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BLOOD BANK > ANTIBODY DETECTION AND IDENTIFICATION & BLOOD DONATION > Flashcards

ANTIBODY DETECTION AND IDENTIFICATION & BLOOD DONATION Flashcards

1
Q

Cause decreased survival of RBCs ; typically, IgG antibodies that react at 37C

A

Clinically significant alloantibodies

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2
Q

Detects as many or few potentially clinically significant antibodies in a donor’s or recipient’s sample ; involves the reaction between patient serum with 2 or 3 reagent phenotyped for multiple antigens

A

Antibody screening

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3
Q

Reagent RBC for antibody screening

A

O cells

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4
Q

Antigram : 1st column - detects IgM antibodies

A

IMMEDIATE SPIN / ROOM TEMP

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5
Q

Antigram : 2nd column - detects both IgG and IgM

A

Thermophase / 37C

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6
Q

Antigram : 3rd column - detects IgG

A

AHG

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7
Q

Antigram : 4th column

A

Check cells

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8
Q

Antigram : A positive result in any phase, there is a need for _____

A

Antibody identification

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9
Q

Patient ispositive for antibody screening, what to do next?

A

Antibody identification

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10
Q

Donor is positive for antibody screening, what to do next?

A

No antibody identification, discard plasma only

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11
Q

IgM antibodies

A

Anti-Le^a
Anti-Le^b
Anti-P1
Anti-M
Anti-N
Anti-Lu^a

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12
Q

IgG antibodies

A

Anti-e
Anti-S/anti-s
Anti-Fya and anti-Fyb
Anti-Jka and anti-JKb
Anti-Lub

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13
Q

Antigram interpretation : SPECIFICITY should be suspected when all screen cells yielding a positive reaction react at the same phase(s) and strength

A

Single Antibody

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14
Q

Antigram interpretation : are most likely present when screen cells react at DIFFERENT phase or strengths

A

Multiple antibody

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15
Q

Antigram interpretation : Should be suspected when the AUTOLOGOUS control or DAT is positive and all screen cells yield a positive reaction

A

Auto-antibody

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16
Q

Antibodies associated with hemolysis (in vitro)

A

Anti-Le^a
Anti-Le^b
Anti-PP1Pk
Anti-Vel

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17
Q

Antibodies associated with mixed field

A

Anti-Sd^a

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18
Q

_____ of an antibody to red cell antigen(s) requires testing the serum against a panel of selected red cell samples with known antigen composition

A

Identification

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19
Q

Collection of 11-20 group O reagent RBCs ; antigen expression should be diverse

A

Antibody identification panel

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20
Q

Antibody identification step : cross out panel cells with “0” reaction ; however do not cross out heterozygous antigens (++) that show dosage

A

Step 1

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21
Q

Antibody identification step : look for matching pattern (cells with reaction)

A

Step 2

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22
Q

Antibody identification step : consider the antibody’s usual temperature reactivity

A

Step 3

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23
Q

Blood groups that demonstrate dosage

A

MNSs, Duffy, Kidd, Rh (except D), Lutheran

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24
Q

General rule for antibody identification

A

Look for negative results “0” and eliminate antigens that are present except heterozygous antigens that show dosage

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25
Q

Antibody Identification Rule of three :

A

Positive with 3 cells with the antigen
Negative with 3 cells without the antigen

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26
Q

The cells selected for testing should have minimal overlap antigens they possess

A

Selected panel

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27
Q

Modify the RBC surface by removing Sialic acid residues and by denaturing or removing glycoproteins ; results in the destruction of certain antigens and the enhanced expression of other s

A

Enzymes

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28
Q

Used to neutralize Anti-P

A

Hydatid cyst fluid, pigeon droppings, turtledove’s egg whites

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29
Q

Used to neutralize anti-Lewis

A

Plasma or serum, saliva

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30
Q

Used to neutralize anti-Chido, and it-Rodgers

A

Serum (contains complement)

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31
Q

Used to neutralize anti-Sda

A

Urine

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32
Q

Used to neutralize anti-I

A

Human breast milk

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33
Q

Process of removing antibody from the serum against

A

Adsorption

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34
Q

Common Adsorbent

A

RBC

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35
Q

Adsorbs Bg-like antibodies

A

Human platelet concentrate

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36
Q

Cold-reacting autoantibodies

A

Rabbit erythrocyte stoma (RESt)

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37
Q

Process of quantifying the amount or concentration of antibody

A

Antibody titration

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38
Q

Antibody titer level

A

Reciprocal of the greatest dilution in which agglutination of 1+ or greater is observed

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39
Q

Duration : Whole blood collection

A

Within 15 mins

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40
Q

Duration : Whole blood collection for platelet use

A

Within 12 mins

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41
Q

Duration : apheresis

A

45 mins to 2 hours

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42
Q

Hospital based, performs compatibility testing and prepares blood components

A

Blood bank-transfusion service

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43
Q

Screens donor, draws donors, performs testing on donor blood, and delivers appropriate components to hospital BB

