AeroMed Check on Learning Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four organizations that maintain aviation medical standards?

A
  • Army Aeromedical Activity (AAMA)
  • US Army Combat Readiness/Safety Center
  • US Army Aeromedical Research Laboratory
  • US Army School of Aviation Medicine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which member of the Aviation Medicine Health Care Team is a rated crewmember?

A

Flight Surgeon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which members of the Aviation Medicine Health Care Team are non-rated crewmembers?

A
  • Aeromedical Physician Assistant (APA)

- Aviation Medicine Nurse Practitioner ( AMNP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which member of the Aviation Medicine Health Care Team is non-rated, and a non-crewmember?

A

Aeromedical Psychologist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who are the four members of the Aviation Medicine Health Care Team?

A
  • Flight Surgeon
  • Aeromedical Physician Assistant (APA)
  • Aviation Medicine Nurse Practitioner (AMNP)
  • Aeromedical Psychologist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the primary goal of the Aviation Medicine Health Care Team?

A

Preventive Medicine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the comprehensive medical exam given every 5 years to aviation personnel?

A

Flighty Duty Medical Examination (FDME).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the medical exam given every year to aviation personnel?

A

Flight Duty Health Screening (FDHS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between a Temporary Disqualification and a Permanent Disqualification?

A

A Temporary Disqualification is less than 365 days and a Permanent Disqualification is greater than 365 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the primary goal of Aviation Medicine?

A

To keep you flying.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 types of hazards in Aviation Toxicology?

A
  • Physical Hazards
  • Biological Hazards
  • Chemical Hazards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an Occupational Hazard?

A

Anything capable of producing an adverse health or safety effect on an individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 2 types of Exposure?

A
  • Acute Exposure

- Chronic Exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the biggest determinant of future sickness from a toxin?

A

Time and dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 ways a toxin can enter the body?

A
  • Inhalation
  • Ingestion
  • Aborption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 2 organs that excrete toxins from the body?

A
  • Liver

- Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the toxic substances in aviation?

A
  • Aviation Fuels and Fuel Combustion Products
  • Solvents and Degreasers
  • Lubricants
  • Hydraulic Fluids
  • Fire Extinguishers
  • Composites and Plastics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the Neurological symptoms of toxic fuel exposure?

A
  • Light-headedness
  • Confusion
  • Fatigue
  • Coma
  • Slurred Speech
  • Impaired Psychomotor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the Gastrointestinal symptoms of toxic fuel exposure?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Easily absorbed through mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the Skin symptoms of toxic fuel exposure?

A
  • Chemical Burns

- Irritation due to the drying effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the Cardiac and Respiratory symptoms of toxic fuel exposure?

A
  • Irregular Heart Beats
  • Respiratory Failure
  • Coughing
  • Choking
  • Wheezing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the immediate actions steps for protective measures inside a cockpit if exposed to smoke or fumes?

A
  • Recognize
  • Ventilate
  • Descend
  • Land
  • Evacuate the aircraft
  • Seek medical attention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three categories of protective measures for toxic substances?

A
  • Individual
  • Cockpit
  • General
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the Individual Preventative measures you can take for toxic substances?

A
  • Prevent contamination of your AACU/NOMEX flight suits
  • Smoke and eat only in authorized areas
  • Hand washing decreases the risk of ingesting a toxin
  • Wear personal protective equipment (PPE)
  • Pay attention to your physical symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the Cockpit Preventative measures you can take for toxic substances?

A
  • Be aware of the potential for toxic exposure in flight
  • Smoke and fumes are a very serious matter
  • Take immediate action
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the General Preventative measures you can take for toxic substances?

A
  • Be aware of the potential for toxic exposure in the aviation equipment
  • Be aware of the hazardous material in your work area
  • Develop and rehearse evacuation plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most predisposing condition for Spatial Disorientation?

A

Hovering at night with a lack of visual cues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the false perception of reality caused by the conflict of orientation information from one or more mechanisms of equilibrium?

A

Sensory Illusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 3 types of Spatial Disorientation?

A
  • Unrecognized
  • Recognized
  • Incapacitating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 3 systems that influence equilibrium?

