Gunnery Flashcards
What is the [WARNING] associated with the 30mm?
(-10)
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death.
[WARNING] If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding __ _______, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must ______ _____ of the aircraft for __ _______. Aircraft crewmembers should remain __ ___ ________ and ________ ________________________________.
(-10)
[WARNING] If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
What is the Gun Duty Cycle IAW the -10?
6, 50 round bursts w/5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50, no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.
True / False
Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode
TRUE
In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, what happens to the gun?
Gun is STOWED IN ELEVTION
What happens to the gun in the event of IHADSS failure when GUN is actioned and HMD is the selected sight?
Gun firing is inhibited
When gun is de-actioned, it will return to the stowed position
In the event of a power loss, what happens to the gun? Why?
The gun is spring driven to +11 degrees in elevation.
To prevent a dig-in.
What message is displayed in the HAD when the GUN is actioned and the WP detects a ‘NO GO’ status?
What happens when the trigger is pulled?
“GUN FAIL”
LOS reticule will flash
When is Fixed Gun especially suitable to be utilized?
When TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable.
When using IHADSS against point targets beyond ______ meters (without the use of TADS or FCR), the crew should select __________.
1,000 meters
FIXED GUN
What is the azimuth and elevation of the GUN commanded to by the WP when in the Fixed Position?
+0.87 degrees elevation
0 degrees azimuth
Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode?
YES
There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in teh AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?
The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground.
What is the maximum effective range of the 30mm?
1500 - 1700 meters
What is the time of flight for a 3km 30mm shot?
12.2 seconds
What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round?
805 meters/second
What is the rate of fire for the 30mm?
625 +/- 25 rounds/minute
Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a __________.
4 meter radius
The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of _______ rounds.
1200
How many rounds is the 100 gallon Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) capable of holding?
How many rounds in the flex chute?
Total Rounds?
242
58
300
Regarding the 30mm, what is the maximum range for which the WP will provide a fire control solution?
4200 meters
With the exception of Rolled Homogenous Armor (_________), penetration performance for single 30mm projectiles is _____________. In order to breach typical MOUT targets’ structures, ____________________ is required
With the exception of Rolled Homogenous Armor (2 inches of RHA), penetration performance for single 30mm projectiles is NOT AVAILABLE. In order to breach typical MOUT targets’ structures, continued/concentrated fire is required
What are the movement limits of the gun turret?
86 degrees left or right of the helicopter centerline, +11 degrees elevation (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and -60 degrees depression.
What are the ATM standards for Gun Dynamic Harmonization?
Aircraft Centerline +/- 5 degrees of target
Target range 500 to 1500 meters
When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds and then presses the ________________________.
Store/UPDT Switch (ORT LHG)
When rockets are action simultaneously with the gun, what azimuth is the gun limited to?
+/- 60 degrees
When gun is actioned simultaneously with missile (inboard pylon), what is the azimuth limited to ON THE SIDE TO BE FIRED?
52 degrees
To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, where should the CPG select the DMPI?
Slightly short of personnel targets
What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500 meter 30mm engagement?
115 meters
What are the visual markings of the M789 HEDP round?
Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings on projectile and case
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from ___________ stations. Fire no more than ______ with two __________ launchers every ____________, or fire with only _____________ launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from in-board stations. Fire no more than pairs with two outboard launchers every 3 seconds, or fire with only one outboard launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).
After a failure of 6MP, 6FL, or 6SK rockets (which use the _________ fuse) to fire (NO-FIRE event), how long should the rockets be given to reset?
M439 (Base Mounted Resistence Capacitance)
10 days
With respect to rockets, can the crew override the settings on the Weapons Utility Load page?
YES
How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the ammount of gun ammo loaded on preflight?
Can these settings be changed from inside the aircraft? How?
The Load Maintenance Panel
YES - Weapons Utility Load page
TRUE / FALSE
If the PLT actions rockets, his steering cursor will be visible to both pilots
FALSE
What sights can be utilized to employ the Aerial Rocket Subsystem?
HMD, TADS, or FCR
Can the pylons articulate independently of one another?
YES
What is the range in elevation that the pylons are capable on independently articulating?
