respiratory, and urogenital tracts.

A

Mucosal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)

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77
Q

MALT is usually found in the ____.

A
  • Gastrointestinal tract
  • Respiratory tract
  • Urogenital tract
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78
Q

____ is the lymphoid tissue in the lower respiratory tract and hilar lymph nodes.

A

Bronchus Associated Lymphoid Tissue (BALT)

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79
Q

____ is associated with IgA production in response to inhaled agents.

A

Bronchus Associated Lymphoid Tissue (BALT)

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80
Q

BALT is associated with the production of ____.

A

IgA

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81
Q

____ includes lymphoid tissue in the intestines (Peyer’s patches of the appendix) and liver.

A

Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue (GALT)

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82
Q

____ is important for the development of tolerance to ingested antigens.

A

Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue (GALT)

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83
Q

____ is usually found on the epidermal cells that interact with the lymphocytes in the skin.

A

Skin/Cutaneous Associated Lymphoid Tissue

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84
Q

____ interact with lymphocytes in the skin and in draining lymph nodes.

A

Blood

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85
Q

____ acts as a reference in standardizing names of membrane proteins found on all white blood cells.

A

Clusters of Differentiation (CD)

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86
Q

____ are used to identify the stage of lymphocytes.

A

CD markers

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87
Q

CD markers specific for T-cells

A
  • CD 3
  • CD 4
  • CD 8
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88
Q

Which CD marker?

Found on all T-cells; associated with T-cell antigen receptor.

A

CD 3

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89
Q

Which CD marker?

Identifies T-helper cells; also found in most T regulatory cells.

A

CD 4

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90
Q

Which CD marker?

Identifies cytotoxic T-cells

A

CD 8

91
Q

CD markers specific for B-cells

A
  • CD 19
  • CD 21
92
Q

Which CD marker?

Part of B-cell coreceptor; regulates B-cell development and activation.

A

CD 19

93
Q

Which CD marker?

Receptor for complement component C3d; part of B-cell coreceptor with CD19.

A

CD 21

94
Q

CD markers for NK cells

A
  • CD 16
  • CD 56
  • CD 94
95
Q

____ are cells that have not encountered their specific antigen.

A

Virgin or Naive Lymphocytes

96
Q

____ are unstimulated cells.

A

Virgin or Naive Lymphocytes

97
Q

____ are populations of long-lived T or B cells that have been stimulated by antigen.

A

Memory cells

98
Q

____ can make a quick response to a previously encountered antigen.

A

Memory cells

99
Q

____ carry surface IgG as antigen receptor.

A

Memory B cells

100
Q

Memory B-cells carry ____ as antigen receptor.

A

surface IgG

101
Q

____ have CD45RO, cell-adhesion molecules (CAMs), and chemical mediators.

A

Memory T cells

102
Q

The ____ contained by memory T cells are involved during inflammatory process.

A

chemical mediators

103
Q

____ have the capacity to produce harmful antibodies after differentiation into plasma cells.

A

B lymphocytes

104
Q

____ have the capability to present antigen.

A

B lymphocytes

105
Q

____ have the capability to expand clonally, which allows them to become dominant APCs.

A

B lymphocytes

106
Q

____ produce a wide range of cytokines and chemokines that modulate maturation, migration, and function of other immune effector cells.

A

Activated B cells

107
Q

Activated B cells produce a wide range of ____ that modulate maturation, migration, and function of other immune effector cells.

A

cytokines and chemokines

108
Q

B lymphocyte subsets

A
  • B1 cells
  • B2 cells
109
Q

____ is distinguished by the CD5 marker.

A

B1 cells

110
Q

B1 cells are distinguished by the ____ marker.

A

CD 5

111
Q

____ are a subset of B lymphocyte that generate autoantibodies.

A

B1 cells

112
Q

____ account for most of the B-lymphocytes in adults.

A

B2 cells

113
Q

____ generate a greater diversity of antigen receptors and responds effectively to T-dependent antigen.

A

B2 cells

114
Q

The ____ is the first phase of B-cell development in the bone marrow.