A
  • Visual
  • Vestibular
  • Proprioceptive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most dangerous of all Vestibular Illusions?

A

Coriolis Illusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the three dynamics of Spatial Disorientation?

A
  • Visual Dominance
  • Vestibular Suppression
  • Vestibular Opportunism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the definition of Stress?

A

The non-specific response of the body to any demand placed upon it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does the acronym DEATH stand for in Physiological Stressors?

A
  • Drugs
  • Exhaustion
  • Alcohol
  • Tobacco
  • Hypoglycemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are some immediate responses to stress?

A
  • Sweaty Palms
  • Increased Heart Rate
  • Trembling
  • Shortness of Breath
  • Muscle Tension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 4 Stress Coping Methods?

A
  • Minimize Stressors
  • Change your thinking
  • Learn to relax
  • Ventilate
37
Q

What is the most powerful Stress Coping Method?

A

Minimize Stressors.

38
Q

What is the definition of Combat Stress?

A

Every stress encountered as a result of combat.

39
Q

What are the 4 factors that decrease your vulnerability to Combat Stress?

A
  • Competence
  • Confidence
  • Cohesion
  • Control
40
Q

What are 3 signs of fatigue?

A
  • Attention/Concentration Difficult
  • Feel or appear dull and sluggish
  • Accuracy, timing, and ability to reason logically degrade
  • General attempt to conserve energy
  • Feel or appear careless, uncoordinated, confused, or irritable
  • Social interactions decline
  • Involuntary lapses into sleep begin to occur
  • Cognitive deficits are seen before the physical effects are felt
41
Q

At what stages is your deepest and most restorative sleep?

A
  • Stage 3: Deep Sleep or “Slow Wave” Sleep

- Stage 4: Rapid Eye Movement (REM) Sleep

42
Q

What are countermeasures for sleep restriction?

A
  • Prevention (adequate sleep)
  • Consistent bedtime/wake-up schedule
  • Bedroom only used for sleep and sex
  • Daily stressors resolved outside of bedroom
  • Bedtime routine
  • Quiet and comfortable sleep environment
  • Aerobic exercise routine (during daytime)
  • No caffeine within 4 hours of bedtime
  • No cigarettes within 1 hour of bedtime
  • Don’t use alcohol as a sleep aid
  • Do not nap during day if you have problems sleeping
  • Don’t watch the clock
  • Get out of bed after 30 minutes without falling asleep
43
Q

What are disadvantages of using caffeine?

A
  • Tolerance to its effect
  • Quickly wears off
  • Can exacerbate sleep problems
  • Not a substitute for sleep
44
Q

What is the definition of Inertia?

A

The resistance to change in a state of rest or motion.

45
Q

What are the Factors Affecting Accelerative Forces?

A

(BIRDI)

  • Body Area and Site
  • Intensity (Measure of Magnitude)
  • Rate of Onset
  • Duration
  • Impact Direction
46
Q

What is the definition of Low-Magnitude Acceleration?

A

G’s that range from 1-10 G’s and last for several seconds.

47
Q

What are the Factors Increasing G Tolerance?

A
  • Asysmptomatic Hypertension
  • Fear and Excitement
  • Tensing of Muscles
  • Shorty stocky build
  • L-1 Maneuver
  • Anti-G Suit
48
Q

T/F Does fear and excitement increase your G tolerance?

A

True

49
Q

What is the definition of High-Magnitude Acceleration?

A

G-Forces exceeding 10 G’s and lasting for less than a second.

50
Q

What are the Crash Survivability Criteria?

A
  • Amount of decelerative (crash) force transmitted to the crewmember.
  • Occupiable living space.
  • Aircraft Design Features (CREEP)
51
Q

What does the acronym CREEP stand for?

A
  • Container
  • Restraint System
  • Environment (loose objects)
  • Energy Absorption
  • Post Crash Factors
52
Q

Intensity is closely related to which factor influencing accelerative forces?

A

Duration

53
Q

What is the definition of Noise?

A

Sound that is loud (perception of the listener), unpleasant, and unwanted.

54
Q

What are the Measurable Characteristics of Noise?

