Intro to Aviation Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four organizations that maintain aviation medical standards?

A
  • US Army Aeromedical Activity (AAMA)
  • US Army Combat Readiness/ Safety Center
  • US Army Aeromedical Research Laboratory
  • US Army School of Aviation Medicine
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2
Q

What does the US Army Aeromedical Activity do?

A
  • Flight Physicals (Reviews and recommends disposition)
  • Recommends waivers to approval authority
  • Maintains the Aviation Epidemiology Data Register (AEDR) to support research and clinical studies for aircrew medical standards and policy
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3
Q

What does the US Army Combat Readiness/Safety Center do?

A
  • Accident Investigations (ground and air), all Class A and B mishaps
  • Conducts safety training
  • Writes safety policies for the Army
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4
Q

What does the US Army Aeromedical Research Laboratory do?

A
  • Conducts research on the effects of exogenous aeromedical factors in the aviation environment.
  • Conducts research and development in aviation life support
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5
Q

What does the US Army School of Aviation Medicine do?

A
  • Conducts training on aeromedical subjects and trains health care providers
  • Conducts Aviation Resource Management Surveys (ARMS)
  • Sustains the aviation and SOF communities with training in altitude chambers
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6
Q

Flight Surgeon

A

A physician trained in aviation medicine, has completed the Army Flight Surgeon Primary Course, had a residency in Aerospace Medicine, and is a rated crewmember.

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7
Q

Aeromedical Physician Assistant (APA) and Aviation Medicine Nurse Practitioner (AMNP)

A

Trained in aviation medicine, has completed the Army Flight Surgeon Primary Course, supervised by a flight surgeon, and is a non-rated non-crewmember.

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8
Q

Aeromedical psychologist

A
  • Trained in clinical psychology, has completed the Aeromedical Psychology Course, and is a non rated and no-crewmember.
  • Consultant to the FS, APA, AMNP and commander, SME in Human Factors and stress and fatigue. Sits on Flight Evaluation Boards and Accident Investigation Boards.
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9
Q

What are the Healthcare Team Duties and Responsibilities?

A
  • Preventive Medicine
  • Clinical Medicine
  • Unit Readiness
  • Staff Function
  • Hospital Support
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10
Q

What is the FDME?

A

Periodic Screening for Medical exam, it is the starting point for all aircrew members.

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11
Q

What are the two types of FDME?

A
  • Initial (18 months)

- Comprehensive (Rucker up to 24 months)

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12
Q

What is the comprehensive FDME?

A

A retention type of FDME, lasts for 5 years, performed annually after 50 years old and after any Class A or B mishap.

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13
Q

What are the classes of the FDME?

A
  • Class 1: For those who want to be pilots
  • Class 2: For trained aviators, flight surgeons, DAC pilots, and APAs/ AMNPs.
  • Class 3: For non-rated crewmembers, flight medics, crew chiefs, and psychologists.
  • Class 4: For Air Traffic Controllers and UAV Operators.
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14
Q

What is the Flying Duty Health Screen (FDHS)?

A

An interim health screening tool, performed every 12 months and is synchronized with the aircrew member’s birth month.

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15
Q

When must you complete your flight physical?

A

By the last day of your birth month, you have a 3 month window that can be granted a one time extension that lasts for one month.

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16
Q

How many parts are there of an FDME/FDHS?

A

2, the compilation of all information/data that the FS/APA will need and the “hands on” portion.

17
Q

Who is the final approving authority on the DD 2992?

A

The unit commander.

18
Q

What is the aircrews’ responsibility to report to the FS?

A
  • Symptoms indicating a change in health
  • Illness requiring the use of medication or visit to a healthcare provider
  • Drug or alcohol use
  • Current waivers or requests for waivers
  • HIV Positive
19
Q

Who has the authority to grant waivers?

A
  • Class 1 = ETP, USAACE or NGB
  • Class 2/4 = USAACE or NGB
  • Class 3 = HRC
20
Q

What are the criteria for waivers?

A
  • Condition is resolved or stable
  • Does not preclude satisfactory completion of training or military service
  • Not an undue hazard to the individual or others
  • Not aggravated by military service or continued flying duty
  • Medication must be taken as directed with no significant side effects
  • If progression or recurrence possible then it must be easily detected or pose risk for subtle incapacitation
  • Cannot be an undue burden on medical personnel or medication
  • Cannot jeopardize a mission
  • Cannot pose a risk to aviation safety
  • No deployability limitations
  • Not compromise personal health
21
Q

What must be reported to an FS, APA, or AMNP that would cause a temporary restriction on flying?

A
  • Medical or dental procedure requiring medication after treatment
  • Procedure requiring anesthesia or sedation
  • Treatment by mental health professional
  • Chiropractic or osteopathic manipulation
  • Treatment by homeopath, herbalist, naturopath, and other alternative medicine practitioners
  • Any emergency room or urgent care vist
22
Q

For how many hours are you grounded after receiving anesthesia?

A

48 hours for general, spinal, or epidural

12 hours for local or regional

23
Q

For how many hours are you grounded after drinking alcohol?

A

12 hours before flight brief and with no residual symptoms

24
Q

Tear gas results in grounding for how long?

A

No time unless residual symptoms

25
Q

Immunizations result in grounding for how long?

A

Minimum of 12 hours and for duration of systemic side effects

26
Q

Blood and plasma donations

A
  • Not regular donor more than 2 times a year
  • Grounded for a minimum of 72 hours after blood donation of 200 cc or more
  • Grounded for 24 hours after plasma donation
27
Q

When must you be cleared by a FS, APA, or AMNP?

A

For CBRNE agents and for bone marrow donation and for barotrauma or decompression sickness

28
Q

Flight restrictions for a decompression experience?

A
  • 24 hours after altitude chamber run of 25,000 feet or higher
  • May fly before 24 hours if cabin altitude remains less than 10,000 feet
  • 24 hours after SCUBA diving or compressed air dives or high pressure runs
29
Q

Restrictions after simulator sickness and centrifuge runs?

A
  • 12 hours after symptoms of simulator sickness resolve

- 6 hours after centrifuge and with no residual effects

30
Q

What are Class 1 Medications?

A

Over the counter medications that are occasionally or infrequently used. Can be used when the FS/APA are not available, or with their knowledge.

31
Q

What are Class 2A Medications?

A

Medications requiring a prescription, are used short-term, and under supervision of a FS/APA.

  • Antibiotics
  • Birth control pills
  • Anti-motion sickness pills
  • Pre-deployment rest agents
32
Q

What are Class 2B Medications?

A

Chronic use of a medication that may require a waiver and must be noted on the FDME. First time use will be grounded for 24 hours.

33
Q

What are Class 3 Medications?

A

Chronic use requiring a prescription and a waiver for underlying medical condition.

  • GI Meds
  • Glaucoma
  • Hyptertension
34
Q

What are Class 4 Medications?

A

Mandatory Disqualifying Medications, these are non-waiverable

35
Q

What are Class 1 Herbal/Dietary Supplements?

A

Can be used without approval of FS

  • Protein Supplements
  • Single multi-vitamin/mineral tablets
  • Calcium
  • Folate
  • Vitamin C, E, B6, B12 (oral)
36
Q

What are Class 2 Herbal/ Dietary Supplements?

A

Taken with knowledge and approval of FS

  • Vitamin A, K, D, Niacin, Riboflavin, Thiamine, Magnesium, Zinc, Chromium, Selenium, Copper
  • Creatine
  • Ginseng (not 24 hours before flight)
37
Q

What are Class 3 Herbal/Dietary Supplements?

A

Not specifically listed in AR 40-8, these are disqualifying