Introduction Flashcards

1
Q
  • composed of specialized cells, whose function is to: receive sensory stimuli and to transmit them to effector organs, whether muscular or grandular
A

nervous sytem

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2
Q

coordinated so that the effector organs work harmoniously together for the well-being of the individual

A

efferent impluses

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3
Q
  • consists of the brain and spinal cord

- brain and spinal cord are the main centers where correlation and integration of nervous information occurs

A

central nervous system

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4
Q
  • consists of the cranial and spinal nerves and their associated ganglia
A

peripheral nervous sytem

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5
Q
  • both the brain and spinal cord are covered with a system of membranes ___ and are suspended in ___
A

meninges, cerebrospinal fluid

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6
Q
  • protected by the bones of the skull and the vertebral column
  • protective covering of the spinal cord
A

meninges

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7
Q
  • CNS is composed of large numbers of neurons

- excitable nerve cells

A

neurons

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8
Q
  • processes of neurons are known as
A

axons or nerve fibers

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9
Q
  • neurons are supported by specialized tissue called
A

neuroglia

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10
Q
  • the CNS interior is organized into ___ and ___
A

gray matter, white matter

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11
Q
  • gray in color

- consists of nerve cells embedded in neuroglia

A

gray matter

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12
Q
  • consists of nerve fibers embedded in neuroglia and is white in color because of the presence of lipid material in nerve fiber myelin sheaths
A

white matter

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13
Q
  • In the PNS, the ___ and ___ nerves conduct information to and from the CNS
  • unprotected and are commonly damaged by trauma
A

cranial and spinal nerves

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14
Q
  • innervates the body’s involuntary structures such as the heart, smooth muscle, and glands
  • distributed throughout the CNS and PNS and is divided into two parts: sympathetic & parasympathetic
A

autonomic nervous system

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15
Q
  • prepare the body for an emergency
A

sympathetic part of the ANS

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16
Q
  • conserving and restoring energy
A

parasympathetic

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17
Q
  • meninges is formed by

- three meninges

A

dura, arachnoid, and pia matter

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18
Q
  • space between the arachnoid and pial membranes

- contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

A

subarachnoid space

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19
Q
  • projects into the dural venous sinuses to drain CSF from the subarachnoid space
  • connect the dura mater to the pia mater
A

arachnoid mater

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20
Q

Central Nervous System

A
Brain
Forebrain
Midbrain
Hindbrain
Spinal cord
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21
Q

Central Nervous System

Forebrain

A

Cerebrum

Diencephalon (between brain)

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22
Q

Central Nervous System

Hindbrain

A

medulla oblongata
pons
cerebellum

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23
Q

Central Nervous System

Spinal cord

A
cervical segments
thoracic segments
lumbar segments
sacral segments
coccygeal segments
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24
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

A
cranial nerves and their ganglia
spinal nerves and the ganglia
8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal
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25
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

12 pairs that exit the skull through the foramina

A

Cranial nerves and their ganglia

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26
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

31 pairs that exit the vertebral column through the intervertebral foramina

A

spinal nerves and their ganglia

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27
Q
  • situated within the vertebral canal of the vertebral column and is surrounded by three meninges
  • roughly cylindrical and begins superiorly at the foramen magnum in the skull where it is continuous with the medulla oblongata of the brain.
A

spinal cord

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28
Q
  • protection of the spinal cord is provided by the ___ which surrounds the spinal cord in the ___
A

cerebrospinal fluid, subarachnoid space

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29
Q
  • 31 pairs of spinal nerves are attached by the ___ and the ___
A

anterior or motor roots, posterior or sensory roots

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30
Q
  • each posterior nerve root possesses a ___,

- the cells of which give rise to peripheral and center nerve fibers

A

posterior root ganglion

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31
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

the spinal cord is composed of an inner core of gray matter which is surrounded by an outer covering of white matter

A

true

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32
Q
  • seen on cross section as an H-shaped pillar with anterior and posterior gray columns, or horns united by a thin gray commissure containing the small central canal
A

gray matter

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33
Q
  • divided into anterior, lateral, and posterior white columns
A

white matter

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34
Q
  • lies in the cranial cavity and is continuous with the spinal through the foramen magnum
  • surrounded by the dura mater, the arachnoid mater, and the pia mater
A

brain

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35
Q
  • divided into three major divisions: the hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain in ascending order from the spinal cord
A

brain

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36
Q
  • collective term of medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain

- what remains after the cerebral hemispheres and cerebellum are removed

A

brain stem

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37
Q
  • comprises the medulla oblongata, the pons, and the cerebellum
A

hindbrain

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38
Q
  • conical in shape and connects the pons superiorly to the spinal cord inferiorly
A

medulla oblongata

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39
Q
  • medulla oblongata contains many collections of neurons called
  • serves as a conduit for ascending and descending nerve fibers
A

nuclei

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40
Q
  • situated on the anterior surface of the cerebellum, inferior to the midbrain and superior to the medulla oblongata
  • large number of transverse fibers on it anterior aspect connecting the two cerebellar hemispheres
A

pons

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41
Q
  • contains many nuclei and ascending and descending nerve fibers
A

pons

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42
Q
  • posterior cranial fossa of the skull

- posterior to the pons and the medulla oblongata

A

cerebellum

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43
Q
  • cerebellum consists of two laterally placed hemispheres connected by a median portion called the
A

vermis

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44
Q
  • the cerebellum is connected to the ___ by the superior cerebellar peduncles, to the ___ by the middle cerebellar peduncles, and to the ___ by the inferior cerebellar peduncles
A

mid- brain, pons, medulla

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45
Q
  • composed of large bundles of nerve fibers connecting the cerebellum to the remainder of the nervous system
A

peduncles

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46
Q
  • the surface layer of each cerebellar hemisphere

- composed of gray matter

A

cortex

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47
Q
  • thrown into folds or folia, separated by closely set transverse fissures
A

cerebellar cortex

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48
Q
  • certain masses of gray matter are found in the interior of the cerebellum, embedded in the white matter
  • the largest of these is known as
A

denate nucleus

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49
Q
  • the medulla oblongata, the pons, and the cerebellum surround a cavity filled with CSF, called
A

fourth ventricle

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50
Q
  • fourth ventricle is connected superiorly to the third ventricle by the
  • inferiorly it is continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord
A

cerebral aqueduct

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51
Q
  • narrow part of the brain that connects the forebrain to the hindbrain
A

midbrain

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52
Q
  • the narrow cavity of the midbrain

- connects the third and fourth ventricles

A

cerebral aqueduct

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53
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

the midbrain does not contain a lot of nuclei and bundles of ascending and descending nerve fibers

A

false, contains a lot

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54
Q
  • comprises the diencephalon (between brain)

- central part of the forebrain, and the cerebrum

A

forebrain

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55
Q
  • consists of a dorsal thalamus and a ventral hypothalamus

- between brain

A

diencephalon

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56
Q
  • large, egg-shaped mass of gray matter that lies on either side of the third ventricle
A

thalamus

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57
Q
  • anterior end of the thalamus forms the posterior boundary of the
A

interventricular foramen

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58
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

the thalamus forms the lower part of the lateral wall and floor of the third ventricle

A

false, hypothalamus

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59
Q
  • largest part of the brain

- consists of two cerebral hemispheres, which are connected by a mass of white matter

A

cerebrum

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60
Q
  • mass of white matter in the cerebrum
A

corpus callosum

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61
Q
  • the hemispheres are separated by a deep cleft called

- into which projects the falx cerebri

A

longitudinal fissure

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62
Q
  • surface layer of each hemisphere

- composed of gray matter

A

cortex

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63
Q
  • the cerebral cortex is thrown into folds called
A

gyri

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64
Q
  • the cerebral cortex is separated by fissures or
A

sulci

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65
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

this arrangement greatly increases the surface area of the cortex

A

TRUE

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66
Q
  • a number of the large sulci are used to subdivide the surface of each hemisphere into
A

lobes

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67
Q
  • within the hemisphere is a central core of white matter containing several large masses of gray matter
A

basal nuclei or ganglia

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68
Q
  • fan shaped collection of nerve fibers

