ANTIBODY DETECTION AND IDENTIFICATION & BLOOD DONATION Flashcards
1
Q
Cause decreased survival of RBCs ; typically, IgG antibodies that react at 37C
A
Clinically significant alloantibodies
2
Q
Detects as many or few potentially clinically significant antibodies in a donor’s or recipient’s sample ; involves the reaction between patient serum with 2 or 3 reagent phenotyped for multiple antigens
A
Antibody screening
3
Q
Reagent RBC for antibody screening
A
O cells
4
Q
Antigram : 1st column - detects IgM antibodies
A
IMMEDIATE SPIN / ROOM TEMP
5
Q
Antigram : 2nd column - detects both IgG and IgM
A
Thermophase / 37C
6
Q
Antigram : 3rd column - detects IgG
A
AHG
7
Q
Antigram : 4th column
A
Check cells
8
Q
Antigram : A positive result in any phase, there is a need for _____
A
Antibody identification
9
Q
Patient ispositive for antibody screening, what to do next?
A
Antibody identification
10
Q
Donor is positive for antibody screening, what to do next?
A
No antibody identification, discard plasma only
11
Q
IgM antibodies
A
Anti-Le^a
Anti-Le^b
Anti-P1
Anti-M
Anti-N
Anti-Lu^a
12
Q
IgG antibodies
A
Anti-e
Anti-S/anti-s
Anti-Fya and anti-Fyb
Anti-Jka and anti-JKb
Anti-Lub
13
Q
Antigram interpretation : SPECIFICITY should be suspected when all screen cells yielding a positive reaction react at the same phase(s) and strength
A
Single Antibody
14
Q
Antigram interpretation : are most likely present when screen cells react at DIFFERENT phase or strengths
A
Multiple antibody
15
Q
Antigram interpretation : Should be suspected when the AUTOLOGOUS control or DAT is positive and all screen cells yield a positive reaction
A
Auto-antibody
16
Q
Antibodies associated with hemolysis (in vitro)
A
Anti-Le^a
Anti-Le^b
Anti-PP1Pk
Anti-Vel
17
Q
Antibodies associated with mixed field
A
Anti-Sd^a
18
Q
_____ of an antibody to red cell antigen(s) requires testing the serum against a panel of selected red cell samples with known antigen composition
A
Identification
19
Q
Collection of 11-20 group O reagent RBCs ; antigen expression should be diverse
A
Antibody identification panel
20
Q
Antibody identification step : cross out panel cells with “0” reaction ; however do not cross out heterozygous antigens (++) that show dosage
A
Step 1
21
Q
Antibody identification step : look for matching pattern (cells with reaction)
A
Step 2
22
Q
Antibody identification step : consider the antibody’s usual temperature reactivity
A
Step 3
23
Q
Blood groups that demonstrate dosage
A
MNSs, Duffy, Kidd, Rh (except D), Lutheran
24
Q
General rule for antibody identification
A
Look for negative results “0” and eliminate antigens that are present except heterozygous antigens that show dosage
25
Antibody Identification Rule of three :
Positive with 3 cells with the antigen
Negative with 3 cells without the antigen
26
The cells selected for testing should have minimal overlap antigens they possess
Selected panel
27
Modify the RBC surface by removing Sialic acid residues and by denaturing or removing glycoproteins ; results in the destruction of certain antigens and the enhanced expression of other s
Enzymes
28
Used to neutralize Anti-P
Hydatid cyst fluid, pigeon droppings, turtledove’s egg whites
29
Used to neutralize anti-Lewis
Plasma or serum, saliva
30
Used to neutralize anti-Chido, and it-Rodgers
Serum (contains complement)
31
Used to neutralize anti-Sda
Urine
32
Used to neutralize anti-I
Human breast milk
33
Process of removing antibody from the serum against
Adsorption
34
Common Adsorbent
RBC
35
Adsorbs Bg-like antibodies
Human platelet concentrate
36
Cold-reacting autoantibodies
Rabbit erythrocyte stoma (RESt)
37
Process of quantifying the amount or concentration of antibody
Antibody titration
38
Antibody titer level
Reciprocal of the greatest dilution in which agglutination of 1+ or greater is observed
39
Duration : Whole blood collection
Within 15 mins
40
Duration : Whole blood collection for platelet use
Within 12 mins
41
Duration : apheresis
45 mins to 2 hours
42
Hospital based, performs compatibility testing and prepares blood components
Blood bank-transfusion service
43
Screens donor, draws donors, performs testing on donor blood, and delivers appropriate components to hospital BB
Blood center - donation center
44
Only purpose is to collect blood from donor
Blood collection unit
45
Types of donors
Autologous and allogeneic
46
Type of donor : rare phenotype ; “self” ; safer and higher cost ; color label :of unit : Green
Autologous
47
An autologous donor can be deferred if they have
Bacteremia
48
Autologous donor : 5-6 weeks preceding a schedules surgery ; no later than 72 hours(3days) before the scheduled surgery ; most common
Pre-operative
