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~ ATPL/ Instruments > INSTRUMENTS SPECIMEN EXAMINATION PAPER > Flashcards

INSTRUMENTS SPECIMEN EXAMINATION PAPER Flashcards

1
Q

An aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and altitude is flying from a cold airmass into warmer air. The effect of the change of temperature on the speed will be:

A

c. TAS will increase

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2
Q

Select the correct statement:

a. EAS = CAS corrected for compressibility error b. EAS = IAS corrected for position error
c. CAS = TAS corrected for density error
d. TAS = EAS corrected for compressibility error

A

a. EAS = CAS corrected for compressibility error

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3
Q

VLO is defined as:

A

b. the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted or extended

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4
Q

An aircraft taking off from an airfield with QNH set in the altimeter has both static vents blocked by ice. As the aircraft climbs away the altimeter will:

A

a. Read the airfield elevation

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5
Q

In an inertial-lead VSI the source of the most pronounced error is:

A

c. Steep turn

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6
Q

An aircraft is descending at a constant mach number. If the aircraft is descending through an inversion layer, the CAS will:

A

b. Increase

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7
Q

The combined Machmeter/ASI is subject to the following errors:

A

a. Position, density, instrument, compressibility, manoeuvre induced

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8
Q

You are flying at a constant FL 290 and constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will:

A

a. remain approximately constant

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9
Q

A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be:

A

c. acceleration on east/west headings

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10
Q

If an aircraft, fitted with a DRMC, takes off on a westerly heading, in the northern hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate:

A

a. a turn to the north

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11
Q

To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point:

A

c. Above the centre of gravity

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12
Q

Which of the following will effect a direct reading compass?

  1. ferrous metals
  2. non-ferrous metals
  3. electrical equipment
A

b. 1 & 3

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13
Q

The rigidity (gyroscopic interia. of a gyroscope may be increased by:

A

c. Increasing the speed of rotation and increasing the mass of the rotor

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14
Q

The gravity erecting device on a vertical gyro is used on which instrument;

A

c. artificial horizon

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15
Q

If the rpm of the rotor in a turn and slip indicator is higher than normal, the turn indicator will:

A

a. Overread the correct rate of turn

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16
Q

When the pointer of a rate of turn indicator shows a steady rate of turn:

A

d. The spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of
turn (in the same direction as the turn)

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17
Q

With reference to the flux valve of a remote indicating compass:

A

d. The flux valve is fixed to the aircraft and so turns with the aircraft to measure the
angle between the aircraft and the earth’s magnetic field

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18
Q

In a Schuler tuned INS, the largest unbounded errors are:

A

c. Due to real wander of the platform gyroscopes

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19
Q

The amber ALERT sign is on an INS control and display unit:

A

a. Illuminates steadily for 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint

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20
Q

To obtain heading information from a Gyro Stabilised platform, the gyros should have:

A

a. 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis

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21
Q

What are the advantages of an IRS compared to an INS?

A

b. Reduce spin-up time and accuracy not adversely affect by “g”

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22
Q

What errors can the Air Data Computer correct for?

  1. instrument error & ram rise
  2. compressibility & density error
  3. lag & density error
  4. position & temperature error
  5. temperature & instrument error
  6. manoeuvre error & ram rise
  7. manoeuvre & position errors
A

a. 2 & 4

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23
Q

Which of the following is the FMS normal operating condition in the cruise?

A

d. L NAV and V NAV

24
Q

Weather Radar returns can be displayed in which of the following EFIS Modes:

A

c. Map, Exp ILS, Exp VOR

25
Q

What are the colours used on an EFIS display to show a tuned navigation aid and an airport?

A

c. green & cyan

26
Q

WXR display is on:

A

d. On both the captains and co-pilots CRTs

27
Q

Altitude select and altitude hold are examples of:

A

b. Manometric functions from the ADC

28
Q

An autopilot delivers roll commands to the ailerons to achieve a bank angle:

A

d. proportional to the deviation from the desired heading, but not exceeding a
specified maximum

29
Q

At 200ft on an auto-land:

A

a. The LOC mode is engaged in the roll channel and the G/S mode is engaged in pitch.