- passes in the white matter to and from the cerebral cortex to the brainstem

A

corona radiata

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69
Q
  • the corona radiata converges on the basal nuclei and passes between them as the
A

internal capsule

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70
Q
  • the tailed nucleus situated on the medial side of the internal capsule is the
A

caudate nucleus

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71
Q
  • the lens shaped nucleus on the lateral side of the internal capsule is the
A

lentiform nucleus

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72
Q
  • within each cerebral hemisphere is a cavity called
A

lateral ventricle

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73
Q
  • communicate with the third ventricle through the
A

interventricular foramina

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74
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
during the process of development, the cerebrum becomes enormously enlarged and overhangs the diencephalon, midbrain, and hindbrain

A

true

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75
Q
  • composed of an inner core of white matter, which is surrounded by an outer covering of gray matter
A

brain

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76
Q
  • situated deeply within the white matter
A

gray matter

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77
Q
  • grey cerebellar nuclei in the ___ and the gray thalamic, caudate, and lentiform nuclei in the ___
A

cerebellum, cerebrum

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78
Q
  • made up of bundles of nerve fibers supported by connective tissue
A

cranial and spinal nerves

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79
Q
  • leave the brain and pass through foramina in the skull
A

12 pairs of cranial nerves

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80
Q
  • leave the spinal cord and pass through intervertebral foramina in the vertebral column
A

31 pairs of spinal nerves

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81
Q
  • the spinal nerves are associated with regions of the spinal cord:
A

8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal

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82
Q
  • 8 cervical nerves yet only _ cervical vertebrae
A

7

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83
Q
  • 1 coccygeal nerve but _ coccygeal vertebrae
A

4

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84
Q
  • each spinal nerve is connected to the spinal cord by two roots:
A

anterior root & posterior root

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85
Q
  • consists of bundles of nerve fibers carrying nerve impulses away from the CNS - efferent fibers
  • their cells of origin lie in the anterior gray horn of the spinal cord
A

anterior root

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86
Q

efferent fibers that go to skeletal muscles and cause them to contract are

A

motor fibers

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87
Q

consists of bundles of afferent fibers that carry nervous impulses to the CNS

A

posterior root

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88
Q

afferent fibers covey information about sensations of touch, pain, temperature, and vibration, they are called

A

sensory fibers

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89
Q
  • the cell bodies of the afferent fibers are situated in a swelling on the posterior root called the
  • sensory ganglia of spinal nerves
A

posterior root ganglion

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90
Q

the spinal nerve roots pass from the spinal cord to the level of their respective intervertebral foramina, where they unite to form a

A

spinal nerve

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91
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
because of the disproportionate growth in length of the vertebral column during development, compared with that of the spinal cord, the length of the roots increases progressively from above downward

A

true

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92
Q
  • the spinal nerve roots are short and run almost horizontally, but the roots of the lumbar and sacral nerves below the level of the termination of the cord
  • consists of the atlas (C1) and the axis (C2)
A

upper cervical region

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93
Q
  • the upper cervical region forms a vertical leash of nerves around the
  • a fibrous band that extends from the conus medullaris to the periosteum of the coccyx, and its functions are to fixate, stabilize, and buffer the distal spinal cord from normal and abnormal cephalic and caudal traction.
A

filum terminale

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94
Q

lower nerve roots of the upper cervical region

A

cauda equina

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95
Q
  • after emerging from the intervertebral foramen, each spinal nerve immediately divides into a large ___ and ___
  • each containing both motor and sensory fibers
A

anterior ramus and posterior ramus

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96
Q

passes posteriorly around the vertebral column to supply the muscles and skin of the back

A

posterior ramus

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97
Q

continues anteriorly to supply the muscles and skin over the anterolateral body wall and all the muscles and skin of the limbs

A

anterior ramus

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98
Q

join one another at the root of the libs to form complicated nerve plexuses

A

anterior rami

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99
Q

found at the root of the upper limbs

A

cervical and brachial plexuses

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100
Q

found at the root of the lower limbs

A

lumbar and sacral plexuses

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101
Q

divided into sensory ganglia of spinal nerves (posterior root ganglia) and cranial nerves and autonomic ganglia

A

ganglia

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102
Q
  • fusiform (spindled-shaped) swellings on the posterior root of each spinal nerve just proximal to the root’s junction with a corresponding anterior root
  • referred as posterior root ganglia
A

sensory ganglia

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103
Q

ganglia found along the course of cranial nerves5,6,8,9, & 10

A

sensory ganglia

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104
Q
  • irregular in shape, situated along the course of efferent nerve fibers of the autonomic nervous system
  • found in the paravertebral sympathetic chains around the roots of the great visceral arteries in the abdomen and close to or embedded within the walls of various viscera
A

autonomic ganglia

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105
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM

  • inner most layer
  • gives rise to the gastrointestinal tract, the lungs, and liver
A

entoderm

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106
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM

- gives rise to the muscle, connective tissues and the vascular system

A

mesoderm

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107
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM

  • third and outermost layer
  • formed of columnar epithelium, gives rise to the entire nervous system
A

ectoderm

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108
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM
during the ___ week of development, the ectoderm on the dorsal surface of the embryo between the primitive knot and the buccopharyngeal membrane thickens to form ___

A

third ,neural plate

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109
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM

plate which is pear shaped and wider cranially, develops a longitudinal ___

A

neural groove

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110
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM

the groove now deepens so that it is bounded on either side by ___

A

neural folds

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111
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM

the neural folds fuse, converting the neural groove into a ___

A

neural tube

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112
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM

the cavity of the tube remains in communication with the amniotic cavity through the

A

anterior and posterior neuropores

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113
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
fusion starts at about the midpoint along the groove and extends cranially and caudally so that the cavity remains in communication with the amniotic cavity

A

true

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114
Q

Which closes first? the anterior neuropore pr posterior neuropore?

A

anterior, posterior closes 2 days after

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115
Q

how many days does the neural tube closes normally?

A

28 days

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116
Q

sunk beneath the surface ectoderm after neural tube closure

A

neural tube

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117
Q
  • the ___ will differentiate into the cells of the posterior root ganglia, sensory ganglia of the cranial nerves, autonomic ganglia, cells of the suprarenal medulla, and melanocytes
  • give rise to mesenchymal cells in the head and neck
A

neural crest cells

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118
Q

the ___ at the cephalic end of the neural tube causes it to dilate and form three primary brain vesicles

A

proliferation of cells

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119
Q

the rest of the tube elongates and remains smaller in diameter; it will form the ___

A

spinal cord

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120
Q

Primary Division of the Developing Brain

- Primary Division of Forebrain vesicle

A

prosencephalon (forebrain)

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121
Q

Primary Division of the Developing Brain

- Primary Division of Midbrain vesicle

A

mesencephalon (midbrain)

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122
Q

Primary Division of the Developing Brain

- Primary Division of hindbrain vesicle

A

rhombencephalon (hindbrain)

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123
Q

Primary Division of the Developing Brain

- Subdivision of Forebrain vesicle

A

telencephalon & diencephalon

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124
Q

Primary Division of the Developing Brain

- Subdivision of midbrain vesicle

A

mesencephalon

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125
Q

Primary Division of the Developing Brain

- Subdivision of hindbrain vesicle

A

metencephalon & myelencephalon

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126
Q

Primary Division of the Developing Brain

- Adult Structures of forebrain vesicle (telencephalon)

A

cerebral hemisphere, basal ganglia, hippocampus

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127
Q

Primary Division of the Developing Brain

- Adult structures of forebrain vesicle (diencephalon)

A

thalamus, hypothamus, pineal body, infundibulum

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128
Q

Primary Division of the Developing Brain

- Adult structures of midbrain vesicle

A

tectum, tegmentum, crus cerebri

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129
Q

Primary Division of the Developing Brain

- Adult structures of hindbrain vesicle

A

pons, cerebellum, medulla oblongata

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130
Q

excessive numbers of neurons and neuroglial cells develop, and many will be programmed to die by a process known as

A

programmed cell death

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131
Q

promote the development and survival of neurons

A

identification of neurotrophic factors

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132
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
the spinal cord is longer than the vertebral column, the spinal cord segments do not correspond numerically with the vertebrae that lie at the same level

A

false, shorter

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133
Q

the degree of spinal cord injury at different vertebral levels is determined largely by

A

anatominal factors

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134
Q

Spinal cord injury

in the ___, dislocation or fracture dislocation is common

A

cervical region (neck area)

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135
Q

Spinal cord injury

  • ceases if the cord is completely severed above the segmental origin of the phrenic nerves (c3-c5)
  • intercostal muscles (muscles between your ribs) and the diaphragm are paralyzed resulting in death,
A

respiration

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136
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: cervical vertebrae
Spinal segment: ?

