INTRO, BLOOD GRUP IMMUNOLOGY AND GENETICS Flashcards

1
Q

First blood transfusion was given to

A

Pope Innocent VII

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2
Q

He recommended sodium phosphate ; first example of blood preservation research

A

Braxton Hicks

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3
Q

Discovered the ABO blood groups ; explained the serious reactions that occur in human as a result of incompatible transfusion

A

Karl Landsteiner

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4
Q

First to succeed in making devices designed for performing the transfusions ; vein-to vein transfusion of blood by using multiple syringes and a special cannula for puncturing the vein through the skin

A

Edward E. Lindemann

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5
Q

Syringe-valve apparatus that transfusions from donor to patient by an unassisted physician became practical

A

Unger

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6
Q

The use of sodium citrate as an anticoagulant solution for transfusions

A

Hustin

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7
Q

Determine the minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation and demonstrated its non-toxicity in small amounts

A

Lewisohn

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8
Q

Refers to the genetically encoded antigen system on the erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes, and plasma

A

Blood group antigens

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9
Q

Glycolipid

A

ABO

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10
Q

GLYCOPROTEIN

A

LEWIS

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11
Q

Rare/family/private antigen (KELL)

A

Low incidence

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12
Q

Public/common (cellano)

A

High incidence

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13
Q

Most to least immunogenic blood group antigen

A

ABO>RhD>K>Fya> common Rh Ag

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14
Q

Reacts with an antigen on the patients own cells

A

Autoantibody

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15
Q

Reacts with a foreign antigen not present on the patients own erythrocytes

A

Alloantibody

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16
Q

Antigenic stimulus is unknown

A

Naturally occurring

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17
Q

Individual was exposed to a biochemical structure similar to A or B antigens present in the environment (Bacteria, pollen, and plants)

A

Non-RBC stimulated antibody

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18
Q

Produced as the result of immunization to foreign erythrocyte antigens by exposure through transfusion of blood components of through pregnancy

A

Immune antibody

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19
Q

Room temp or cold reacting immunoglobulin ; big ; agglutinates ; cannot cross placenta

A

IgM

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20
Q

Reacts at body temp ; cannot agglutinate ; small ; can cross placenta

A

IgG

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21
Q

Number of molecules of IgM needed to activate complement

A

1 molecule

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22
Q

Number of molecules of IgG needed to activate complement

A

2 molecules

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23
Q

Blood groups associated with IgG

(Rich Dairy Kid (can) K(e)ll Sir - Greg)

A

RH
DUFFY
KID
KELL
Ss

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24
Q

Conversion of polymeric antibody into monomeric antibody

A

Reduction of antibody

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25
Q

2 reagents that can destroy joining chain of antibodies (antibody reduction)

A

2-mercapthoethanol (2-ME)
Dithiothreitol (DTT)

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26
Q

Phenomenon in which red cells from homozygous people posses more antigens per red cell than do cells from heterozygous people

A

Dosage effect

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27
Q

Blood groups that demonstrate dosage effect

A

MNSs, Duffy, Kidd, Rh (except D), Lutheran

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28
Q

At what state will the red cells demonstrate a higher degree of reaction (4+)

A

Homozygous (M+N-)

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29
Q

At what state will the red cells demonstrate a lower degree of reaction

A

Heterozygous (M+N+)

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30
Q

Antigen-antibody reaction pH

A

Neutral (pH 6.5-7.5)

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31
Q

Antibody that can react both at warm and cold temperature (BIPHASIC)

A

Autoanti-p (DONATH-LANDSTEINER antibody)

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32
Q

Antigen-antibody reaction : Under-centrifugation

A

False negative

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33
Q

Antigen-antibody reaction : overcentrifugation

A

False positive

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34
Q

Negative charge source of RBC

A

SIALIC ACID

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35
Q

Distance between one red cell to another red cell

A

Zeta potential

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36
Q

Enhancement medium are reagent that enhances the detection of _____ antibodies by increasing their reactivity ; reduces the ______ ; may enhance _____ or ______ promote _______