How fast can the pylons articulate?
What controls the pylons?
+4 degrees to -15 degrees
10 degrees per second
Weapons Processor
At what range to rockets achieve best effectiveness?
3000 to 5000 meters
It is NOT AUTHORIZED to fire MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than _____, and for all other flight conditions of less than _____.
Hover - low speed: 7’ AGL
Other flight conditions: 5’ AGL
With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available?
A - 24
B - 8
E - 6
How many rockets can fit in each pod?
With two pods installed, how many rockets can be loaded?
(yes… just multiply answer 1 by 2)
19
38
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately _________ without changing ____________. At ranges beyond __________, what may the crew have to do IOT meet firing constraints?
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately 4500 meters without changing aircraft pitch attitude. At ranges beyond 4500 meters, what may the crew have to do IOT meet firing constraints?
pitch attitude changes (nose-up)
What are the possible MK66 motor fuse/warhead combinations currently supported by our software?
6PD
6MP
6FL
6IL
6RC
6SK
The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is _________; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than ________.
10 meters burst
50 meters lethality (T)
What is employing “sunshine” IAW .45 and JFIRE?
Employing Illumination Rockets
Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than _______ of armor.
4 inches
The M261 MPSM has ___ submunitions and effective employment ranges from ____________________.
9 submunitions
effective from 500 to 7000 meters
WILL NOT FIRE AT GREATER THAN 90 KTAS or LESS THAN 1000m.
At _______, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to _________________.
1,000 meters
8mm of milled steel
Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than __________ and forward airspeeds of less than ____ knots.
Greater than 1000 meters
Less than 90 KTAS
What is a RAD and what does it do for an MPSM Rocket?
RAM AIR DECELERATOR
Stops the forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition
What altitude should the gunner ensure that Illum (M257/M278) rockets deploy above the ground?
1500’ AGL
What standoff range should Illum (m257/m278) rockets be launched from?
3500 meters
How far beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket will spent illum rocket motors impact?
700 to 1,200 meters
What is the minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets?
What is the effective range?
800 meters minimum
1km - 3km effective range
6FL - Minimum Range
800 meters
6FL - Effective Range
1km - 3km
____________ is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versiosn will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator.
Red Pigment
The flechette rocket detonates about _____ before the predetermined range.
150 meters
Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between ______ __________ from deployment point.
Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between 700 and 1200 meters from deployment point.
At _____ meters, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. That is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to __________.
At 1,000 meters, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. That is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to 8mm of milled steel.
Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___ from other airborne helicopters.
51 meters
What are the four “T’s” of diving flight?
Target / Torque / Trim / Target
During diving flight, if rockets are fired while out of Trim, what direction will the rockets tend to go?
An out-of-trim condition will deflect the rockets toward the trim ball
What is the rotary wing risk estimate for a 1500 meter PD rocket engagement?
305 meters
To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline __________ to the side of the SAL missile being launched.
3 to 5 degrees
The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is ___________
+/- 20 degrees
The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is ____________
+/- 7.5 degrees
The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what?
The acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position
Hellfire missile arming occurs after ___________ acceleration __________ meters after launch.
Exceeding 10 G’s
150 to 300 meters
Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is _________ or ____________ or ________ or ______.
475 meters per second
923 knots
950 mph
Mach 1.4
How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?
30 minutes
If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon?
What does the symbol mean?
OT
Overtemperature
In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missile will the WP reserve for the priority channel?
3
The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the CCM routing within the laser missile. This selection ________ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code.
NARROWS
What are the SAL II K2A LOBL minimum engagement ranges?
0 degree offset
20 degree offset
500 meters
700 meters
What are the SAL II K2A LOAL DIR minimum engagement ranges?
0 degree offset
7.5 degree offset
1,500 meters
1,700 meters
What are the SAL II K2A LOAL LO minimum engagement ranges?
0 degree offset
7.5 degree offset
2,000 meters
2,500 meters
What is the SAL II K2A LOAL HI minimum engagement range?
0 degree offset
7.5 degree offset
3,500 meters
3,500 meters
What is the minimum range for a AGM-114 K2A missile?
Why?