A

add 1

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137
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: upper thoracic vertebrae
Spinal segment: ?

A

add 2

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138
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: lower thoracic vertebrae (7-9)
Spinal segment: ?

A

add 3

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139
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: 10th thoracic vertebra
Spinal segment: ?

A

L1-L2 cord segments

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140
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: 11th thoracic vertebra
Spinal segment: ?

A

L3-L4 cord segments

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141
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: 12th thoracic vertebra
Spinal segment: ?

A

L5 cord segment

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142
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: 1st lumbar vertebra
Spinal segment: ?

A

sacral and coccygeal cord segments

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143
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: ?
Spinal segment: add 1

A

cervical vertebrae

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144
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: ?
Spinal segment: add 2

A

upper thoracic vertebrae

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145
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: ?
Spinal segment: add 3

A

lower thoracic vertebrae (7-9)

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146
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: ?
Spinal segment: L1-L2 cord segments

A

10th thoracic vertebra

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147
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: ?
Spinal segment: L3-L4 cord segments

A

11th thoracic vertebra

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148
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: ?
Spinal segment: L5 cord segments

A

12th thoracic vertebra

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149
Q

Relationship of spinal cord segments to vertebral numbers
Vertebrae: ?
Spinal segment: sacral and coccygeal cord segments

A

1st lumbar vertebra

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150
Q

Spinal cord injury

  • spinal cord in the adult extends down only as far as the level of the lower border of the 1st lumbar vertebra
  • the large size of the vertebral foramen in this region gives the roots of the cauda equina ample room
A

fracture dislocations of the lumbar region

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151
Q

Spinal cord injury
-partial or complete loss of function at the ___ and partial or complete loss of function of afferent and efferent nerve tracts ___

A

level of the lesion, below the level of the lesion

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152
Q

Spinal nerve injurues

- transmit the spinal nerves and the small segmental arteries and veins, all of which are embedded in areolar tissue

A

intervertebral foramina

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153
Q

Spinal nerve injurues

  • less comon
  • 5th. 6th, and 7th cervical vertebrae
A

cervical disc herniations

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154
Q

Spinal nerve injurues
- pain if felt near the lower part of the back of the neck and shoulder and along the area in the distribution of the spinal nerve involved

A

cervical disc herniations

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155
Q

Spinal nerve injurues

  • more common
  • discs usually affected are those between the 5th lumbar vertebra and the sacrum
A

lumbar disc herniations

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156
Q

Spinal nerve injurues

- the roots of the cauda equina run posteriorly over a number of intervertebral discs

A

lumbar region

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157
Q

Spinal nerve injurues

- press on one or two roots and commonly involves the nerve root going to the intervertebral foramen just below

A

lateral herniation

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158
Q

Spinal nerve injurues

- pain is referred down the leg and foot in the distribution of the affected nerve

A

lumbar disc herniations

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159
Q

Spinal nerve injurues

- pain is usally felt down the back and lateral side of the leg, radiating to the sole of the foot, a condition known as

A

sciatica

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160
Q

Spinal nerve injurues

- causes muscle weakness

A

pressure on the anterior motor roots

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161
Q

performed to withdraw a sample of CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) for microscopic or bacteriologic examination or to inject drugs to combat infection or induce anesthesia

A

spinal tap (lumbar puncture)

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162
Q

Spinal Tap

  • the lower part of the vertebral canal is thus occupied by the
  • interval between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater.
A

subarachnoid space

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163
Q

Spinal Tap

- contains the lumbar and sacral nerve roots and the filum terminale

A

subarachnoid space

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164
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

a neddle inserted into the subarachnoid space in this region usually pushes the nerve roots to one side causing damage

A

False, without causing damage

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165
Q

Spinal Tap
- the needle will pass through the following anatomical structures before it enters the subarachnoid space: a,b,c,d,e,f,g, h

A
a - skin
b- superficial fascia
c - supraspinous ligament
d- interspinous ligament 
e - ligamentum flavum
f - areolar tissue containing the internal vertebral venous plexus
g - dura matter
h - arachnoid matter
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166
Q

Spinal Tap

  • measured by attaching a manometer to the needle
  • normal pressure is about 60 to 150 mm of water
A

CSF pressure

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167
Q

Spinal Tap

- the pressure shows oscillations corresponding to the movements of respiration and the arterial pulse

A

CSF pressure

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168
Q

Caudal Anesthesia

- anesthetic solutions may be injected into the ___ through the sacral hiatus

A

sacral canal

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169
Q
  • obstetricians use this method of nerve block to relieve the pains of the first and second stages of labor because anesthetic administered by this method does not affect the infant
  • used in operations in the sacral region, including anorectal surgery
A

caudal anesthesia

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170
Q

Skull fractures

- in the ___ fractures of the skull are common, but they are less common in the young child

A

adult

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171
Q

Skull fractures

- the skull bones are more resilient, and they are separated by fibrous sutural ligaments

A

infants

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172
Q

Skull fractures

- sutural ligaments begin to ossify (harden) during ___

A

middle age

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173
Q

Skull fractures

  • resembles an eggshell, with limited resilience
  • a severe localized blow will cause a local indentation, commonly with bone splintering
A

adult skull

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174
Q

Skull fractures

  • resembles a ping-pong ball
  • a localized blow produces a depression without splintering
A

young child’s skull

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175
Q

caused by displacement and distortion of the neural tissues at the moment of impact

A

brain injuries

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176
Q

brain injuries

  • ___ lead to displacement of the brain
  • cause severe cerebral damage, stretching and distortion of the brainstem, and stretching and even tearing of brain commissures
A

blows on the front or back of the head

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177
Q

brain injuries

- cause less cerebral displacement, and the injuries to the brain consequently tend to be less severe

A

blows to the side of the head

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178
Q

brain injuries
- tough structure and may cause considerable damage to the softer brain tissue in cases of a severe blow to the side of the head

A

falx cerebri

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179
Q

brain injuries

- the brain is forcibly thrown against the sharp edges of bone within the skull

A

brain lacerations

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180
Q

brain injuries
- result in damage to the brain at two sites: at the point of impact and at the pole of the brain opposite the point of impact, where the brain is thrown against the skull wall

A

contercoup injury

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181
Q

Intracranial Hemorrhage

  • injuries to the meningeal arteries or veins
  • minor blow to the side of the head, resulting in fracture of the skull in the region of the anterior-inferior portion of the parietal bone
A

epidural hemorrhage

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182
Q

Intracranial Hemorrhage

  • bleeding occurs and strips the meningeal layer of dura from the internal surface of the skull
  • intercranial pressure (ICP) rises, and the enlarging blood clot exerts local pressure on the underlying precentral motor (motor area)
A

arterial or venous injury

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183
Q

Intracranial Hemorrhage

- to stop the hemorrhage, the torn artery must be ___ or ___

A

ligated or plugged

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184
Q

Intracranial Hemorrhage

  • tearing of the superior cerebral veins where they enter the superior sagittal sinus
  • blow to the front or back of the head resulting in excessive anterposterior displacement of the brain within the skull
A

subdural hemorrhage

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185
Q

Intracranial Hemorrhage

- caused by a sudden minor blow

A

meningeal hemorrhage

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186
Q

Intracranial Hemorrhage

- nontraumatic leakage or rupture of a cogenital aneurysm on the cerebral arterial circle

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

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187
Q

Intracranial Hemorrhage

- most common in patients with hypertension (high blood pressure)

A

cerebral hemorrhage, spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage

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188
Q

Intracranial Hemorrhage

- a branch of the middle artery

A

lenticulostriate artery

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189
Q

the most common cause of traumatic injury death in infancy

A

inflicted head injury

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190
Q
  • most cases takes place during the first year of life

