Intro Flashcards

1
Q

After exiting the x-ray tube the x-photons undergo 3-main events within the patient
tissues, also known as what?

A

differential absorption

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2
Q

x-rays can pass through and expose the film turning it___

A

black

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3
Q

the x-rays can interact and be completely absorbed by

A

patient’s tissue

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4
Q

X-rays can interact, deflect and produce _______ that can contribute to
radiation dose to the patient and the medical personnel

A

Compton scatter

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5
Q

What are the 4-known radiographic densities potentially representing normal or
pathological densities of the human body?

A

Air
Fat
Water
Bone/metal/calcium

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6
Q

What appears as black?

A

Air-

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7
Q

What appears as slightly less black than air?

A

Fat- subcutaneous fat and fat pads of the joints

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8
Q

What appears as grey?

A

Water soft tissues and abnormal fluid

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9
Q

What appears as white?

A

Bone/Metal/Calcium-mineralised bone or metallic objects

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10
Q

What does APLC stand for?

A

AP lower cervical

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11
Q

What does APOM stand for?

A

AP open mouth

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12
Q

The views of the cervical spine considered to be diagnostic if they include:

A

Cranio-cervical region superiorly

Cervico-throacic region inferiorly

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13
Q

General rule states that t is required to perform at least _________
orthogonal to each other.

A

2-radiographic views

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14
Q

What does A.B.C.S stand for in radiographic evaluation?

A

Alignment
Bone
Cartilage
Soft Tissues

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15
Q

normal anatomic relations of joints and osseous structures concerns what part of ABCS?

A

Alignment

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16
Q

bone mineral density, abnormal destructive/lytic or abnormal

sclerotic processes of the bone concerns what part of ABCS?

A

Bone

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17
Q

joint spaces and disc spaces concerns what part of ABCS?

A

Cartilage

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18
Q

evaluates surrounding soft tissues for abnormal fluid,

calcifications or any other pathology concerns what part of ABCS?

A

Soft Tissues

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19
Q

In lateral cervical view when evaluating alignment, what 4 things should you look at?

A

Anterior vertebral line
• Posterior or George’s line
• Spinal laminar line
• SP posterior line

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20
Q

retrophareyngeal space should be ____ at C2

A

7mm

21
Q

retrotracheal space should be ____ at C6-C7

A

22mm

22
Q

Flexed and extended lateral cervical views (stress views)- help to evaluate what?

A

Ligamentous stability

23
Q

R+L posterior oblique cervical views demonstrates what?

A

Inter vertebral formania

24
Q

What is normal in children and especially prominent at C3?

A

Anterior body wedging

25
Q

Abnormally widened pituitary

fossa or “ballooning of sella” sign indicates what?

A

Space occupying lesion such as a pituitary gland
adenoma or other neoplasms may cause erosion of the
osseous margins

26
Q

Radiographic measurement of Basilar skull angle should be what?

A

(125-143 degrees

standard reference)

27
Q

What makes up the lines for the basilar skull angle?

A

-nasion to middle of pituitary fossa
- anterior border
of magnum along the clivus

28
Q

What is diagnosed it the basilar angle is >152 degrees?

A

Platybasia

29
Q

What is a direct line from posterior tip of hard palate to the lowest point of the occipital
bone

A

McGegegor line

30
Q

What is the signifcance of the McGegor line?

A

odontoid process should not pass this line more than 8-mm

31
Q

What line goes from the hard palate to posterior margin of

magnum foramina?

A

Chamberlain line

32
Q

What is the significance of the chamberlain line?

A

Odontoid should not pass this line (<4-mm can be normal)

33
Q

Atlantodental interspace (ADI) should be ____ in children

A

<5mm

34
Q

Atlantodental interspace (ADI) should be ____ in adults

A

<3mm

35
Q

Normally the articular mass of C1 should be aligned with corresponding
mass of C2. In children, C1 mass may appear ______ C2

A

overhanging

36
Q

what are congenital abnormalities resulting in caudal displacement of the cerebellum and
the brainstem due to small volume or hypoplasia of posterior cranial fossa.

A

Arnold-Chiari malformations

37
Q

What is (partial or complete, uni or bilateral
ossification of posterior atlanto-occipital membrane)-
asymptomatic and detected incidentally on radiographs

A

Posterior ponticle

38
Q

What is a failed segmentation of vertebra

Single level-blocked vertebra

A

Congenital blocked vertebra

39
Q

Two or more blocked vertebra

A

Klippel-Feil syndrome

40
Q

Ossification of the stylohyoid ligament

A

eagle syndrome

41
Q

Interruption in smooth contour may indicate facet

imbrication (subluxation) or DJD

A

Hadley’s S-curve

42
Q

Eisenstein Method, normal sagittal Lumbar canal should remain no
less than _____

A

14mm

43
Q

failed union of both lateral centers of vertebral body due to
persistent notochord between them

A

Buttefly vertebra

44
Q

failed formation of vertebral half, can be major source of

congenital scoliosis

A

Hemivertebra

45
Q

closely related condition when nucleus pulposus can herniate

anterior through ring apophysis

A

Limbus Bone

46
Q

Central herniation of the nucleus pulposus through vertebral end-palate

A

Schmorl’s nodes

47
Q

Central herniation of the nucleus pulposus through vertebral end-palate

A

Nuclear impressions/ cupid bow

48
Q

failure of closure of the neural tube

A

Spina bifida manifesta

49
Q

Midline cleft at S1-S2 with

elongated SP of L5

A

Knife Clasp Syndrome