800 meters
because of fragmentation and possible pre-mature detonation
During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within _______ and __________ of the gun target line, nor more than _______ from the target centerline
During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within 30 degrees lateral and 40 degrees vertical of the gun target line, nor more than 60 degrees from the target centerline
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by ______ if the target is ________ below the aircraft
500 meters
50 to 400 feet
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased ________ if the target is __________ the aircraft
1000 meters
401 to 800 feet below
With LOAL LO selected, a SAL hellfire will clear a ______ mask ______ away
260 foot mask
600 meters away
With LOAL HI selected, a SAL hellfire will clear a _______ mask _______ away.
1,000 foot mask
1,500 meters away
What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL DIR K2A missile with a 7.5 degree offset? Your altitude is 300 feet above the target.
2200 meters
(1700 meters due to the offset plus 500 meters additional range due to altitude above the target)
The maximum ______________ for a SAL missile engagemetn is limited by the ability of the designator to _____________________, the _______________ to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for _____________________ to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.
The maximum effective engagement range for a SAL missile engagemetn is limited by the ability of the designator to accurately maintain the laser spot on the target, the size of the laser spot to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for sufficient reflected laser energy to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.
The maximum _____ of the Hellfire missile is affected by missile trajectory, launch altitude, battery life, and laser designation capabilities; 7km. What can be done to extend the range?
Selecting LOAL - LO or LOAL-HI trajectory will extend the missile’s maximum range from 7 to 8 kilometers.
What can be done to extend the maximum SAL missile range?
Fire LOAL-LO or LOAL-HI to increase the missile trajectory
What is the maximum LOBL Cloud Clearance Ceiling for K/M/N/R missile trajectory?
600 feet
What is the maximum airspeed you can fly when engaging with an AGM-114F-A?
90 Knots
What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow Hellfire missile?
105.1 lbs
For RF missile engagements _______, the maximum allowable offset angle is 5 degrees.
less than 1 Km
When the RM missile is tracking and the target range is ______________, the allowable constraints angle is 20 degrees
greater than or equal to 1 Km
When an RF missilt detects a moving target with a range between _____________, it will radiate and engage LOBL
0.5 - 8.0 Km
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of _________. If target is not detected, it will revert to LOAL.
1.0 - 2.5 Km
The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between __________.
2.5 - 6 Km
The RF missile is capable of hitting a stationary LOAL target via the TADS handover through RFHOs to a maximum of ______.
8 Km
If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?
RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present
What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?
R
When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?
NA
What is “transfer alignment”?
The transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform
What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover?
TADS, FCR, and IDM
Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?
To allow for LOAL shots only, inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature.
The ____________ is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a _________ target engagement.
2nd Target Inihibit button
Stationary
__________ is when an RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target.
Doppler Beam Sharpening
At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of ________ at ______.
990 meters @ 8 Km
Stationary targets between _______________ are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missileconducts DBS by ________________________________.
2,500 and 8,000 meters
pointing the nose of the aircraft in the desired direction
The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at __________ invervals. This DOES/DOES NOT occur while missiles are WASed.
10 minute interval
DOES NOT
Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?
1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose
The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using the ________ sight and range source, regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.
CPG’s sight and range source
How many shot-at locations can be stored?
128
When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as ______________ in the firing sequence.
The next missile to be launched
When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is ______. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is __________.
Active
Not Active
What is the “rule of thumb” for computing Hellfire TOF?
Range x 4
What is the “rule of thumb” for calculating maximum laser delay?
(TOF / 2) - 2
What is the rotary wing risk estimate for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L?
110 meters
Default range for the pilot is _____
Default range for the CPG is _____
- 5 km
- 0 km
The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than ___ targets, prioritize the __ most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and intiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of ____ targets.
128 targets
16 targets
256 targets
A flashing asterisk (*) in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a ____________________.
Multiple Target Condition is detected
When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the _____ and compensates for ________ when engaging with __________ when TADS is the LOS.
The TSE computes the target rates for the RF missile hand over and compensates for trajectory shift when engaging with gun and rockets when TADS is the LOS.