A

IgG ; zeta potential ; antibody uptake ; promote direct agglutination

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37
Q

Aka potentiator

A

Enhancement medium

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38
Q

increases the dielectric constant (a measure of electrical conductivity), which then reduces the zeta potential of the RBC

A

Protein medium

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39
Q

Increased concentration promotes rouleaux formation ; cheapest ; longest incubation time of 15/30-60 mins

A

22% or 30% bovine serum albumin

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40
Q

Removes water molecule in the environment

A

Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

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41
Q

Hydrophilic polar heads of lipid molecules making up the outer cell membrane bilayer attract water molecules

A

Polyethylene glycol

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42
Q

Polyethylene glycol (PEG) incubation

A

10-30 mins

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43
Q

More effective than albumin, LISS for detection of weak antibodies

A

Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

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44
Q

PROTEIN MEDIUM (4)

A

22% or 30% bovine serum albumin
PEG
Protamine
Polyvinylpyrrolidone

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45
Q

LISS generally contains _________

A

0.2% sodium chloride + glycine

46
Q

Decreases the ionic strength of a reaction medium, which reduces the zeta potential and therefore allows antibodies to react more efficiently with RBC membrane antigens

A

Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS)

47
Q

LISS incubation

48
Q

Use of Enzymes targets the ______, protein molecule

A

SIALIC component

49
Q

Blood group antigens enhanced by enzymes

A

RH, Kidd, p1, Lewi, and I antigens

50
Q

Blood group antigens destroyed by enzymes

A

Fya, Fyb, M, N, S antigens

51
Q

Examples of enzymes used as enhancement media

A

Papain - papaya
Ricin - pig stomach
Trypsin - fig plant
Bromelain - pineapple

52
Q

Discovered AHG in 1945

A

Coombs, Mourant and Race

53
Q

Aka Coombs test

54
Q

Detects the antibody and complement protein that have attached to the RBC

A

AHG /COOMBS TEST

55
Q

Involved the injection of human serum into rabbits to produce antihuman serum

A

AHG/Coombs test

56
Q

Universal color of AHG

57
Q

Detects in vivo sensitization of RBC with IgG/ complement components ; HDFN , HTR (hemolytic transfusion reaction), AIHA (autoimmune hemolytic anemia) ; incubation is NOT REQUIRED

A

DIRECT AHG

58
Q

Removes free / unbound antibody

A

Washing of RBC

59
Q

Free or unbound antibody causes false ____ result

A

FALSE NEGATIVE

60
Q

Red cells with attached anitibody ; added to AHG negative result ; Serves as a bridge between incomplete antibodies ; cross links cells together ; only binds to antibody present on red cells

61
Q

If AHG was not used due to absence of antibody on red cells (no agglutination was observed - negative), what is added next?

A

Check cells/ Coombs cells

62
Q

IgG coated cells that react to unused AHG from the previous negative reaction resulting to agglutination

A

Check cells / Coombs cells

63
Q

After the addition of check cells to a negative reaction and agglutination was observed, the result is interpreted as

64
Q

After the addition of check cells to a negative reaction and no agglutination was observed, the result is interpreted as

65
Q

Sample of choice for DAT

66
Q

Antigen-antibody reaction will trigger complement to ___ red cells

67
Q

Neutralizes (consumes) antihuman globulin causing false negative DAT results (washed RBC was not used)

A

Free / unbound antibody

68
Q

Detects IN VITRO sensitization of RBC

A

Indirect AHG

69
Q

Used for unexpected/immune antibodies (Rh antibodies)

A

Antibody detection, identification, and titration

70
Q

Red cell phenotyping and cross matching use what AHG method

A

Indirect AHG

71
Q

Purpose of incubation

A

To promote antigen-antibody reaction

72
Q

Incubate anti-sera
Wash 3x
Add AHG reagent
Add checks cells if negative

A

Patient red cells

73
Q

Incubate RGT red cells
Wash 3x
Add AHG reagent
Add checks cells if negative

A

Patient serum

74
Q

AHG reagent that contains antibody to human IgG and to the C3d component of human complement

