Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

4-2 ARB SOP > Instruments > Flashcards

Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

AR 95-1

Smoking is prohibited in or within what distance of Army aircraft?

A

50 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AR 95-1

For Rotary Wing IFR flight planning a fuel reserve of how long is required?

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AR 95-1

Are you allowed to fly into known or forecast severe icing conditions?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AR 95-1

Are you allowed to fly into known or forecast moderate icing conditions?

A

YES but only with adequate operational anti-icing or deicing equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AR 95-1

Are you allowed to intentionally fly into known or forecast extreme turbulence?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AR 95-1

Are you allowed to intentionally fly into known severe turbulence?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AR 95-1

What is the Helicopter SVFR minimum?

A

1/2 mile & Clear of Clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AR 95-1

To file IFR, what weather must meet published Wx minimums through 1 hour after ETA?

A

Predominant Weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AR 95-1

To file IFR, you must be able to meet _______ Wx minimums through ___ after ETA.

A

Predominant

1 Hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AR 95-1

How long does the weather forecast last before being void?

A

1 hour 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AR 95-1

What are the 4 times you may not reduce visibility minimums by 1/2?

A

Flying faster than 90 KTAS (Cat A)
Copter Approaches
Approach plate states “Visibility Reduction by Helicopters NA”
No reduction less than 1/4 mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AR 95-1

An alternate airfield is required when filing IFR if:

A

(Wx) - predominant Wx through ETA + 1 hour is less than Wx planning minimums + 400/1)
(Radar) - Radar is required for the approach
(Navaids) - Navigational Aids are unmonitored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

AR 95-1
Is an alternate airfield required for planning if radar is required for the approach but descent from en route minimum altitude for IFR operations can be made in VFR?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

AR 95-1
An alternate airfield can be used when filing IFR if:
(WRNGAS)

A 
Worst Wx through ETA+1hr is better than Wx planning mins + 400/1
Radar is not required for the approach
Navaids are monitored
GPS not required for the approach
ANA does not appear on the FLIP
Surface Area Airspace
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

AR 95-1

What are the take-off weather minimums for a pilot without 50 hours W-PC?

A

100- 1/4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

AR 95-1

When does an Army aviator no longer have take-off minimums?

A

50 hours W-PC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

AR 95-1

What are the take-off weather minimums for a pilot with more than 50 hours W-PC?

A

0/0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

AR 95-1

What is the minimum Wx required to initiate an approach?

A

0/0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

AR 95-1

When can an aircraft be flown below the published MDA or DH?

A

landing area/RWY/landing lights in sight AND in a safe position to land.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

AR 95-1

How long can elapse before a pilot must be given a PFE for currency?

A

60 days in similar A/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

AR 95-1

What clothing and equipment must be worn by crew members when performing crew duties?

A

Leather Boots / Flight: Helmet, Suit, Gloves
Cotton/wool/or nomex underwear
ID Tags

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

AR 95-1

How often must your flight helmet be inspected?

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

AR 95-1

When is it acceptable to not file IFR?

A

VFR Training / Time Limit / VFR Mission / Excessive IFR delays / Hazardous Wx conditions IFR / Single Pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

FM .240

What does the L stand for in L Class VOR?

A

Low Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

FM .240

What does the H stand for in the H Class VOR?

A

High Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

FM .240

How many degrees off course are you when you have full scale deflection on a VOR Approach?

A

at least 10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

FM .240

How many degrees off course are you when you have full scale deflection on an ILS Approach?

A

At least 2 1/2 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

FM .240

What are the classes of NDB’s and what distances are associated with them?

A

L - 15nm
MH - 25nm
H - 50nm
HH - 75nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

FM .240

What does Category A, B, C, etc mean on approach?

A

It’s determined by the aircraft speed & usually changes the weather minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

FM .240

What are the speeds associated with the Categories?

A

A: 1-90 kts / B: 91-120 kts / C: 121-140 kts / D: 141-165 kts
E: 166+ kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

FM .240

Are category speeds determined by Airspeed or Groundspeed?