49
Collection of whole blood with the concurrent infusion of crystalloid or colloid solutions
Acute normovolemic
50
Crystalloid ratio
3:1
51
Colloid ratio
1:1
52
Collecting shed blood from the surgical site, processing the blood, reinfusing the blood
Intra-operative collection
53
Collected from a drainage tube placed at the surgical site
Post-operative
54
Voluntary non-remunerated donors ; directed donors ; paid donors
Allogeneic donor type
55
Color label for directed unit
Salmon yellow label
56
If the donor is a blood relative, the unit be be _____ to prevent graft vs host disease so that viable t-cells from the donor that enter the patient’s circulation do not mount an attach agains patient’s cells and tissue
Irradiated
57
Documenting information that fully identifies the donor on an individual donation
Donor registration
58
Essential to ensure the protection of the donor and benefit to the recipient
Medical history
59
Type of deferrals : donor is unable to donate blood for a limited period of time
Temporary
60
Do not will never be eligible to donate blood for someone else
Permanent
61
Donor is unable to donate blood for someone else for an unspecified period of time due to current regulatory requirement
Indefinite
62
History of viral hepatitis after 11th birthday
Hepatitis B surface antigen positive
Reactive test to anti-Hbc
Hepatitis C virus, human T-cell lymphotropic virus (HIV)
Babesiosis or Chagas disease
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Recipient of dura mater or human pituitary GH
Risk of vCJD
Use of needle to administer nonprescription durum’s
Permanent/Indefinite deferral (AABB)
63
Deferral period for history of malaria
3 years
64
Deferral period for lived in endemic area for 5 consecutive years
3 days from departure
65
Deferral period : Travel to malaria endemic area
1 year from departure
66
Deferral period for babesiosis
Indefinite deferral
67
Deferral period for Chagas’ disease
Indefinite
68
Deferral period for leishmaniasis
1 year from departure
69
Medication deferral : finasteride (proscar)
1 month
70
Medication deferral : finasteride (propecia)
1 month
71
Medication deferral : Isotetrinoin (accurate, amnesteem, claravis, sotret)
1 month
72
Medication deferral : Dutasderide (Avodart, Jalyn)
6 months
73
Medication deferral : Acitretin (Soriatane)
3 years
74
Medication deferral : Etretinate (Tegison)
Indefinite deferral
75
Medication deferral : Warfarin (Coumadin)
1 week
76
Medication deferral : Aspirin and piroxicam (Feldene)
2 days after last dose
77
Medication deferral : Clopidogrel (Plavix), ticlopidine (Ticlid)
14 days for platelet donors
78
Medication deferral : hepatitis B immune globulin
1 year
79
Deferral time : measles vaccine, mumps vaccine, Polio (oral) vaccine, typhoid (oral) vaccines, yellow fever vaccine
2 weeks
80
Deferral time : German measles Vaccine, Varicella-Zoster vaccines
4 weeks
81
Deferral time : conclusion of pregnancy
6 weeks
82
Deferral time :
Tattoos
Sexual contact with high risk for HIV
Mucus membrane or skin penetration exposure to blood
Incarceration in a correctional institution for >72 hours
Completion of therapy for syphilis
Transfusion of blood components, human tissue, plasma derived clotting factor concentrates, human Diploid cell-rabies vaccine
1 YR / 12 MONTHS
83
Deferral time : Apheresis donation
48 hours
84
FDA limits platelet apheresis procedures to no more than ___ in a calendar year
24
85
Apheresis donor may only donate ____ in a period of 7 days and only ____ in 7 days for a double or triple apheresis
Twice ; once
86
Deferral time : infrequent plasma apheresis
4 weeks
87
Deferral time : double red cell apheresis
16 weeks
88
Deferral time : alcohol intake
12 hours
89
Deferral time : Skin lesions
Indefinite
90
Age requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor
No age requirement ; at least 16 years old
91
Weight requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor
No weight requirement ; 110 lbs / 50 kg
92
Amount of anticoagulant in a 450 mL blood unit
63 mL
93
Amount of anticoagulant in a 450 mL blood unit
63 mL
94
Amount of anticoagulant in a 500 mL blood unit
70 mL
95
Temperature requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor
37.5 C / 99.5 K
96
Pulse rate requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor
500-100 bpm
97
Blood presssure requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor
Systolic : 90-100
Diastolic : 50-100
98
Hemoglobin requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor
Autologous : 11.0 g/dL
Allogeneic : 13.0 g/dL (male) ; 12.5 g/dL (female)
99
Hematocrit requirement for autologous donor and allogeneic donor
Autologous : 33%