A

Blood center - donation center

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44
Q

Only purpose is to collect blood from donor

A

Blood collection unit

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45
Q

Types of donors

A

Autologous and allogeneic

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46
Q

Type of donor : rare phenotype ; “self” ; safer and higher cost ; color label :of unit : Green

A

Autologous

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47
Q

An autologous donor can be deferred if they have

A

Bacteremia

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48
Q

Autologous donor : 5-6 weeks preceding a schedules surgery ; no later than 72 hours(3days) before the scheduled surgery ; most common

A

Pre-operative

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49
Q

Collection of whole blood with the concurrent infusion of crystalloid or colloid solutions

A

Acute normovolemic

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50
Q

Crystalloid ratio

A

3:1

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51
Q

Colloid ratio

A

1:1

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52
Q

Collecting shed blood from the surgical site, processing the blood, reinfusing the blood

A

Intra-operative collection

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53
Q

Collected from a drainage tube placed at the surgical site

A

Post-operative

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54
Q

Voluntary non-remunerated donors ; directed donors ; paid donors

A

Allogeneic donor type

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55
Q

Color label for directed unit

A

Salmon yellow label

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56
Q

If the donor is a blood relative, the unit be be _____ to prevent graft vs host disease so that viable t-cells from the donor that enter the patient’s circulation do not mount an attach agains patient’s cells and tissue

A

Irradiated

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57
Q

Documenting information that fully identifies the donor on an individual donation

A

Donor registration

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58
Q

Essential to ensure the protection of the donor and benefit to the recipient

A

Medical history

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59
Q

Type of deferrals : donor is unable to donate blood for a limited period of time

60
Q

Do not will never be eligible to donate blood for someone else

61
Q

Donor is unable to donate blood for someone else for an unspecified period of time due to current regulatory requirement

A

Indefinite

62
Q

History of viral hepatitis after 11th birthday
Hepatitis B surface antigen positive
Reactive test to anti-Hbc
Hepatitis C virus, human T-cell lymphotropic virus (HIV)
Babesiosis or Chagas disease
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Recipient of dura mater or human pituitary GH
Risk of vCJD
Use of needle to administer nonprescription durum’s

A

Permanent/Indefinite deferral (AABB)

63
Q

Deferral period for history of malaria

64
Q

Deferral period for lived in endemic area for 5 consecutive years

A

3 days from departure

65
Q

Deferral period : Travel to malaria endemic area

A

1 year from departure

66
Q

Deferral period for babesiosis

A

Indefinite deferral

67
Q

Deferral period for Chagas’ disease

A

Indefinite

68
Q

Deferral period for leishmaniasis

A

1 year from departure

69
Q

Medication deferral : finasteride (proscar)

70
Q

Medication deferral : finasteride (propecia)

71
Q

Medication deferral : Isotetrinoin (accurate, amnesteem, claravis, sotret)

72
Q

Medication deferral : Dutasderide (Avodart, Jalyn)

73
Q

Medication deferral : Acitretin (Soriatane)

74
Q

Medication deferral : Etretinate (Tegison)

A

Indefinite deferral

75
Q

Medication deferral : Warfarin (Coumadin)

76
Q

Medication deferral : Aspirin and piroxicam (Feldene)

A

2 days after last dose

77
Q

Medication deferral : Clopidogrel (Plavix), ticlopidine (Ticlid)

A

14 days for platelet donors

78
Q

Medication deferral : hepatitis B immune globulin

79
Q

Deferral time : measles vaccine, mumps vaccine, Polio (oral) vaccine, typhoid (oral) vaccines, yellow fever vaccine

80
Q

Deferral time : German measles Vaccine, Varicella-Zoster vaccines

81
Q

Deferral time : conclusion of pregnancy

82
Q

Deferral time :

Tattoos
Sexual contact with high risk for HIV
Mucus membrane or skin penetration exposure to blood
Incarceration in a correctional institution for >72 hours
Completion of therapy for syphilis
Transfusion of blood components, human tissue, plasma derived clotting factor concentrates, human Diploid cell-rabies vaccine

A

1 YR / 12 MONTHS

83
Q

Deferral time : Apheresis donation

84
Q

FDA limits platelet apheresis procedures to no more than ___ in a calendar year

85
Q

Apheresis donor may only donate ____ in a period of 7 days and only ____ in 7 days for a double or triple apheresis

A

Twice ; once

86
Q

Deferral time : infrequent plasma apheresis

87
Q

Deferral time : double red cell apheresis

88
Q

Deferral time : alcohol intake

89
Q

Deferral time : Skin lesions

A

Indefinite

90
Q

Age requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor

A

No age requirement ; at least 16 years old

91
Q

Weight requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor

A

No weight requirement ; 110 lbs / 50 kg

92
Q

Amount of anticoagulant in a 450 mL blood unit

93
Q

Amount of anticoagulant in a 450 mL blood unit

94
Q

Amount of anticoagulant in a 500 mL blood unit

95
Q

Temperature requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor

A

37.5 C / 99.5 K

96
Q

Pulse rate requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor

A

500-100 bpm

97
Q

Blood presssure requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor

A

Systolic : 90-100
Diastolic : 50-100

98
Q

Hemoglobin requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor

A

Autologous : 11.0 g/dL
Allogeneic : 13.0 g/dL (male) ; 12.5 g/dL (female)

