Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

The FD command bars flash for ten seconds and then remain on steady when:

A

First AP or FD engagement;or
Reversion to HDG/VS mode, whether automatic reversion or manual; or
Change of selected flight level when ALT* (capture) mode is engaged; or
Loss of LOC or GS in Land mode or loss of Land mode.

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2
Q

Managed Guidance is described as:

A

The aircraft is guided along the preplanned route, vertical, lateral, and speed/Mach profile.
Predicted targets are computed by the FMGS.

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3
Q

Selected guidance can be described as:

A

The aircraft is guided to the selected target, modified by the pilot.
Targets are selected on the flight control unit located on the pilot’s glareshield.

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4
Q

The Managed Guidance symbol colour is:

A

Magenta

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5
Q

The selected guidance symbol colour is:

A

Blue

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6
Q

If the Managed target speed is associated with the ECON speed range:

A

A magenta double bar is the target

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7
Q

The speed trend arrow disappears when:

A

Less than 1 knot or if the FAC’s are inoperative.

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8
Q

The VR speed is not displayed until:

A

Within the speed range of its value.

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9
Q

The symbol that will appear for VR is:

A

A small blue circle.

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10
Q

The V1 and VR speeds will blank:

A

After lift off.

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11
Q

During take off V2 will appear as a:

A

A magenta coloured triangle.

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12
Q

For a Normal take off the FD pitch command for SRS will be to:

A

Maintain at least V2+10, however will also limit the pitch to +18* causing the aircraft to accelerate to a speed greater than V2+10.

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13
Q

An active windshear warning will allow the SRS guidance to increase pitch to:

A

+22.5*

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14
Q

A green s on the speed tape during take off indicates the:

A

Minimum speed for slat and flap retraction to provide stall margin protection for Config 0.

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15
Q

VFE for Config full is:

A

177kts

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16
Q

VFE for Config 3 is:

A

185kts

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17
Q

VFE for Config 2 is:

A

200kts

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18
Q

VFE for Config 1 is:

A

230kts

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19
Q

F is the minimum speed for:

A

Flap retraction at the current gross weight.

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20
Q

VMO is:

A

350kts

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21
Q

MMO is:

A

0.82

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22
Q

If the target speed is off scale it will be displayed:

A

In digital format

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23
Q

The Mach value only appears if the Mach is above:

A

0.5

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24
Q

A green speed protection symbol indicates:

A

The speed at which overspeed protection becomes active.

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25
Q

The overspeed protection activation speed is:

A

VMO +6, or MMO +0.01.

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26
Q

Minimum selectable speed (VLS) is the top of:

A

The amber strip.

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27
Q

VLS information is inhibited:

A

From touchdown and 10 seconds after lift off.

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28
Q

The Alpha Protection Speed (VaPROT) is at the:

A

Top of the black and amber strip on the speed tape.

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29
Q

The Alpha Protection Speed (VaPROT) corresponds to the angle of attack:

A

At which Alpha protection becomes active in Normal Law. Displayed in pitch Normal Law.

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30
Q

V-Alpha Max speed (VaMAX)is the top of the:

A

Solid red strip on speed tape.

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31
Q

VaMAX represents the speed corresponding to the maximum angle of attack that the aircraft can attain in:

A

Pitch Normal Law. Displayed only in Pitch Normal Law.

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32
Q

If in Pitch Alternate or Pitch Direct Law the VLS is available along with:

A

The Stall Warning Speed (VSW). VSW is the top of a red and black strip. It is the speed corresponding to the Stall Warning.

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33
Q

Best Lift Over Drag Speed (L/D) displays as:

A

A small green circle when in a clean configuration.

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34
Q

L/D is also the:

A

Maximum Endurance and Engine Out operating speed in a clean configuration.

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35
Q

The upper margin of the speed range (managed) will decrease to —— if a speed limit or constraint is active.

A

+5kts

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36
Q

The upper margin of the speed range (managed) is limited to the lowest speed of:

A

VMAX, VMO -3kts, or MMO -0.06.