- usually restricted to infants under 3 years of age

A

shaken baby syndrome

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191
Q
  • the fontanelles (soft spots on an infant’s head where the bony plates that make up the skull have not yet come together) are bulging
  • child may have retinal hemorrhages
A

shaken baby syndrome

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192
Q
  • include tumor, hematoma, abscess

- these lesions will add to the normal bulk of the intracranial contents

A

space occupying or expanding lesions

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193
Q
  • first accommodated by the expulsion of CSF from the cranial cavity
A

expanding lesion

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194
Q
  • used for the detection of intracranial lesions

- quick, safe, accurate

A

CT (computed tomography)

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195
Q
  • structures are distinguished from one another by their ability to absorb energy from x-rays
A

Computed tomography

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196
Q
  • uses the magnetic properties of the hydrogen nucleus excited by radio frequency radiation transmitted by a coil surrounding the head
  • best imaging method for detecting low-contrast lesions such as brain tumors or small multiple sclerosis plaques
A

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

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197
Q
  • used radioactive isotopes that decay with the emission of positively charged electrons to map the biochemical. physiologic, and pharmacologic processes taking place in the brain
  • successfully used in evaluation of patients with brain tumors, movement, disorders, seizures, and schizophrenia
A

Positron Emission Tomography (PET)

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198
Q

comprises the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system

A

nervous system

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199
Q

consists of the brain and the spinal cord, both of which are surrounded by the meninges and the cerebrospinal fluid

A

central nervous system

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200
Q

consists of all other nerves in the body

A

peripheral nervous sytem

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201
Q

concerned with involuntary structures and distributed throughout both CNS and PNS

A

autonomic nervous system

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202
Q

3 major divisions of the brain

A

hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain

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203
Q

subdivided into the medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebellum

A

hindbrain

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204
Q

subdivided into the diencephalon and cerebrum

A

forebrain

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205
Q

largest component of the brain and consists of two hemispheres, covered by cerebral cortex, which is made up of a series of folds and fissures called gyri and sulci

A

cerebrum

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206
Q

cylindrical structure continuous with the medulla oblongata of the brainstem

A

spinal cord

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207
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

27 pairs of spinal nerves are attached

A

false, 31

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208
Q

connect the spinal nerve to the spinal cord

A

motor and sensory roots

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209
Q

divide into anterior and posterior rami, both containing motor and sensory fibers

A

spinal nerves

210
Q

distributed to the muscles and skin of the back

A

posterior rami

211
Q

supply the muscles and skin of the limbs and the anterolateral body wall

A

anterior rami

212
Q

collections of neuronal cell bodies that result in fusiform (spindle-shaped) swellings within the dorsal roots, or as irregular swellings within the ANS

A

ganglia

213
Q

during development, the embryo differentiates into three layers:

A

entoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm

214
Q

gives rise of the entire nervous system, initially forming the neural plate, then neural folds, and subsequently fusing into the neural tube

A

ectoderm

215
Q

contains neural crest cells which differentiate into ganglion cells, schwann cells, melanocytes, and cells of the suprarenal medulla

A

leading edge of the neural folds

216
Q

Spinal cord

- the neural tube is seen to dilate at the cephalic end into the:

A

forebrain vesicle, midbrain vesicle and hindbrain vesicle

217
Q

Spinal cord

- the rest of the tube elongates and remains smaller in diameter, it will form the

A

spinal cord

218
Q

Spinal cord

- the wall of the neural tube consists of a single layer of pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells, called

A

matrix cells

219
Q

Spinal cord

- this thick zone of epithelium, which extends from the cavity of the tube to the exterior is referred to as

A

ventricular zone

220
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

repeated division of the matrix cells results in an decrease in length and diameter of the neural tube

A

false, increased

221
Q

Spinal cord

- incapable of further division

A

neuroblasts

222
Q

Spinal cord

- these cells migrate peripherally to form the

A

intermediate zone

223
Q

Spinal cord

- the intermediate zone will form the ___ of the spinal cord

A

gray matter

224
Q

Spinal cord

- neuroblasts give rise to nerve fibers that grow peripherally and form a layer external to the intermediate zone called

A

marginal zone

225
Q

Spinal cord

- nerve fibers in the marginal zone become myelinated and form

A

white matter

226
Q

Spinal cord

- matrix cells give rise to the ___ and the ___ of the neuroglia

A

astrocytes and oligodenrocytes

227
Q

Spinal cord

- dervied from the surrounding mesenchyme, migrate into the developing spinal cord along with blood vessels

A

microglial cells

228
Q

Spinal cord

- formed from the matrix cells that line the neural tube

A

ependymal cells

229
Q

Spinal cord

- intermediate zone of the lateral wall of the tube forms a large anterior thickening known as

A

basal plate

230
Q

Spinal cord

-posterior thickening

A

alar plate

231
Q

Spinal cord

- the neuroblasts in the basal plate will form the ___ of the anterior column (horn)

A

motor cells

232
Q

Spinal cord

- neuroblasts in the alar plate will become ___ of the posterior column

A

sensory cells

233
Q

Spinal cord

- the motor basal plate and the sensory alar plate are separated on each side by the

A

sulcus limitans

234
Q

Spinal cord

- continued growth of the basal plates on each side of the midline forms a deep longitudinal groove called

A

anterior median fissure

235
Q

Spinal cord

- walls of the posterior portion of the tube fuse forming the

A

posterior median septum

236
Q

Spinal cord

- the lumen of the neural tube becomes the

A

central canal

237
Q

Spinal cord

- gives rise to axons that will leave the anterior surface of the spinal cord as autonomic preganglionic fibers

A

lateral group of neurons

238
Q

Spinal cord

- lateral group of neurons will form the ___, that is, the ___

A

lateral gray column (horn), sympathetic outflow

239
Q

Spinal cord

- axons leaving the anterior surface of the spinal cord will form the

A

anterior roots of the spinal nerves

240
Q

Spinal cord

- each neuroblast develops two processes:

A

peripheral process & central process

241
Q

Spinal cord

- grow out laterally to become typical axons of sensory nerve fibers

A

peripheral process

242
Q

Spinal cord
- also axons, grow into the posterior part of the developing spinal cord and either end in the posterior gray column or ascend through the marginal zone to one of the higher brain centers

A

central process

243
Q

Spinal cord

- peripheral processes join the anterior root to form

A

spinal nerve

244
Q

Spinal cord

  • some of the neural crest cells form the:
  • surround the unipolar nerve cell bodies in a ganglion
A

capsular or satellite cells

245
Q

Spinal cord

- formed of the unipolar neurons and the capsular cells

A

posterior root ganglion

246
Q

Spinal cord

- formed from the mesenchyme (sclerotome) that surrounds the neural tube

A

pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater

247
Q

Spinal cord

- develops as a cavity in the mesenchyme which becomes filled with CFS

A

subarachnoid space

248
Q

Spinal cord

- formed from areas of condensation of the mesenchyme

A

ligamentum denticulatum

249
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

during the first 2 months of intrauterine life, the spinal cord is the same length as the vertebral column

A

true

250
Q

Spinal cord

  • at birth, the ___ of the cord lies at the level of the third lumbar vertebra
  • in adult, the lower end of the spinal cord lies at the level of the lower border of the body of the first lumbar vertebra
A

coccygeal end

251
Q

Spinal cord

- pia mater, extends down as a slender fibrous strand from the lower end of the cord to the coccyx and forms the

A

filum terminale

252
Q

Spinal cord
- obliquely coursing anterior and posterior roots of the spinal nerves and the filum terminale, which now occupy the lower end of the vertebral canal, collectively form the

A

cauda equina

253
Q

Spinal cord

- the spinal cord becomes swollen in the cervical and lumbar regions to form the

A

cervical and lumbar enlargements

254
Q

Brain

- three primary vesicles

A

forebrain vesicle, midbrain vesicle, hindbrain vesicle

255
Q

Brain

- forebrain vesicle will become

A

prosencephalon

256
Q

Brain

- midbrain vesicle will become

A

mesencephalon

257
Q

Brain

- hindbrain vesicle will become

A

rhombencephalon

258
Q

Brain

- by the ___ week, the forebrain and hindbrain vesicles divide into two secondary vesciles