A
  • Frequency
  • Intensity
  • Decibel Levels
55
Q

At what decibel level does hearing damage occur?

A

85 dB

56
Q

What are the short-term and long-term effects of noise?

A
  • Annoyance and Fatigue
  • Speech Interference
  • Hearing Loss
57
Q

What is the most economical and practical way to protect your hearing?

A

PPD/PPE

58
Q

What is the definition of Vibration?

A

The motion of an object relative to a reference position (object at rest) involving series of oscillations resulting in the displacement and acceleration of the object.

59
Q

What is the definition of Frequency?

A

The number of oscillations of any object in a given time.

60
Q

What are the short term effects of vibration?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Respiratory Effects
  • Circulatory Effects
  • Motion Sickness
  • Disorientation
  • Pain
61
Q

What are the long term effects of vibration?

A
  • Raynaud’s Disease
  • Backache/back pain
  • Kidney and lung damage
62
Q

How do you protect yourself from vibration?

A
  • Good Posture
  • Use seatbelts
  • Limit exposure time
  • Let aircraft do the work
  • Reduce body fat
  • Decrease effects of fatigue
  • Maintain hydration
  • Maintain Aircraft
63
Q

What part of the eye contains the rods and cones?

A

The retina

64
Q

What is the condition where your eye focuses the image you see behind the retina?

A

Hyperopia (farsightedness)

65
Q

What is the condition where your lens begins to harden due to age?

A

Presbyopia

66
Q

What are the 3 Refractive Surgeries?

A
  • PRK
  • LASIK
  • LASEK
67
Q

What does the acronym GRAM stand for?

A
  • Geometric Perspective
  • Retinal Image Size
  • Aerial Perspective
  • Motion Parallax
68
Q

What is the most important monocular cue for depth perception?

A

Motion Parallax

69
Q

What are the two most import monocular cues for depth perception?

A
  • Motion Parallax

- Retinal Image Size

70
Q

2-5 hours of intense sunlight will increase the time required for dark-adaptation for up to how many hours?

A

5

71
Q

What are the flight hazards to your vision?

A
  • Solar Glare
  • Bird Strikes
  • LASERS
  • Nerve Agents
72
Q

What are the passive measures you can take to protect yourself against a LASER?

A
  • Take Cover
  • NVDs
  • Squinting
  • Protective Goggles
73
Q

What are the active measures you can take to protect yourself against a LASER?

A
  • Evasive Action

- Scanning with one eye or monocular optics

74
Q

What are the safety features provided by the aircraft?

A
  • Structural Shell (Fuselage)
  • Landing Gear and Crashworthy seats
  • Personnel Restraint System
  • Post Crash Factors
75
Q

When washing your gloves, what temperature should the water be?

A

Less than 120 degrees

76
Q

What are some examples of unsafe apparel?

A
  • Rings

- Metal Badges

77
Q

What are the physiological zones of the atmosphere?

A
  • Efficient
  • Deficient
  • Space Equivalent
78
Q

What are the physical divisions of the atmosphere?

A
  • Troposphere
  • Stratosphere
  • Mesosphere
  • Thermosphere
79
Q

How many mmHg are there at sea level?

A

760 mmHg

80
Q

What is Boyle’s Law?

A

The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure when the temperature of the gas is held constant.

81
Q

What is Dalton’s Law?

A

The pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each in the mixture.

82
Q

What is Henry’s Law?

A

The amount of gas dissolved in a solution is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution.

83
Q

Carbon dioxide and oxygen move in and out of the ____ due to pressure differentials between gas levels.

A

Alveoli

84
Q

What hypoxia results in the reduction in total cardiac output, pooling of blood, or restriction of blood flow?

A

Stagnant hypoxia

85
Q

What type of hypoxia is any oxygen deficiency due to a reduction in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood?

A

Hypemic hypoxia

86
Q

Hyperventilation _____ carbon dioxide levels in the blood, blood becomes more _____.

A

Lowers

Alkaline

87
Q

True or false? Barodontalgia occurs on the descent?

A

False

88
Q

Which DCS involves larger joints, such as knees and shoulders, dull pain that progresses if ascent continues?

A

Bends