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37
Q

The lowest margin of the speed range (managed) is limited to the highest speed of:

A

Green dot, S, F, or VLS.

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38
Q

Below 15000ft a ——- ——- bar symbol will appear on the speed tape at the maximum speed for the next further extended flap position (VFE NEXT).

A

Double amber bar.

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39
Q

The speed targets corresponding to Config selections are:

A
Config 0 - Green Dot.
Config 1 - S.
Config 2 - F.
Config 3 - F.
Config Full - Vapp.
40
Q

After landing the target speeds disappear, but the ——- ——- remains in view during the deceleration.

A

Speed Trend

41
Q

If the altitude display is negative, the abbreviation — is displayed in white on the altimeter.

A

NEG

42
Q

When in flight the yellow altitude window ——— ——- when the aircraft deviates 200ft or more from the FCU selected altitude.

A

Flashes amber.

43
Q

The change from green to amber digital readout occurs when the aircraft descends:

A

Below the FMGC entered MDA.

44
Q

The target altitude symbol appears magenta when it represents:

A

An altitude constraint in the FMGC vertical managed mode.

45
Q

During climb the barometric reference display will pulse if the pilot has not selected STD above the

A

transition altitude.

46
Q

During descent the barometric reference display will pulse if the pilot has not selected:

A

QNH below the transition level (or 2500ft RA if transition level is not available).

47
Q

The display range of the altimeter is:

A

+ or - 500ft.

48
Q

If the vertical deviation (VDEV) is greater than 500ft the symbol displays at the range limit and the actual VDEV value can be found on the:

A

PROG page of the MFDU.

49
Q

The radio height display appears when the aircraft is at or below:

A

2500ft AGL

50
Q

The radio height displays amber when the aircraft is:

A

Below the DH (DA).

51
Q

If no DH is entered or both FMGC fail, the Radio Height appears in green down to —-ft and amber below this height.

A

400ft.

52
Q

The blue landing elevation bar displays during phases 7 and 8, which corresponds to:

A

Below 800ft until 80kt.

53
Q

The red Ground Reference ribbon displays on the right side of the barometric altimeter scale and displays below:

A

570ft.

54
Q

The vertical speed will display in digital format when the rate is greater than:

A

200ft/min.

55
Q

When the aircraft is above 2500ft the display is amber when the vertical speed exceeds:

A

6000ft/min.

56
Q

When the aircraft is between 1000ft and 2500ft the vertical speed display will be amber for a rate greater than:

A

2000ft/min.

57
Q

Below 1000ft the vertical speed display is Amber when a rate is greater than:

A

1200ft/min.

58
Q

On the heading display MAG will change to TRU if operating outside the Normal:

A

Latitudes.

59
Q

A secondary heading or track symbol appears on the attitude horizon line and heading markers are displayed every 10 degrees on the horizon line if the:

A

FD pushbutton switch is off.

60
Q

With the aircraft above 100ft RA, if the glide slope deviation exceeds 1 dot for 2 seconds the glide slope scale:

A

Flashes.

61
Q

With the aircraft above 15ft RA, if the localiser deviation cedes 1/4 dot for 2 seconds the localiser scale:

A

Flashes.

62
Q

If the ILS display is not selected when the approach mode is armed, a flashing ILS message will flash:

A

Amber.

63
Q

The landing tail strike pitch limit appears in amber at:

A

400ft during landing.

64
Q

The landing tail strike pitch limit represents the:

A

Maximum pitch limit that would avoid a tail strike with the main gear struts compressed.

65
Q

The landing tail strike pitch limit indicator disappears when:

A

There is no longer a threat.

66
Q

The altitude alert C chord aural alert occurs when the aircraft arrives within:

A

750ft of the selected altitude.

67
Q

The altitude window flashes amber and a continuous aural warning is provided when the aircraft deviates from the selected altitude by more than:

A

250ft.