A

fifth

259
Q

Brain

  • secondary vesicle of the forebrain
  • primitive cerebral hemisphere
A

telencephalon

260
Q

Brain

  • secondary vesicle of the forebrain
  • develops optic vesicles
A

diencephalon

261
Q

Brain

  • secondary vesicle of hindbrain
  • future pons and cerebellum
A

metencephalon

262
Q

Brain

  • secondary vesicle of hindbrain
  • medulla oblongata
A

myelencephalon

263
Q

Brain

- cavity in each cerebral hemisphere

A

lateral ventricle

264
Q

Brain

- cavity of the diencephalon

A

third ventricle

265
Q

Brain

- cavity of the midbrain vesicle becomes small and forms

A

cerebral aqueduct or aqueduct of sylvius

266
Q

Brain

  • cavity of the hindbrain vesicle forms the
  • continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord
A

fourth ventricle

267
Q

Brain

- lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle through the

A

interventricular foramina

268
Q

Brain
- ___ in development, the embryo is a flat disc and neural tube is straight. later the head and tail fold, the neural tube becomes curved

A

early

269
Q

Brain

- anterior thickenings

A

basal plates

270
Q

Brain

- posterior thickenings

A

alar plates

271
Q

Brain

- what separated the basal and alar plates

A

sulcus limitans

272
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain
Primary Vesicle: ?
Primary Division: prosencephalon
Subdivision: telecephalon & diencephalon

A

forebrain vesicle

273
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain
Primary Vesicle: ?
Primary Division: mesencephalon
Subdivision: mesencephalon

A

midbrain vesicle

274
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain
Primary Vesicle: ?
Primary Division: rhombencephalon
Subdivision: metencephalon & myelencephalon

A

hindbrain

275
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain
Primary Vesicle: forebrain vesicle
Primary Division: ?
Subdivision: telecephalon & diencephalon

A

prosencephalon

276
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain
Primary Vesicle: midbrain vesicle
Primary Division: ?
Subdivision: mesencephalon

A

mesencephalon

277
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain
Primary Vesicle: hindbrain vesicle
Primary Division: ?
Subdivision: metencephalon & myelencephalon

A

rhombencephalon

278
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain

Adult Structure: cerebral hemisphere, basal ganglia, hippocampus

A

forebrain, prosencephalon, telencephalon

279
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain

Adult Structure: thalamus, hypothamalus, pineal body, infundibulum

A

forebrain, prosencephalon, diencephalon

280
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain

Adult Structure: tectum, tegmentum, crus cerebri

A

midbrain, mesencephalon, mesencephalon

281
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain

Adult Structure: pons, cerebellum

A

hindbrain, rhombencephalon, metencephalon

282
Q

Primary Divisions of the Developing Brain

Adult Structure: medulla oblongata

A

hindbrain, rhombencephalon, myelencephalon

283
Q

Brain

- descending axons from the neurons in the motor ares of the cerebral cortex produce swellings called

A

pyramind

284
Q

Brain

  • arises from the anterior part of the metencephalon
  • receives a cellular contribution from the alar part of the myelencephalon
A

pons

285
Q

Brain

- formed from the posterior part of the alar plates of the metencephalon

A

cerebellum

286
Q

Brain

  • the alar plates bend medially to form
  • as alar plates enlarge, the lips project caudally over the roof plate of the fourth ventricle and unite with each other in the midline to form the cerebellum
A

rhombic lips

287
Q

Brain

- at the 12th week, a small midline portion called

A

vermis

288
Q

Brain

- two lateral portions recognized at the 12th week of development

A

cerebellar hemisphere

289
Q

Brain
- develops for the midbrain vesicle, the cavity of which becomes much reduced to form the cerebral aqueduct or aqeuduct of sylvius

A

midbrain

290
Q

Brain

- separates the alar plate from the basal plate on each side, as seen in the developing spinal cord

A

sulcus limitans

291
Q

Brain

- two alar plates and the original roof plate form

A

tectum

292
Q

Brain

- representing the four colliculi appear on the posterior surface of the midbrain

A

four swellings

293
Q

Brain

- associated with visual reflexes

A

superior colliculi

294
Q

Brain

- associated with auditory reflexes

A

inferior colliculi

295
Q

Brain

- develops from the forebrain vesicle

A

forebrain

296
Q

Forebrain

- at an early stage, a lateral diverticulum called ___ appears on each side of the forebrain

A

optic vesicle

297
Q

Forebrain

- the optic vesicle and stalk ultimately will form the ___ and ___

A

retina and optic nerve

298
Q

Diencephalon Fate
- in some individuals, the two thalami may meet and fuse in the midline to form the ___ of gray matter that crosses the third ventricle

A

interthalamic connection

299
Q

Brain

- forms the anterior end of the third ventricle which is closed by the lamina terminalis

A

telencephalon

300
Q

Brain

- diverticulum on either side forms the

A

cerebral hemisphere

301
Q

Brain

  • arises at the beginning of the fifth week of development
  • One half of the cerebrum, the part of the brain that controls muscle functions and also controls speech, thought, emotions, reading, writing, and learning.
A

cerebral hemisphere

302
Q

Brain

- cerebral hemisphere grow and expand rapidly, first anteriorly to form the

A

frontal lobes

303
Q

Brain

- cerebral hemisphere grow and expand rapidly, then laterally and superiorly to form the

A

parietal lobes

304
Q

Brain

- cerebral hemisphere grow and expand rapidly, and finally posteriorly and inferiorly to produce the

A

occipital and temporal lobes

305
Q

Brain

- cover the midbrain and hindbrain

A

hemisphere

306
Q

Brain

- medial wall of the cerebral hemisphere remains thin and is formed by

A

ependymal cells

307
Q

Brain

- separated from the cerebellum by mesenchyme

A

occipital lobe

308
Q

Brain

- occipital lobe condenses to form

A

tentorium cerebelli

309
Q

Brain

- occipital lobe condenses to form

A

tentorium cerebelli

310
Q

Brain

- the thickening protrudes into the lateral ventricle and forms

A

hippocampus

311
Q

Brain

- the compact bundle of ascending and descending tracts is known as

A

internal capsule

312
Q

Brain

- consists of a few cortical projection fibers that pass lateral to the lentiform nucleus

A

external capsule

313
Q

Brain

  • cortex covering the lentiform nucleus remains as fixed area called
  • a thin ribbon of gray matter tissue that lies just deep to the lateral brain surface, separating the temporal lobe from the inferior parietal cortex.
A

insula

314
Q

Brain
- cephalic end of the neural tube, forms a bridge between the two cerebral hemispheres and enables nerve fibers to pass from one cerebral hemisphere to other

A

lamina terminalis

315
Q

Brain

  • first commissure to develop
  • runs in the lamina terminalis
A

anterior commissure

316
Q

Brain

  • second commissure to develop
  • connects the cortex of the hippocampus in each hemisphere
A

fornix

317
Q

Brain
- connects the olfactory bulb and the temporal lobe of the cortex on one side with the same structures of the opposite hemisphere

A

anterior commissure

318
Q

Brain

  • largest and most important commissure
  • third commissure to develop
A

corpus callosum

319
Q

Brain

  • its first fibers connect the frontal loves of both sides and later the parietal lobes
  • as it increase in size because of increased numbers of fibers, it arches back over the roof of the developing third ventricle
A

corpus callosum

320
Q

Brain
- remains of the lamina terminalis, which lie between the corpus callosum and formix, become stretched out to form a thin septum

A

septum pellucidum

321
Q

Brain

  • formed in the inferior part of the lamia terminalis
  • contains fibers from the medial halves of the retinae
A

optic chiasma

322
Q

Brain

- formed and maintained by the oligodenrocytes of the neuroglia

A

myelins sheath

323
Q

Brain

  • ___ in the ___ begins first in the cervical region, and from here, the process extends caudally
  • begins within the cord at about the fourth month, and the sensory fibers are affected first, the last affected are the descending motor fibers
A

myelination in the spinal cord

324
Q

Brain
- process by which brain oligodendrocytes produce layers of myelin that wrap around the neuronal axons and act as a layer of insulation for the transmission of electric action potentials down the neuronal axon.