A

Airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

FM .240

When do you start a turn on a departure procedure?

A

400 feet above departure end of the runway.

33
Q

FM .240

What is PMSV?

A

Pilot to Metro Service - a direct pilot to Wx briefer service. It is used to update Wx or give a PIREP

34
Q

FM .240

What is a precision approach?

A

A standard instrument approach procedure that has a glideslope/glidepath

35
Q

FM .240

What is an example of a precision approach?

A

ILS or PAR

36
Q

FM .240

What is the difference between an ILS and a PAR?

A

On an ILS, the instruments provide the pilot with the elevation and azimuth information, where on the PAR the Final controller (ATC) provides the information to the pilot.

37
Q

FM .240

What is a non-precision approach?

A

A standard instrument approach procedure in which no electronic glideslope is provided

38
Q

FM .240

What is an example of a non-precision approach?

A

VOR, NDB, LOC, ASR, LDA, and SDF

39
Q

FM .240

What is a Final Approach Fix (FAF)?

A

The fix from which the final approach (IFR) to an airport is executed

40
Q

FM .240

What is the final approach fix for an ILS/PAR approach?

A

Glide path / Slop intercept

41
Q

FM .240

How do you know when you are at the FAF on a PAR?

A

Final Controller (ATC) will announce, “On glide path, begin descent”

42
Q

FM .240

What is the FAF for a non-precision approach?

A

Maltese Cross (x) symbol on government charts

43
Q

FM .240

What is a Final Approach Point (FAP)?

A

The point (on a non-precision approach) where the procedure turn is completed and the descent may start.

44
Q

FM .240

What is a Missed Approach Point?

A

A point prescribed in each instrument approach procedure (IAP) at which a missed approach procedure shall be executed if the required visual reference does not exist.

45
Q

FM .240

What is the missed approach point for an ILS/PAR approach?

A

On glide path at decision height

46
Q

FM .240

How do you know that you are at the missed approach point on a PAR?

A

Final Controller (ATC) will announce “At Decision Height”

47
Q

FM .240

What is the missed approach point for a non-precision approach?

A

As published on each IAP

48
Q

FM .240

On a precision approach what is the lowest altitude allowed called?

A

Decision Height (DH)

49
Q

FM .240

On a non-precision approach what is the lowest altitude allowed called?

A

Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)

50
Q

FM .240

How would you depart an airport that does not have a departure procedure published?

A

As directed by Alternate Takeoff Minimums or, if none are published, climb to 400’ HAA before turning.

51
Q

FM .240

What is the difference between an ADF and an NDB?

A

ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) - receiver - in aircraft

NDB (Non-Directional Beacon) - transmitter - on ground

52
Q

FM .240

At a pilot controlled lighting airport how do you get Medium intensity lighting?

A

5 clicks within 5 seconds

53
Q

FM .240

How long will the lights stay on after a pilot uses pilot controlled lighting?

A

15 minutes

54
Q

FM .240

What is an ILS critical area?

A

An area designated by taxiway markings that surface vehicles or aircraft operating on the ground, could cause disturbances to the ILS localizer and glideslope courses.

55
Q

FM .240

When is an ILS critical area active?

A

Control tower active and 800’ ceilings, 2 miles visibility

56
Q

AR 95-1

When there are intermittent weather conditions, _______ weather will apply.

A

Predominant

57
Q

AR 95-1
Aviators flying helicopters may reduce destination and alternate Category A visibility minimums by ____, but not less than ___ mile or metric equivalent.

A

50 percent

1/4 mile

58
Q

AR 95-1
For all IFR and VFR cross country flights, the weather forecast will be void ______ from the time the forecast is received provided the aircraft has not departed.

A

1 hour and 30 minutes

59
Q

AR 95-1

The crew will update _______ on stopover flights.