99
Q

Hematocrit requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor

A

Autologous : 33%
Allogeneic : 39% (Male) ; 38% (female)

100
Q

Hazardous occupations : shall normally entail an interval of not _____ hours between donation and returning to the occupation or hobby

101
Q

Donor identification ; used to link the donor to the donor record, pilot tubes, blood contained, and all components made from the original collection

A

Numeric/alphabet system

102
Q

Venipuncture site is scrubbed at least ____ cm in all directions

103
Q

Antiseptic (chlorhexidine gluconate + isopropyl alcohol) must stay on the skin for a minimum of ___

A

30 seconds

104
Q

Collection container that divert the first 10-20 mL of blood ; Used to prevent contamination with epidermal cell and bacteria from entering the bag

A

Diversion pouch

105
Q

Donor’s reaction : syncope

106
Q

Donor’s reaction : decreased pulse rate

107
Q

Donor’s reaction : Convulsion

108
Q

A localized collection of blood under the skin resulting in a bluish discoloration ; caused by the needle going through the vein with subsequent leakage of blood into the tissue

109
Q

Collection of a specific blood component while returning the remaining whole blood components back to the patient

110
Q

Apheresis anticoagulant

111
Q

Method of centrifugation : blood is processed in batches or cycles

A

Intermittent flow centri (1 puncture site)

112
Q

Method of centrifugation :blood withdrawal, processing, reinfusion are performed simultaneously in an ongoing manner

A

Continuous flow centri (2 sites : 1 for collection and 1 for reinfusion)

113
Q

Leukapheresis sedimenting agent

A

Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)

114
Q

Increases leukocytes harvest for leukapheresis

A

Corticosteroids (Prednisone or dexamethasone) and growth factors

115
Q

Each of the plateletpheresis is equivalent to how many random donor platelets

A

6-8 random donor platelets

116
Q

FDA guidelines for 2RBC in male

A

Must be 130 lbs ; minimum height 5’1

117
Q

FDA guidelines for 2RBC in female

A

Must be 150 lbs ; minimum height 5’5

118
Q

FDA guidelines for 2RBC : hematocrit must be

119
Q

Plasmapheresis donor : No more than one procedure in a 4-week period

A

Infrequent donor

120
Q

Plasmapheresis donor : donates more frequently than 4 weeks but no more than every 48 hours and no more than two donations in a 7-day period

A

Serial donor

121
Q

A pathology if substance exists in the blood that contributes to a disease process or its symptoms ; the substance can be more effectively removed by apheresis than by the body’s own homeostatic mechanisms

A

Therapeutic cytapheresis

122
Q

Indication Categories for Therapeutic Apheresis:

Apheresis is standard and acceptable, either as primary therapy or as a first-line adjunct to other initial therapies

A

Category I

123
Q

Indication Categories for Therapeutic Apheresis:

Apheresis is generally accepted in a supportive role or as second-line therapy, rather than first-line therapy

A

Category II

124
Q

Indication Categories for Therapeutic Apheresis:

Apheresis is not clearly indicated based on insufficient evidence, conflicting results, or inability to document a favorable risk-to-benefit ratio

A

Category III

125
Q

Indication Categories for Therapeutic Apheresis:

Apheresis has been demonstrated to lack efficacy or be harmful and should be discouraged in these disorders

A

Category IV

126
Q

FDA recognizes only two acceptable languages for blood component labeling :

A

ABC Codabar
ISBT 128

127
Q

Most commonly used blood component label ; 4x4 inch label ; unique on a worldwide basis and not repeatable for 100 years

128
Q

ISBT 128 : Upper left

A

Donation and collection facility identifiers

129
Q

ISBT 128 : upper right

A

Blood type

130
Q

ISBT 128 : lower left

A

Product description

131
Q

ISBT 128 : lower right

A

Expiration date and special labels

132
Q

Blood label color : blood type A

133
Q

Blood label color : blood type B

134
Q

Blood label color : blood type AB

135
Q

Blood label color : blood type O

136
Q

Blood label color : hold for further processing

137
Q

Blood label color : for emergency use only

138
Q

Blood label color : for autologous use only

139
Q

Blood label color : not for transfusion

140
Q

Blood label color : irradiated

141
Q

Blood label color : biohazard

142
Q

Blood label color : from therapeutic phlebotomy

A

Chartreuse

143
Q

Retention time for medical director approval for donation interval

144
Q

Retention time for notification of abnormal results

A

10 years / indefinite

145
Q

Once the component has been made, it must be labeled in accordance with _____ (3)

A

AABB standards
FDA regulations
ISBT 128

146
Q

West Nile virus and trypanosoma cruzi antibody are part of screening test for infectious diseases in blood donation - True or False

A

True yan siss

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