Allogeneic : 39% (Male) ; 38% (female)
100
Hazardous occupations : shall normally entail an interval of not _____ hours between donation and returning to the occupation or hobby
<12 hours
101
Donor identification ; used to link the donor to the donor record, pilot tubes, blood contained, and all components made from the original collection
Numeric/alphabet system
102
Venipuncture site is scrubbed at least ____ cm in all directions
4 cm
103
Antiseptic (chlorhexidine gluconate + isopropyl alcohol) must stay on the skin for a minimum of ___
30 seconds
104
Collection container that divert the first 10-20 mL of blood ; Used to prevent contamination with epidermal cell and bacteria from entering the bag
Diversion pouch
105
Donor’s reaction : syncope
Mild
106
Donor’s reaction : decreased pulse rate
Moderate
107
Donor’s reaction : Convulsion
Severe
108
A localized collection of blood under the skin resulting in a bluish discoloration ; caused by the needle going through the vein with subsequent leakage of blood into the tissue
Hematoma
109
Collection of a specific blood component while returning the remaining whole blood components back to the patient
Apheresis
110
Apheresis anticoagulant
Citrate
111
Method of centrifugation : blood is processed in batches or cycles
Intermittent flow centri (1 puncture site)
112
Method of centrifugation :blood withdrawal, processing, reinfusion are performed simultaneously in an ongoing manner
Continuous flow centri (2 sites : 1 for collection and 1 for reinfusion)
113
Leukapheresis sedimenting agent
Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)
114
Increases leukocytes harvest for leukapheresis
Corticosteroids (Prednisone or dexamethasone) and growth factors
115
Each of the plateletpheresis is equivalent to how many random donor platelets
6-8 random donor platelets
116
FDA guidelines for 2RBC in male
Must be 130 lbs ; minimum height 5’1
117
FDA guidelines for 2RBC in female
Must be 150 lbs ; minimum height 5’5
118
FDA guidelines for 2RBC : hematocrit must be
>40%
119
Plasmapheresis donor : No more than one procedure in a 4-week period
Infrequent donor
120
Plasmapheresis donor : donates more frequently than 4 weeks but no more than every 48 hours and no more than two donations in a 7-day period
Serial donor
121
A pathology if substance exists in the blood that contributes to a disease process or its symptoms ; the substance can be more effectively removed by apheresis than by the body’s own homeostatic mechanisms
Therapeutic cytapheresis
122
Indication Categories for Therapeutic Apheresis:
Apheresis is standard and acceptable, either as primary therapy or as a first-line adjunct to other initial therapies
Category I
123
Indication Categories for Therapeutic Apheresis:
Apheresis is generally accepted in a supportive role or as second-line therapy, rather than first-line therapy
Category II
124
Indication Categories for Therapeutic Apheresis:
Apheresis is not clearly indicated based on insufficient evidence, conflicting results, or inability to document a favorable risk-to-benefit ratio
Category III
125
Indication Categories for Therapeutic Apheresis:
Apheresis has been demonstrated to lack efficacy or be harmful and should be discouraged in these disorders
Category IV
126
FDA recognizes only two acceptable languages for blood component labeling :
ABC Codabar
ISBT 128
127
Most commonly used blood component label ; 4x4 inch label ; unique on a worldwide basis and not repeatable for 100 years
ISBT 128
128
ISBT 128 : Upper left
Donation and collection facility identifiers
129
ISBT 128 : upper right
Blood type
130
ISBT 128 : lower left
Product description
131
ISBT 128 : lower right
Expiration date and special labels
132
Blood label color : blood type A
Yellow
133
Blood label color : blood type B
Pink
134
Blood label color : blood type AB
White
135
Blood label color : blood type O
Blue
136
Blood label color : hold for further processing
Tan
137
Blood label color : for emergency use only
Orange
138
Blood label color : for autologous use only
Green
139
Blood label color : not for transfusion
Gray
140
Blood label color : irradiated
Purple
141
Blood label color : biohazard
Red
142
Blood label color : from therapeutic phlebotomy
Chartreuse
143
Retention time for medical director approval for donation interval
5 years
144
Retention time for notification of abnormal results
10 years / indefinite
145
Once the component has been made, it must be labeled in accordance with _____ (3)
AABB standards
FDA regulations
ISBT 128
146
West Nile virus and trypanosoma cruzi antibody are part of screening test for infectious diseases in blood donation - True or False
True yan siss