A

myelination

325
Q

Brain

- ___ in the ___ begins at about the sixth month of fetal life but is restricted to the fibers of the basal ganglia

A

myelination in the brain

326
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

at birth, the brain still is largely unmyelinated

A

TRUE

327
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • the spines and arches of one or more adjacent vertebrae fail to develop
  • occurs most frequently in the lower thoracic, lumbar, and sacral regions
A

spina bifida

328
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

- result of failure of the mesenchyme

A

spina bifida

329
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • the spines and arches of one or more vertebrae, usually in the lumbar region, are absent,
  • the vertebral canal remains open posteriorly
A

spina bifida occulta

330
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • spinal cord and nerve roots usually are normal
  • defect is covered by the postvertebral muscles and cannot be seen from the surface
A

spina bifida occulta

331
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • small tuft of hair or a fatty tumor may be present over the defect
  • symptomless
A

spina bifida occulta

332
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • meninges project through the defect in the vertebral arches, forming a cystic swelling beneath the skin and containing CSF which communicates with the subarachnoid space
  • spinal cord and nerves usually are normal
A

meningocele

333
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • spinal cord lies within the meningeal sac, which projects through the vertebral arch defect
  • spinal cord or nerve roots are adherent to the inner wall of the sac
A

meningomyelocele

334
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • neural tube fails to close in the region of the defect
  • oval raw area is found on the surface
A

myelocele

335
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • rare
  • meningomyelocele is present
A

syringomyeolocele

336
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

- central canal of the spinal cord at the level of the bony defect is grossly dilated

A

syringomyeolocele

337
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • most common defect of the spine
  • require no treatment
A

spina bifida occulta

338
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

- the next most common defect in the spine

A

myelocele

339
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

- should be removed surgically

A

meningcele & meningomyelocele

340
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • abnormal increase in the volume of cerebrospinal fluid within the skull
  • this condition may be associated with spina bifida and meningocele
A

hydrocephalus

341
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • caused by stenosis of the cerebral aqueduct or by normal single channel being represented by many inadequate minute tubules
  • overgrowth of neuroglia around the aqueduct
A

hydrocephalus

342
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

- hydrocephalus with spina bifida

A

arnold chiari phenomanon

343
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • inadequate development or failure of development of the interventricular foramen, or foramina of magendie and luschka
  • may occur before birth and if it is advanced, it could obstruct labor
A

hydrocephalus

344
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

- greater part of the brain and the vault of the skull are absent

A

anencephaly

345
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • caused by the failure of the rostal end of the neural tube to develop
  • cavity remains open
A

anomaly

346
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • although eyes are present, the optic nerves are absent
  • commonly involves the spinal cord, and neural tube remains open in the cervical region
A

anencephaly

347
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

  • commonly diagnosed before birth
  • most infants are stillborn or die shortly after birth
A

anencephaly

348
Q

Cogentinal Anomalies

- development and closure of the neural tube are normally completed within

A

28 days

349
Q

Spinal cord
- in the early development, the neural tube dilates at the cephalic end to form the ___, ___, and ___. the rest of the tube elongates to form the ___

A

forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain vesicle; spinal cord

350
Q

Spinal cord

- matrix cells in the epithelial walls of the neural tube are referred to as

A

ventricular zone

351
Q

Spinal cord

- formed and migrate to the intermediate zone to form the gray matter of the spinal cord

A

neuroblasts

352
Q

Spinal cord

  • the cells of the intermediate zone grow fibers that extend and form a layer external to the intermediate zone called ___
  • these fibers become myelinated and form the ___ of the spinal cord
A

marginal zone; white matter

353
Q

Spinal cord

- matrix cells will also give rise to ___ and ___

A

astrocytes and oligodendrocytes

354
Q

Spinal cord

- migrate in from the mesenchyme

A

microglial cells

355
Q

Spinal cord

- formed from the mesenchyme that surrounds the neural tube

A

layers of the meninges

356
Q

Brain

- once the neural tube closes

A

three primary vesicles complete development

357
Q

Brain

  • forebrain vesicle forms
  • matures into the cerebral hemisphere, basal ganglia, and hippocampus
A

telencephalon

358
Q

Brain

- becomes the thalamus, hypothalamus, pineal body, and infundibulum

A

diencephalon

359
Q

Brain

- forms the tectum, tegmentum, and crus cerebri components of the midbrain

A

midbrain vesicle

360
Q

Brain
- forms the metencephalon which includes the pons and cerebellum, and the myelencephalon, which includes the medulla oblongata

A

hindbrain vesicle

361
Q

Anatomical References

- pointing towards the rat’s nose

A

anterior

362
Q

Anatomical References

- direction pointing toward the rat’s tail

A

posterior

363
Q

Anatomical References

- direction pointing up

A

dorsal

364
Q

Anatomical References

- direction pointing down

A

ventral

365
Q

Anatomical References

- the right side of the brain and spinal cord is the mirror image of the left side, this is known as

A

bilateral symmetry

366
Q

Anatomical References

- invisible line running down the middle of the nervous system

A

midline

367
Q

Anatomical References

- structures closer the the midline

A

medial

368
Q

Anatomical References

- structures farther away from the midline

A

lateral

369
Q

Anatomical References

- two structures that are on the same side are said to be ___ to each other

A

ipsilateral

370
Q

Anatomical References

- structures are on opposite sides of the midline

A

contralateral

371
Q

Anatomical References

- plane of the section resulting from splitting the brain into equal right and left halves

A

midsagittal plane

372
Q

Anatomical References

- sections parallel to the midsagittal plane

A

sagittal plane

373
Q

Anatomical References

- parallel to the ground

A

horizontal plane

374
Q

Anatomical References

  • perpendicular to the ground and to the sagittal plane
  • splits the brain into anterior and posterior parts
A

coronal plane

375
Q

Central Nervous System

- largest part of the brain

A

cerebrum

376
Q

Central Nervous System

- split down the middle into two cerebral hemispheres, separated by the deep ___

A

sagittal fissure

377
Q

Central Nervous System

- ___ receives sensation from, and controls movement of the left side of the body and vice versa

A

right ceberal hemisphere

378
Q

Central Nervous System

  • lying behind the cerebrum
  • contains as many neurons as both cerebral hemispheres combined
A

cerebellum

379
Q

Central Nervous System

- a movement control center that has extensive connections with the cerebrum and the spinal cord

A

cerebellum

380
Q

Central Nervous System

- concerned with movements of the left side of the body and vice versa

A

left side of the cerebellum

381
Q

Central Nervous System

  • forms the stalk from which the cerebral hemispheres and the cerebellum sprout
  • complex nexus of fibers and cells that in part serves to relay information from the cerebrum to the spinal cord and cerebellum and vice versa
A

brain stem

382
Q

Central Nervous System

  • vital functions are regulated, such as breathing, consciousness, and the control of body temperature
  • most important to life and damage is usally fatal
A

brain stem

383
Q

Central Nervous System

  • encased in the bony vertebral column and is attched to the brain stem
  • major conduit of information from skin, joints, and muscles of the body to the brain and vice versa
A

spinal cord

384
Q

Central Nervous System

- does not mean the muscles cannot function, but they cannot be controlled by the brain

A

paralysis

385
Q

Central Nervous System

  • spinal cord communicates with the body via ___
  • part of the peripheral nervous system
A

spinal nerves

386
Q

Central Nervous System

- exit the spinal cord through notches between each vertebra of the vertebral column

A

spinal nerves

387
Q

Central Nervous System

- each spinal nerve attaches to the spinal cord by means of two branches: ___ and ___

A

dorsal root and ventral root

388
Q

Central Nervous System

- contains axons bringing information into the spinal cord

A

dorsal root

389
Q

Central Nervous System

- contains axons carrying information away from the spinal cord

A

ventral root

390
Q

Central Nervous System

  • all spinal nerves that innervate the skin, joints, and muscles that are under voluntary control
  • innervate and collect information from the skin, muscles, and joints, enter the spinal cord via the dorsal roots
A

somatic PNS

391
Q

Central Nervous System

- consist of the neurons that innervate the internal organs, blood vessels, and glands

A

autonomic nervous system

392
Q

Central Nervous System
- bring information about visceral function to the CNS, such as the pressure and oxygen content of the blood in the arteries

A

visceral sensory axons

393
Q

Central Nervous System
- command the contraction and relaxation of muscles that form the walls of the intestines and the blood vessels, the rate of cardiac muscle contraction, and secretory function of various glands