A

Antigen-Independent Phase

115
Q

Stages of Antigen-Independent Phase

A
  1. Pro-B cell
  2. Pre-B cell
  3. Immature B cell
  4. Mature B cell
116
Q

____ require direct contact with the bone marrow stromal cells.

A

Progenitor B-cells

117
Q

Progenitor B-cells require direct contact with ____.

A

Stromal cells

118
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

A cytokine called Interleukin-7 (IL-7) is necessary at this stage.

A

Pro-B Cells

119
Q

A cytokine called ____ is necessary at Pro-B cells.

A

Interleukin-7 (IL-7)

120
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

Surface antigens: CD10, CD19, CD45R, CD43, CD24, c-Kit, Tdt, RAG-1 and RAG-2 genes

A

Pro-B Cells

121
Q

Markers for Pro-B cells

A
  • CD 10
  • CD 19
  • CD 45R
  • CD 43
  • CD 24
  • c-Kit
  • Tdt
  • RAG-1
  • RAG-2
122
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

Rearrangement of genes that code for heavy and light chains of an antibody molecule occurs.

A

Pro-B cells

123
Q

The rearrangement of genes in the Pro-B cells occur in ____.

A

Chromosome 14

124
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

CD 19 appears early and remains on the B-cell until it differentiates into a plasma cell.

A

Pro-B cells

125
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

The first heavy chains synthesized are the μ chains, which belong to the class of immunoglobulins called IgM.

A

Pre-B cells

126
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

Surface antigens: CD10, CD19, CD20

A

Pre-B cells

127
Q

Markers for Pre-B cells

A
  • CD 10
  • CD 19
  • CD 21
128
Q

In Pre-B cells, the first heavy chain synthesized are the ___.

A

μ chains

129
Q

μ chains belong to which class of immunoglobulins?

A

IgM

130
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

Contains pre-B cell receptor that is made up of 2 heavy chains and a surrogate light chain.

A

Pre-B cells

131
Q

The ____ transmit signals to prevent rearrangement of any other heavy chain genes.

A

surrogate light chain

132
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

B cell development is halted and cells are destroyed via apoptosis when gene rearrangement does not work.

A

Pre-B cells

133
Q

What will happen when gene rearrangement does not work?

A

B-cell development is halted, and cells are destroyed by apoptosis

134
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

Complete appearance of IgM molecules on the cell surface.

A

Immature B-cells

135
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

Surface proteins: CD10, CD19, CD20, CD21, CD40, MHC class II molecules

A

Immature B-cells

136
Q

Markers for Immature-B cells

A
  • CD 10
  • CD 19
  • CD 20
  • CD 21
  • CD 40
  • MHC Class II molecules
137
Q

____ acts as a receptor for a breakdown product of the complement C3.

A

CD21

138
Q

____ are important in the interaction of B cells with T cells.

A

CD40 and MHC Class II molecules

139
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

B cells capable of producing antibody to self-antigens are deleted from the marrow via apoptosis.

A

Immature B-cells

140
Q

____ refers to a programmed cell death.

A

Apoptosis

141
Q

____ lead to autoimmunity.

A

Self-antigens

142
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

In addition to IgM, the cells exhibit IgD.

A

Mature B-cells

143
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

Surface proteins: CD19, CD20, CD21, CD40, CD81, CD225

A

Mature B-cells

144
Q

Markers for Mature-B cells

A
  • CD 19
  • CD 20
  • CD 21
  • CD 40
  • CD 81
  • CD 225
145
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

Presence of marginal and follicular B-cells.

A

Mature B-cells

146
Q

____ remain in the spleen in order to respond quickly to any blood borne pathogens they may come into contact with.

A

Marginal B cells

147
Q

____ migrate to the lymph nodes and other secondary organs.

A

Follicular B cells

148
Q

Which stage of B-cell differentiation?

Central tolerance, or the elimination of B-cells that bear self-reactive receptors.

A

Immature B-cells

149
Q

____ is the elimination of B-cells that bear self-reactive receptors.

A

Central Tolerance

150
Q

____ exhibit identifying markers that include CD25.

A

Activated B-cells

151
Q

____ acts as a receptor for IL-2, which is a growth factor produced by T-cells.

A

CD25

152
Q

____ represents the most fully differentiated lymphocyte.

A

Plasma cells

153
Q

The main function of plasma cells is to ____.