True / False
Scan to scan correlation is available in the Air Targeting Mode (ATM)
FALSE
True / False
In the air surveillance mode, NTS target symbols are displayed.
FALSE
Up to __ RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page.
10 RFI symbols
RFI emitters will stay full intensity until ________ after they cease transmission.
30 seconds
The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a _____________________ around the threat Symbol and target type
Home Plate Symbol
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for _____, the symbols will change to _____________. After _________ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will ______.
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for 30 seconds, the symbols will change to partial intensity. After 90 seconds of no transmission receipt, the symbols will blank.
Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in _______.
Enemy/Gray emitters are displayed in _________.
CYAN
YELLOW
Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places _______________ over that emitter.
an inverse video homeplate (selected emitter symbol)
Powering the RLWR ON enables up to ______ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the ______ of the ASE footprint.
SEVEN
INSIDE
Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats on the _______ of the ASE footprint.
TEN
OUTSIDE
The RFI system detects and processes what kind of radar signals?
PULSE
PULSE DOPPLER
CONTINUOUS WAVE (CW)
What does the message “RFI DATA?” mean?
RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available.
A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___________ of the ____________.
+/- 90 degrees
FCR centerline
The _________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.
CUED Search
While performing a cued search, the RFI #1 emitter is not merged. What will happen if the cued search button is pressed a second time?
The FCR antenna will orient to the next priority emitter.
Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended how often?
TWO times ever 2.5 hours
(intent: once every 1+15 hrs)
When do FCR target symbols become stale?
Moving / Stationary
Moving - 5 seconds
Stationary - 30 seconds
If the FCR is operating in GTM and you do a cued search, but the detected emitter is airborne - what will the FCR do?
Change to ATM
How do you make the alternate NTS the NTS on the FCR page?
1) Pressing NTS button again
2) Selecting ALT NTS with the cursor
3) Shooting the NTS
4) Conducting another FCR scan
What is the maximum range of the FCR in the Terrain Profile Mode?
2500 meters
What are the GTM/RMAP scan sectors for each FOV?
WFOV - 90 degrees
MFOV - 45 degrees
NFOV - 30 degrees
ZFOV - 15 degrees
The FCR is unable to process STI targets at ranges greater than ________.
6000 meters
In zoom mode the FCR will conduct ___ scans per scanburst
4 scans per scanburst in ZFOV
The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict _____ each?
2 km
The ____ button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target.
NTS
Which FCR priority scheem emphasizes STI ground targets?
B
Which priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage MTI ground targets?
C
A single scan burst in GTM NFOV will give how many scans?
3 scans per scanburst in NFOV
What improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification?
Scan-to-Scan Correlation
When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the _______ is ______ and the NTS symbol will become ______.
When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the NTS target is frozen and the NTS symbol will become solid.
Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ________ will be automatically displayed on the target symbol and ______________.
ANTS symbol
flash for 3 seconds
What is the caution associated with the use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?
Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to the FCR components.
What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT grip?
The display zoom area 6:1 will be centered on the NTS target.
Regarding the TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of _______ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.
64 symbols
A shot-at symbol will be displayed ________ target symbols ________ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The sumbol is displayed ______ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.
beneath
during/after
on top of
Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a _______ scan sector when ground speed decreases below ____ and until increasing above ____ knots. Narrow format displays a ____ scan sector when the ground speed increases above _____ and until decreasing below _____.
WFOV - 180 degree sector
decreasing below 45 KTAS and increasing above 55 KTAS
NFOV - 90 degree secotr
increases above 55 KTAS and until decreasing below 45 KTAS
When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in ___.
T50
The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a ____________ in the center of the _____ icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.
flashing lightning bolt
Ownship
Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?
Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity)
The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ______________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ______________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the _______________.
FCR centerline to the TADS LOS
TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS
TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS
FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The _______________ process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality.
FLIR SANUC (scene assisted non-uniformity correction)
____________ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if __________________________.
Crew Coordination
ground and obstacle clearance cannot be maintained
On the AF (Air Fire) page, if the values are all displayed in ____ the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in ____, a performance parameter has been exceeded.
GREEN
WHITE
The ________ will nominally take ______ for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation.