68
Q

The altitude alerts can be cancelled by:

A

Selection of a new altitude, pressing the EMER CANC pushbutton on the ECAM control panel, or by pressing either MASTER WARN pushbutton.

69
Q

The altitude alert feature is inhibited:

A

When slats are out with gear selected down, or
On approach after glide slope has been captured, or
When the landing gear is locked down.

70
Q

If there is insufficient avionics ventilation the weather radar:

A

Will not display in order to prevent overheat of the ND.

71
Q

On the ND the missed approach procedure displays as a solid:

A

Blue line.

72
Q

On the ND the flight plan to an alternate appears as a dashed:

A

Blue line.

73
Q

On the ND, when the range is selected to 160 or 320nm the SIDS and STARs:

A

Do not appear, except for the last waypoint of a SID or first waypoint of a STAR.

74
Q

The method used to tune a VOR is indicated by the letter “M”, “R” or no letter at all. The letters indicate:

A

M - manually tuned on the FMGC RAD NAV page.
R - tuned by a Radio Management Panel.
No letter indicates a VOR is auto tuned by the FMGC.

75
Q

Normally ILS1 information displays on:

A

PFD1 and ND2.

76
Q

While most active waypoints are depicted in green the “TO” waypoint is depicted in:

A

White

77
Q

With the clock selector set to the GPS position, the time and date is synchronised on:

A

GPS data (if GPS signal is not detected dashes are displayed).

78
Q

With the clock UTC selector in the INT position the clock internal time and date may be displayed. The clock time is always synchronised with the last valid:

A

GPS information

79
Q

The clock can display the date by pushing the:

A

Date/set button.

80
Q

The weather radar MPEL (maximum permissible exposure level) boundary is approximately:

A

13.4ft from the radar antenna centre at approximately a 240 degree arc.

81
Q

The weather radar can display in all ND modes except the:

A

PLAN mode.

82
Q

Weather radar tilt is based upon ——- datum.

A

The horizon.

83
Q

The ISIS displays:

A
Airspeed
Mach
Attitude
Landing System information
Altitude
Barometric pressure
Bugs
84
Q

The ISIS does not display:

A

Heading information

85
Q

The lower ECAM is referred to as the:

A

Systems display (SD).

86
Q

In most cases the blue action line on the E/WD is automatically:

A

Cleared when the crew perform the action.

87
Q

If a failure occurs prior to an inhibited phase the EW/D displayed the warning immediately and will also continue:

A

To display it during the inhibited phase and until it is corrected or the crew have cleared it from the ECAM.

88
Q

If a failure occurs during an inhibited phase, the EW/D will:

A

Not display the warning until the aircraft enters the phase where the warning is not inhibited.

89
Q

The is a hierarchy of priority within the FWS level:

A

3 warnings.

90
Q

A level 1 FWS Caution is the lowest priority and has no:

A

Aural alert or Master Caution.

91
Q

A level 2 FWS Caution is normally accompanied by:

A

Single chime
Master Caution PB
An amber Caution appears on the EW/D
The associated system page on the SD

92
Q

A level 3 Warning requires:

A

Immediate action by the crew.

93
Q

The take off configuration test simulates take off power and checks for:

A
Park brake on
Flex temp not set
Slats/flaps not in TO Config
Pitch trim not in TO range
Spd Brake not retracted
Sidestick fault
Brakes hot
Doors
94
Q

The take off memo remains in view until:

A

Take off power is applied.

95
Q

The landing ECAM memo appears during approach at:

A
2000ft AGL (or 800ft AGL if the aircraft never climbed above 2200ft AGL).
It disappears after touchdown (80kt).
96
Q

The G load is displayed upon the SD ECAM when the load is less than —- or greater than ——

A

Less than .7 or greater than 1.4.

97
Q

During a single ECAM display operation, if the flight crew desires to display the SD or STATUS pages, the SD or STATUS page pushbutton can be pressed and held to temporarily display it on the lower DU for a maximum of:

A

3 minutes.