A

visceral motor fibers

394
Q

Central Nervous System

  • carry to
  • the somatic or visceral sensory axons bringing information into the CNS
A

afferent

395
Q

Central Nervous System

  • carry from
  • axons that emerge from the CNS to innervate the muscles and glands
A

efferent

396
Q

Central Nervous System

  • each has a name and a number associated with it
  • contain a complex mixture of axons that perform different functions
A

12 pairs of cranial nerves

397
Q

Central Nervous System

  • the CNS, skull and vertebral column, does not come in direct contact with the overlying bone. it is protected by three membranes collectively called
  • greek for “covering”
A

meninges

398
Q

Central Nervous System

- three membranes the covers are

A

dura mater, arachnoid membrane, pia mater

399
Q

Central Nervous System

  • “hard mother”
  • leather-like consistency
A

dura mater

400
Q

Central Nervous System

- forms a tough, inelastic bag that surrounds the brain and spinal cord

A

dura mater

401
Q

Central Nervous System

  • “spider”
  • appearance and consistency resembling a spider web
A

arachnoid membrane

402
Q

Central Nervous System

  • no space between the dura and the arachnoid, if the blood vessels passing through the dura are ruptured, blood can collect here and form
  • disorder is treated by drilling a hole in the skull and draining the blood
A

subdural hematoma

403
Q

Central Nervous System

  • “gentle mother”
  • thin membrane that adheres closely to the surface of the brain
A

pia mater

404
Q

Central Nervous System

- run many blood vessels that utimately dive into the substance of the underlying brain

A

pia mater

405
Q

Central Nervous System

- pia is separated from the arachnoid by a fluid-filled space called

A

subarachnoid space

406
Q

Central Nervous System

  • the subarachnoid space is filled with salty clear liquid called
  • brain floats inside the head in this thin layer
A

cerebrospinal fluid

407
Q

Central Nervous System

- fluid-filled caverns and canals inside the brain constitute the

A

ventricular system

408
Q

Central Nervous System

- CSF is produced by a special tissue called

A

choroid plexus

409
Q

Central Nervous System

  • CSF is absorbed by the blood vessels at special structures called
  • if the normal flow of CSF is disrupted, brain damage can result
A

arachnoid villi

410
Q

Central Nervous System
- if the flow of CSF from the choroid plexus through the ventricular system to the subarachnoid space is impaired, the fluid will back up and cause swelling of the ventricles

A

hydrocephalus

411
Q

Central Nervous System

  • allows visualization of deep structures without sectioning the brain
  • soak the brain in a solution that replaces light-absorbing lipids with a water-soluble get that turns the brain transparent
A

clarity

412
Q

Central Nervous System

  • Godfrey Hounsfields and Allan Cormack
  • generate and image of a slice of brain
A

computed tomography (CT)

413
Q

Central Nervous System

- who created comupted tomography

A

Godfrey Hounsfields and Allan Cormack

414
Q

Central Nervous System
- noninvasively revealed, for the first time, the gross organization of gray and white matter, and the position of the ventricles, in the living brain

A

CT scans

415
Q

Central Nervous System

  • yields a much more detailed map of the brain
  • does not require x-irradiation and images of brain slices can be made in any plane desired
A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

416
Q

Central Nervous System

  • uses information about how hydrogen atoms in the brain respond to perturbations of a strong magnetic field
  • used for determining the amount of certain atoms at different locations in the body
A

magnetic resonance imaging

417
Q

Central Nervous System

- enables visualization of large bundles of axons in the brain

A

diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

418
Q

Central Nervous System

- the frequency at which the protons absorb energy

A

resonant frequency

419
Q

Central Nervous System

  • ___ and ___ observe and measure changes in brain activity associated with the planning and execution of specific tasks
  • both methods detect changes in regional blood flow and metabolism within the brain
A

positron emission tomography (PET) & functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

420
Q

Central Nervous System

  • developed in 1970s
  • radioactive solution containing atoms that emit positrons (positively charged electrons) is introduced into the bloodstream
A

PET imaging

421
Q

Central Nervous System

- oxyhemoglobin has a magnetic resonance different from that of deoxyhemoglobin

A

fMRI method

422
Q

Collections of Neurons

  • generic term for a collection of neural cell bodies in the CNS
  • when a freshly dissected brain is cut open, neurons appear gray
A

gray matter

423
Q

Collections of Neurons

  • any collection of neurons that form a thin sheet, usually at the brain’s surface
  • latin for bark
A

cortex

424
Q

Collections of Neurons

  • distinguishable mass of neurons, usually deep in the brain
  • latin for nut
A

nucleus

425
Q

Collections of Neurons

- group of related neurons deep within the brain but usually with less distinct borders than those of nuclei

A

substantia

426
Q

Collections of Neurons

- small, well-defined group of cells

A

locus

427
Q

Collections of Neurons

  • collection of neurons in the PNS
  • greek for knot
A

ganglion

428
Q

Collections of Axons

  • bundle of axons in the PNS
  • only one collecton of CNS axons is called this which is the optic
A

nerve

429
Q

Collections of Axons

  • generic term for a collection of CNS axons
  • when a freshly dissected brain is cut open, axons appear white
A

white matter

430
Q

Collections of Axons

- collection of CNS axons having a common site of origin and a common destination

A

tract

431
Q

Collections of Axons

- collection of axons that run together but do not necessarily have the same origin and destination

A

bundle

432
Q

Collections of Axons

- collection of axons that connect the cerebrum with the brain stem

A

capsule

433
Q

Collections of Axons

- collection of axons that connect one side of the brain with the other side

A

commmissure

434
Q

Collections of Axons

- tract that meanders through the brain like a ribbon

A

lemniscus

435
Q

Central Nervous System

- the embryo begins as a flat disk with three distinct layers of cells called

A

endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm

436
Q

Central Nervous System

- gives rise to the lining of many of the internal organs (viscera)

A

endoderm

437
Q

Central Nervous System

- the nervous system and the skin derive entirely from

A

ectoderm

438
Q

Central Nervous System

- part of the ectoderm that give rise to the nervous system

A

neural plate

439
Q

Central Nervous System

- formation of a groove in the neural plate that runs rostal to caudal

A

neural groove

440
Q

Central Nervous System

- walls of the groove are called

A

neural folds

441
Q

Central Nervous System

- neural folds move together and fuse dorsally, forming

A

neural tube

442
Q

Central Nervous System

  • as the neural folds come together, some neural ectoderm is pinched off and comes to lie just lateral to the neural tube. this tissue is called
  • develops in close association with the underlying mesoderm
A

neural crest

443
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

the entire central nervous system develops from the walls of the neural crest

A

false, neural tube

444
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

all neurons with cell bodies in the PNS derive from the neural crest

A

true

445
Q

Central Nervous System

  • mesoderm forms prominent bulges on either side of the neural tube called
  • 33 individual vertebrae of spinal column and the related skeletal muscles will develop
A

somites

446
Q

Central Nervous System

- nerves that innervate these skeletal muscles are called

A

somatic motor nerve

447
Q

Central Nervous System

  • neural plate becomes the neural tube called
  • occurs very early in embryonic development
A

neurulation

448
Q

Central Nervous System

  • crucial event in the development of nervous system
  • occurs early - only 3 weeks after conception
A

neural tube formation

449
Q

Central Nervous System

- many neural tube defects can be traced to a deficiency of

A

folic acid

450
Q

Central Nervous System

- structures become more complex and functionally specialized during development

A

differentiation

451
Q

Central Nervous System

  • rostal-most vesicle
  • pro for before and encephalon for brain in greek
  • forebrain
A

prosencephalon

452
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

the entire brain derives from the three primary vesicles of the neural tube

A

true

453
Q

Central Nervous System

- connects with the caudal neural tube, which gives rise to the spinal cord

A

rhombencephalon

454
Q

Central Nervous System
- optic vesicles grow and invaginate to form the optic stalk and optic cups, which will ultimately become ___ and ___ in the adult