A

produce antibodies

154
Q

____ represent 60-80% of the circulating lymphocyte.

A

T-lymphocytes

155
Q

T-lymphocytes represent ____ of the circulating lymphocyte.

A

60-80%

156
Q

____ are responsible for cellular immune responses and are involved in the regulating of antibody reactions in conjunction with B-lymphocytes.

A

T-lymphocytes

157
Q

T-cell maturation is a complicated process that lasts for a period of ____.

A

3 weeks

158
Q

Double Negative Stage

Early thymocytes lack ____.

A

CD 4 and CD 8 markers

159
Q

Large DN thymocytes actively proliferate in the outer cortex under the influence of ____.

A

Interleukin-7 (IL-)

160
Q

Large DN thymocytes actively proliferate in the ____ under the influence of interleukin-7.

A

outer cortex

161
Q

Which stage of T-lymphocyte differentiation?

Large DN thymocytes actively proliferate in the outer cortex under the influence of interleukin-7.

A

Double Negative

162
Q

Surface markers of DN thymocytes

A
  • CD 2
  • CD 5
  • CD 7
  • CD 45R
163
Q

Rearrangement of the genes that code for the antigen receptor known as the T-cell receptor (TCR) begins at ____ stage.

A

Double Negative

164
Q

Rearrangement of the genes that code for the antigen receptor known as the ____ begins at the double-negative stage.

A

T-cell receptor (TCR)

165
Q

Which stage of T-lymphocyte differentiation?

Rearrangement of the genes that code for the antigen receptor known as the T-cell receptor (TCR) begins at this stage.

A

Double Negative

166
Q

Which stage of T-lymphocyte differentiation?

Alpha and Beta chains which are seen on the variable region of the antibody.

A

Double Negative

167
Q

The ____ is a combination of 8 chains.

A

CD3/TCR Complex

168
Q

Which stage of T-lymphocyte differentiation?

____ is the main part of T-cell antigen receptor.

A

CD 3

169
Q

The first chain to rearrange in the double negative stage is ____.

A

Beta chain

170
Q

Six chains of the non-specific CD 3 portion

A
  • Delta-epsilon
  • Gamma-epsilon
  • Tau-tau
171
Q

____ have a different developmental pathway.

A

Gamma and Delta receptor

172
Q

Which stage of T-lymphocyte differentiation?

Thymocytes express both CD 4 and CD 8 antigens

A

Double Positive

173
Q

Which stage of T-lymphocyte differentiation?

A positive selection that allows only ____ with functional TCR receptors to survive.

A

Double Positive

174
Q

Which stage of T-lymphocyte differentiation?

Any thymocyte that has either very low or very high affinity for self-antigen will die through a process called apoptosis.

A

Double Positive

175
Q

Any thymocyte that has either very low or very high affinity for self-antigen will die through a process called ____.

A

apoptosis

176
Q

Which stage of T-lymphocyte differentiation?

A negative selection takes place among the surviving double positive T-cells.

A

Double Positive

177
Q

A ____ takes place among the surviving double positive T-cells.

A

negative selection

178
Q

Survivors of selection exhibit only one type of marker, either ____.

A

CD 4 or CD 8

179
Q

Mature T-cells will then migrate to the ____.

A

medulla

180
Q

Approximately ____ of peripheral T-cells express CD 4 antigen.

A

2/3

181
Q

Approximately ____ of peripheral T-cells express CD 8 antigen.

A

1/3

182
Q

CD4+ subset

A

Helper-inducer T-cell

183
Q

CD8+ subset

A

Suppressor-cytotoxic T-cell

184
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Produce interferon gamma, interleukin-2, and tumor necrosis factor.

A

Th1 cells

185
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Protect cells against intracellular pathogens by activating cytotoxic lymphocytes and macrophages (cell-mediated mechanisms).

A

Th1 cells

186
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Including IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-9, IL-10, and IL-13

A

Th2 cells

187
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Help B-cells produce antibodies against extracellular pathogens and to generally regulate B-cell activity.