30
Q

During a CAT 1 ILS approach, height is indicated by:

A

b. Radio Altimeter

31
Q

During an approach to autoland at 1500 feet:

A

b. Localiser is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically
engaged and flare mode is armed

32
Q

During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is illuminated. The system is:

A

b. Fail passive

33
Q

If only a single A/P is used to climb, cruise and approach; following a failure:

A

d. it is fail safe and will disconnect

34
Q

“LOC ARMED” lights up on the FMA part of the PFD, this means:

A

b. localiser beam armed and awaiting capture

35
Q

What is the purpose of the auto-synchronisation system in an A/P:
1. Prevents snatching on disengagement
2. Prevents snatching on engagement
3. Cross feeds rudder and aileron inputs for co-ordination
4. May not allow the A/P to engage if unserviceable
5. Displays the control positions
6. Removes standing demands from the autopilot system prior to the CMD
button being selected

A

a. 2, 4 & 6

36
Q

What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height?

A

c. Fail operation or fail active

37
Q

Which of the following apply to the a Yaw damper :
1. May aid the pilot in the event of asymmetric thrust after engine failure 2. Applies measured amounts of aileron to counter dutch roll
3. Increases lateral stability to stop dutch roll
4. Is required at high altitude
5. Can automatically help in turn co-ordination
6. May deflect the rudder to counteract the natural oscillating frequency of
the aircraft.

A

a. 1, 4 & 6

38
Q

A stall warning system fitted to a large aircraft will always include:

A

b. Various inputs including landing gear micro switch, a warning module and an aural warning

39
Q

TCAS 2 when fitted with mode C transponder may give:

A

c. TA and RA in vertical plane.

40
Q

The Altitude Alert system alerts the pilot:

A

d. When deviating from the selected altitude

41
Q

The GPWS uses inputs from;:

A

a. The radio altimeter, static pressure monitor, ILS receiver and the landing gear and flap position monitors

42
Q 
What are the components of a CVR?
Microphone
Crash/Fire resistant construction 
Independent battery
A Flight data recorder
A

a. 1 & 2

43
Q

What corrective action is given by TCAS?

A

b. Climb or descend.

44
Q

What input is there to TCAS 2?

A

d. Mode ‘S’ transponder which co-ordinates avoidance manoeuvres

45
Q

When an intruder aircraft has no Altitude Reporting facility, i.e. Mode equipped with ‘A’ transponder only, TCAS can only give:

A

c. TA only

46
Q

Which of the following are modes of the GPWS?

  1. Excessive sink rate.
  2. Altitude loss after T/O or go-around. 3. Excessive Glideslope deviation.
  3. High climb rate.
  4. Flaps in incorrect position.
  5. High altitude descent.
  6. Stall.
A

b. 1, 2, 3, & 5

47
Q

A warning message on the EICAS system screen would be:

A

c. displayed in red, normally on the upper screen , and requiring immediate
corrective action

48
Q

An aircraft equipped with digital avionics includes an ECAM system.
This centralised system, if a failure in one of the monitored systems is displayed, the crew must:

A

d. apply the immediate actions as directed by the checklist on the left of the two
screens

49
Q

An aircraft has a compensated capacitance fuel contents gauging system and is refuelled so that the total fuel contents are 76000kg at a temperature of 18°C and an S.G. of 0.81. Whilst the aircraft is parked the temperature increases to 26°C and the S.G. becomes 0.80. The indicated fuel contents have:

A

b. remained the same

50
Q

EPR is the ratio of:

A

c. Jet pipe pressure to the compressor inlet pressure on a gas turbine engine

51
Q

If one probe of a multi-sensor EGT system became disconnected, the reading would:

A

d. Be largely unaffected

52
Q

The principle of the fuel-monitoring device giving an indication of the total fuel burnt is:

A

d. integration of instantaneous flow

53
Q

The red arc in the middle of the green band of a piston engine RPM indicator signifies:

A

c. RPM at which a greater level of vibration is encountered

54
Q

Torque meters provide a reliable measure of power output from:

A

c. A turbo-propeller engine

55
Q

Which of the following types of pressure gauge would be best suited to a high pressure input?

A

b. bourdon tube

~ ATPL/ Instruments (31 decks)

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