A

optic nerves and two retinas

455
Q

Central Nervous System

  • telecephalic vesicles together form the ___ or endbrain
  • consisting of two cerebral hemispheres
A

telencephalon

456
Q

Central Nervous System

- fluid-filled spaces within the cerebral hemisphere

A

lateral ventricles

457
Q

Central Nervous System

- space at the center of the diencephalon

A

third ventricle

458
Q

Central Nervous System

  • nestled deep inside the forebrain
  • inner chamber
A

thalamus

459
Q

Central Nervous System

- contains all axons that run to and from the neurons in cerebral cortex

A

white matter

460
Q

Central Nervous System
- continuous with the cortical white matter and forms an axonal bridge that links cortical neurons of the two cerebral hemisphere

A

corpus callosum

461
Q

Central Nervous System

- links the cortex with the brain stem, particularly the thalamus

A

internal capsule

462
Q

Central Nervous System

- seat of perceptions, conscious awareness, cognition and voluntary action

A

forebrain

463
Q

Central Nervous System

  • most important structure in the forebrain
  • the brain structure that has expanded the most over the course of human evolution
A

cerebral cortex

464
Q

Central Nervous System

- information from the eyes, ears, and skin is brought to the ___ for analysis

A

cerebral cortex

465
Q

Central Nervous System

  • referred to as the gateway to cerebral cortex
  • each of sensory pathways serving vision, audition, and somatic sensation relays in the ___ en route to the cortex
A

thalamus

466
Q

Central Nervous System

  • send axons to the cortex via the internal capsule
  • axons of each internal capsule carry information to the cortex about the contralateral side of the body
A

thalamic neurons

467
Q

Central Nervous System

  • send axons through the internal capsule, back to the brain stem
  • important way cortex can comment voluntary movement
A

cortical neurons

468
Q

Central Nervous System

  • collection of cells in the basal telecephalon
  • lie deep within the cerebrum
A

basal ganglia

469
Q

Central Nervous System

- involved in fear and emotion

A

amygdala

470
Q

Central Nervous System

  • controls the visceral (autonomic) nervous system, which regulates bodily functions in response to the needs of the organism
  • orchestrates body’s visceral flight-or-fight response
A

hypothalamus

471
Q

Central Nervous System

- dorsal surface of the mesencephalic vesicle becomes a structure called

A

tectum

472
Q

Central Nervous System

- floor of the midbrain becomes the

A

tegmentum

473
Q

Central Nervous System

- CSF-filled space in between constricts into a narrow channel called

A

cerebral aqueduct

474
Q

Central Nervous System

  • serving as a conduit for information passing from the spinal cord to the forebrain and vice versa
  • contains neurons that contribute to sensory systems, the control of movement, and several other functions
A

functions of the midbrain

475
Q

Central Nervous System

- receives direct input from the eye so it is also called optic tectum

A

superior colliculus

476
Q

Central Nervous System

- control eye movements, which it does via synaptic connections with the motor neurons that innervate the eye muscles

A

optic tectum

477
Q

Central Nervous System

  • receives sensory information but from the ear instead of the eye
  • important relay station for auditory information en route to thalamus
A

inferior colliculus

478
Q

Central Nervous System

- most colorful regions of the brain because it contains both the substantia nigra (black substance) and red nucleus

A

tegmentum

479
Q

Central Nervous System

- the ___ and ___ develop from the rostal half of the hindbrain (metencephalon)

A

cerebellum and pons

480
Q

Central Nervous System

- develops from the caudal half (myelencephalon)

A

medulla

481
Q

Central Nervous System

  • CSF-filled tube becomes the ___
  • continuous with the cerebral aqueduct of midbrain
A

fourth ventricle

482
Q

Central Nervous System

  • tissue along the dorsal-lateral wall of tube
  • grows dorsally and medially until it fuses with its twin on the other side
A

rhombic lip

483
Q

Central Nervous System

- ventral wall of the tube differentiates and swells to form the

A

pons

484
Q

Central Nervous System

  • important conduit for information passing from the forebrain to spinal cord and vice versa
  • contribute to the processing of sensory information, control of voluntary movement and regulation of the autonomic nervous system
A

hindbrain

485
Q

Central Nervous System

  • little brain
  • important movement control of center
A

cerebellum

486
Q

Central Nervous System

  • receives massive axonal inputs from the spinal cord and pons
  • compares these types of information and calculates the sequence of muscle contractions that are required to achieve movement goals
A

cerebellum

487
Q

Central Nervous System

- damage to this results in uncoordinated and inaccurate movements

A

cerebellum

488
Q

Central Nervous System

- latin word for bridge

A

pons

489
Q

Central Nervous System

- crossing of axons from one side to the other is knowns as

A

decussation

490
Q

Central Nervous System
- crossing of axons in the medulla explains why the cortex of one side of the brain controls movements on the opposite side of the body

A

pyramidal decussation

491
Q

Central Nervous System

- contains neurons that perform many different sensory and motor functions

A

medulla

492
Q

Central Nervous System

- damage to cochlear nuclei leads to

A

deafness

493
Q

Central Nervous System

- upper part of the butterfly’s wing is the

A

dorsal horn

494
Q

Central Nervous System

- lower part of the butterfly’s wings

A

ventral horn

495
Q

Central Nervous System

- gray matter between the dorsal and ventral horns

A

intermediate zone

496
Q

Central Nervous System

- bundles of axons running along the dorsal surface of the cord

A

dorsal columns

497
Q

Central Nervous System

  • bundles of axons lateral to the spinal gray matter on each side
  • contains the axons of the descending corticospinal tract which also cross from one side to other in medulla
A

lateral columns

498
Q

Central Nervous System

- bundles on the ventral surface

A

ventral columns

499
Q

Central Nervous System

- contains axons that carry somatic sensory information up the spinal cord toward the brain

A

large dorsal column

500
Q

Central Nervous System

- reveals the paired hemispheres of telencephalon

A

dorsal view

501
Q

Central Nervous System

- shows the telencephalon extending rostrally from the diencephalon

A

midsagittal view

502
Q

Central Nervous System

- grooves in the surface of the cerebrum

A

sulci

503
Q

Central Nervous System

- bumps of the surface of the cerebrum

A

gyri

504
Q

Central Nervous System

- thin sheet of neurons that lies under the surface of the cerebrum

A

cerebral cortex

505
Q

Central Nervous System

- ___ and ___ result from the tremendous expansion of the surface area of the cerebral cortex during fetal development

A

sulci and gyri

506
Q

Central Nervous System

- without ___, a person would be blind, deaf, dumb and unable to initiate voluntary movement

A

cerebral cortex

507
Q

Central Nervous System

- the tip of the horn lies right under the temporal bone of the skull, so this portion of the brain is called

A

temporal lobe

508
Q

Central Nervous System

- portion of the cerebrum lying just under the frontal bone of the forehead

A

frontal lobe

509
Q

Central Nervous System

- marks the posterior border of frontal lobe

A

central sulcus

510
Q

Central Nervous System

- caudal to the central sulcus lies the ___ under the parietal bone

A

parietal lobe

511
Q

Central Nervous System

- at the back of the cerebrum under the occipital bone lies the

A

occipital lobe

512
Q

Central Nervous System

  • has only single cell layer
  • greek for seahorse
  • major role in learning and memory
A

hippocampus

513
Q

Central Nervous System

- connected to the hippocampus ventrally and laterally is another type of cortex that has only two cell layers

A

olfactory cortex

514
Q

Central Nervous System

- olfactory complex is separated by sulcus called

A

rhinal fissure

515
Q

Central Nervous System

  • remaining cortex of the olfactory complex
  • found only in mammals
A

neocortex

516
Q

Central Nervous System

  • german neuroanatomist, Korbinian brodmann
  • each area of cortex having a common cytoarchitecture is given a number
A

cytoarchitectural map

517
Q

Central Nervous System

- cortical areas that look different perform different functions

A

cytoarchitectural map

518
Q

Central Nervous System

  • first type of neocortex
  • first to receive signals from the ascending sensory pathways
A

primary sensory areas

519
Q

Central Nervous System

  • second type of neocortex
  • designated because of their heavy interconnections with the primary sensory areas
A

secondary sensory areas

520
Q

Central Nervous System

  • third type of cortex
  • intimately involved with the control of voluntary movement
A

motor areas

521
Q

Central Nervous System

- more recent evolutionary development, a noteworthy characteristic of the primate brain

A

association cortex