A

Th2 cells

188
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Possess the CD4 antigen as well as CD25

A

T-regulatory (Treg) cells

189
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Play an important role in suppressing the immune response to self-antigens.

A

T-regulatory (Treg) cells

190
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Inhibit proliferation of other T-cell populations by secreting inhibitory cytokines.

A

T-regulatory (Treg) cells

191
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

The response of Treg cells are ____.

A

antigen specific

192
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Produce IL-9 and appear to have proinflammatory effect

A

Th9 cells

193
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Play a role at epithelial surfaces by warding off fungi and extracellular bacteria.

A

Th9 cells

194
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Produce IL-17 and IL-22

A

Th17 cells

195
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Both of its cytokines can increase inflammation and joint destruction

A

Th17 cells

196
Q

T-Cell Subpopulation

Associated with autoimmune diseases

A

Th17 cells

197
Q

____ are generally larger than T-cells and B-cells.

A

Natural Killer (NK) Cells

198
Q

____ have the ability to mediate cytolytic reactions and kill target cells without prior exposure to them.

A

Natural Killer (NK) Cells

199
Q

Surface markers of NK Cells

A
  • CD 16
  • CD 56
  • CD 94
200
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.

NK cells are part of the adaptive immunity.

A

False

Reason: They are part of the innate immunity.

201
Q

____ represent the first line of defense against cells that are virally infected, cells infected with other intracellular pathogens, and tumor cells.

A

Natural Killer (NK) Cells

202
Q

____ have the ability to recognize any damaged cell and to eliminate such target cells without prior exposure to them.

A

Natural Killer (NK) Cells

203
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.

There is a balance between activating and inhibitory signals that enable NK cells to distinguish healthy cells from infected ones.

A

True

204
Q

There is a balance between ____ that enable NK cells to distinguish healthy cells from infected ones.

A

activating and inhibitory signals

205
Q

____ deliver inhibitory signals.

A

Inhibitory receptors

206
Q

____ deliver signals to activate the cytotoxic mechanisms.

A

Activatory receptors

207
Q

____ form channels (pores) in the target cell membrane.

A

Perforins

208
Q

____ are packets of enzymes that may enter through the channels and mediate cell lysis.

A

Granzymes

209
Q

Mechanism of Cytotoxicity

If there are no foreign substances, ____.

A

Inhibitory receptors will deliver inhibitory signal. Thus, there will be no killing of cells.

210
Q

Mechanism of Cytotoxicity

If there are foreign substances, ____.

A

CD16 will immobilize the antibody and activate release of perforins and granzymes.

211
Q

If there are foreign antigens encountered by NK cells, ____ will immobilize the antibody and activate release of perforins and granzymes.

A

CD 16

212
Q

NK cells recognize and lyse antibody coated cells through a process called ____.

A

Antibody dependent cell cytotoxicity

213
Q

Antibody Dependent Cell Cytotoxicity

Binding of antibody occurs through the ____ receptor for IgG.

A

CD 16

214
Q

Antibody Dependent Cell Cytotoxicity

Binding of antibody occurs through the CD16 receptor for ____.

A

IgG

215
Q

Laboratory Identification of Lymphocytes

A
  • Density gradient centrifugation with Ficoll-Hypaque
  • Flow Cytometry
  • Fluorescence microscopy
  • Rosette technique
216
Q

Ficoll-Hypaque Specific Gravity

A

1.077 - 1.114

217
Q

For Ficoll-Hypaque, ____ is used.

A

Diluted defibrinated or heparinized blood

218
Q

____ is an automated system for identifying cells based on the scattering of light.

A

Flow Cytometry

219
Q

In the ____, blood is incubated with the sheep’s red blood cells.

A

Rosette technique

220
Q

In rosette technique, blood is incubated with the ____.

A

sheep’s RBC

221
Q

In rosette technique, the sheep’s ebc will attach to the ____.

A

CD 2 antigen

222
Q

CD 2 antigen is found only in ____.

A

T-cells

223
Q

Which cell produces rosette?

A

T-lymphocytes