Target State Estimator (TSE)
3 seconds
MUMT-2 Range expectations for the following -
AAG to Observer:
AAG to AAG:
UR to UAS:
15 km
15 km
40 km
While performing diving fire, the Low Altitude Warning audio sounds. What actions are required by the crew?
The aircrew shall give their sole attention to placing the aircraft back above the minimum altitude. The P* will ensure that the nose of the aircraft is placed equal to or above the horizon prior to adding power to preclude accelerating, descending flight. Tactical play, radio transmissions, and nonessential ICS shall cease until the P* states “BACK ABOVE” to the P.
When performing firing techniques, which crewmember will operate the SAFE/ARM button?
Pilot not on the controls
What are the three levels of safing?
Finger off the trigger
de-WASed
SAFE/ARM button - SAFE
Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?
NO (Safety Inhibit)
Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?
NO (Safety Inhibit)
Pilot and CPG shall perform their _____________ prior to entering the ____.
armament safety check
FARP
When _________ or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher _______ located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to ______.
icing conditions exist
ARM/SAFE switch
icing
When operating at ________, ensure anti-ice is in the ______. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during _________ could result in severe _______.
high power settings
manual mode
high power settings
Np/Nr droop
The crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark _______.
friendly positions
What are the four major fratricide prevention initiatives IAW the .45?
DOCTRINE
TRAINING
ORGANIZATION
LEADER/SOLDIER DEVELOPMENT
Maximum effective range is defined as ______________________________.
the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target
The two types of fires are ____ and _____.
Direct and Indirect
What are the three techniques of fire?
Destruction, Neutralization, and Suppression
Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target our of action permanently. Destruction is achieved by _______________________.
killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment
Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. Neutralization of a target occurs when it suffers at least ___ casualities or damage.
10%
Suppression is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. What are suppressive fires supposed to do?
limits enemy movement, limits enemy observation, and increases friendly freedom to maneuver
Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of ______ round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within _____ of the suspected target area.
10 or 20 round bursts from the 30mm
10 meters
The four modes of fire IAW .45 are what?
Hover
Moving
Running
Diving
Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter equal to or greater than ___ but less than _____. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter above _________.
Greater than 40 KTAS but less than Vne
Above 40 KTAS through Vne
What is the purpose of a “Fence Check”?
Ensure that the aircraft is configured to fight.
Each aircraft prior to moving into a hostile environment must be prepared to engage threats immediately and defend itself accordingly.
What are the standard steps of a Fence Check?
(WAILR)
Weapons, ASE, IFF, Lights, Recorder
What does “FENCE OUT” mean?
What does “FENCE IN” mean?
OUT - conduct WAILR check crossing ‘the wire’, leaving the traffic pattern, crossing the FLOT, or METT-TC depending
IN - conduct revers WAILR as part of the before landing checks
How many priority fire zones can be created/displayed on the TSD?
How many can be active?
8 created/displayed
1 active
During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a Ph = __%
Ph = 70%
Define “BREAK”
immediate action command to perform an emergency maneuver to deviate from the present ground track by executing the maximum performance evasive maneuver
Define JINKING
deliberate, controlled changes of multiple axes in order to elude enemy fire
Define PULL OFF
employed to enable attack helicopter the safest possible departure from the target area
Transmission of the ____ CCA Brief constitutes _________ except in ________ situations.
5-Line
Clearance to Fire
Danger Close
To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately _____ from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature. The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run.
8 - 10 km
After conducting the proper TPM-R brief, the AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. What are the three common attack pattern calls?
Shooter/Shooter
Shooter/Cover
Looker/Shooter
NORMA / BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the _______ of the weapon’s range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy’s _____________.
last one-third
maximum effective range
What are the four dimensions of a WEZ? What is the 5th dimension?
R-Min
R-Max
Azimuth
Elevation
TOF
What are the four types of ballistics?
Interior / Exterior / Aerial / Terminal
Rotor Downwash Error is what type of ballistic?
What weapon system is most affected?
When is maximum error induced?
Aerial
Rockets
Engagements while IGE
Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with a forward airspeed of _____.
30 knots
Projectile Drift is ________ ballistic that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to __________.
an Exterior
drift to the right