A

Polyspecific AHG

75
Q

AHG reagent that contains ONLY ONE antibody speficity; either anti-IgG or antibody to specific components of complement, such as C3b or C3d

A

Monospecific AHG

76
Q

AHG PREP: Mixture of antibodies from DIFFERENT plasma cell clones ; recognize DIFFERENT antigenic determinants (epitopes), or the same portion of the antigen but with different affinities ; commonly prepared using RABBITS

A

Polyclonal

77
Q

AHG PREP: Derived from ONE clone of plasma cells and recognize a single epitope ; commonly prepared using MICE

A

Monoclonal

78
Q

Cell to serum ratio

A

1:40 or 1gtt/2gtt

79
Q

AHG Test Centrifugation

A

100 rcf for 20 seconds

80
Q

DAT detect a level of ____ to ___ IgG molecules per RBC and 400 to 1,100 molecules of C3d per RBC

A

100 to 500 IgG molecules

81
Q

IAT : there must be between ____ to ____ IgG or C3 molecules on the cell to obtain a POSITIVE reaction

A

100 to 200 IgG C3 molecules

82
Q

A positive result ; antibody-mediated CLUMPING of particles that express antigen on the surface

A

Agglutination

83
Q

RUPTURE OF RED cells with release of intracellular hemoglobin

84
Q

Formation of an INSOLUBLE COMPLEX when soluble reacts with soluble antibody

A

Precipitation

85
Q

The single most important in vitro immunologic reaction in blood banking ; the ENDPOINT of almost all test systems designed to detect RBC antigens and antibodies

A

Specific hemagglutination

86
Q

SEROLOGIC GRADING : One solid agglutinate with clear background

A

Grading: 4+
Score: 10

87
Q

SEROLOGIC GRADING : Several Medium to Large agglutinate with clear background

A

Grading: 3+
Score: 8

88
Q

SEROLOGIC GRADING: Medium-sized agglutinates with clear background

A

Grading: 2+
Score: 5

89
Q

SEROLOGIC GRADING: Medium-sized agglutinates with clear background

A

Grading: 2+
Score: 5

90
Q

SEROLOGIC GRADING : Small agglutinates with a turbid background

A

Grading: 1+
Score: 3

91
Q

SEROLOGIC GRADING: tiny agglutinates with turbid background

A

Grading: w+
Score: 1

92
Q

SEROLOGIC GRADING : No agglutination or hemolysis

A

Grading: 0
Score: 0

93
Q

SEROLOGIC GRADING : Small agglutinates within predominantly unagglutinated red cells

A

Grading: mf (mixed field)
Score: NA

94
Q

SEROLOGIC GRADING : Hemolysis

A

Grading: H
Score: 10

95
Q

SEROLOGIC GRADING : Partial hemolysis

A

Grading: PH
Score:-

96
Q

Unit of inheritance that encodes a particular protein

97
Q

Structures within the nucleus that contain DNA

A

Chromosome

98
Q

Hemolysis is considered as a positive result if the sample used is ______

99
Q

Differentiates rouleaux (false positive) from agglutination

100
Q

Illustrates the probabilities of phenotypes from known genotypes

A

Punnett square

101
Q

Site of a gene chromosome

102
Q

Alternate forms of a gene at a given locus

103
Q

Opposite antigens encoded at the same locus

A

Antithetical

104
Q

Refers to having two or more alleles at a given locus

A

Polymorphic

105
Q

Equal expression of two differnt inherited alleles

A

Codominant

106
Q

Gene that does not produce any detectable trait

107
Q

Gene that suppresses the expression of another gene

A

Suppressor gene

108
Q

Examples of Amorph gene

A

O-Gene - blood type O
H-Gene - Bombay phenotype

109
Q

MENDEL’S LAW OF INHERITANCE : Alternative versions of genes account for variations in inherited characters ; Alleles are different version of genes that impart the same characteristic

A

Law of segregation

110
Q

MENDEL’S LAW OF INHERITANCE : Genes for different traits are inherited separately from each other

A

Law of independent assortment