A

weather briefing information

60
Q

AR 95-1
An airfield may be selected as an alternate when the ____ weather condition for that airfield is forecast for ETA through ____ to be equal or greater than -

A

WORST <> 1 hour after ETA

400’/1sm > Wx planning minium required for the approach; or VFR approach can be made

61
Q

AR 95-1

What are the five criteria that make an airfield ineligible for designation as an alternate airfield?

A

APP procedure NA in FLIP, Radar Required, GPS required, NAVAIDs unmonitored, no SFC-based airspace

62
Q

AR 95-1

How do you determine if you do not need an Alternate Airfield because “VFR approach is possible”?

A

Take MSL Altitude - Airfield elevation to find AGL altitude. Round up to nearest 100’. Determine airspace and add the cloud clearance. The answer = forecasted minimums.

63
Q

AR 95-1

All aviators will comply with _________ IFR takeoff minimums and ________ in __________.

A

published nonstandard

departure procedures in flight information publications

64
Q

AR 95-1

An aviator who has logged __ hours or more of ACTUAL weather time AS PC has ______________.

A

50 hours

no Army takeoff minimums

65
Q

AR 95-1

What are the minimum takeoff requirements for an aviator who has NOT logged 50 hours of actual Wx?

A

100’ ceilings and either 1/4 mile VIS or RVR 1200 feet

66
Q

AR 95-1
Communications
IFR - reports and radio phraseology will _________.
VFR - Aviators will ______ and make ____ as required.

A

conform to DOD FLIP

monitor appropriate frequencies; position reports

67
Q

AR 95-1
Holding - An aviator may request ATC clearance to hold at any time if _______ can be met; holding will be in accordance with _________.

A

fuel and alternate requirements

DOD FLIP

68
Q

AR 95-1

Aviators shall avoid overflight of national security areas below ______. Exceptions will be per instructions in _____.

A

2,000’ AGL.

DOD FLIP

69
Q

If an ALTN Airfield is required, the ETE TO ALTN should include:

A

missed approach, en route, one lap in holding, full approach to touchdown.

70
Q

According to current Army operator manuals and regulations, aircraft are permitted up to _____ of error from the surveyed elevation before requiring maint.

A

70 feet

71
Q

When flying instruments, what should be selected on the FLT SET page?

A

LO BUG

NM (not km)

72
Q 
FM .240
Departure procedures (normal departure) provide obstacle clearance provided that the aircraft:
A

crosses the end of the RWY at least 35’ AGL, climbs to 400’ above airfield elevation before turning, and climbs at a minimum of 200 ft/NM, unless higher gradient assigned.

73
Q

ATM
What are the three standards for HOLDING?
Under PROCEDURES, what will the P do?

A

1- correctly tune/identify appropriate NAVAID
2- correctly enter the holding pattern
3- correctly time/track holding pattern legs
compute outbound wind corrections for P*

74
Q

FM .240

When correcting for wind direction on the outbound leg, the correction should be ______.

A

tripled

75
Q

What are the three types of entry into holding patters?

A

Parallel, Direct, Teardrop

76
Q

FM .240

What are the four common techniques for executing a procedure turn (course reversal)?

A

Teardrop pattern, Standard 45/180, 80/260 course reversal, holding/racetrack pattern

77
Q

ATM

What are the five standards for instrument takeoff?

A

Select FLT page, Maintain T/O power, Maintain accelerative climb +/-2 bar width, in trim after ETL, appropriate climb +/-200 FPM

78
Q

ATM

What are the immediate actions taken upon unusual attitude recovery?

A

Level pitch and bank attitude, establish and maintain a heading - turn only for known obstacles, adjust torque to cruise or hover power as applicable, trim as required to return to level flight

79
Q

ATM

What are the immediate actions taken upon IIMC?

A

Announce IMC and transition to instrument flight

LEVEL wings, HDG - only turn for obs, TQ for Climb, A/S for Climb, trim +/- 1 ball width, XPNDR to EMER, contact ATC

4-2 ARB SOP (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions