Gunnery Flashcards
What is the [WARNING] associated with the 30mm?
(-10)
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death.
[WARNING] If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding __ _______, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must ______ _____ of the aircraft for __ _______. Aircraft crewmembers should remain __ ___ ________ and ________ ________________________________.
(-10)
[WARNING] If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
What is the Gun Duty Cycle IAW the -10?
6, 50 round bursts w/5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50, no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing the gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.
True / False
Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode
TRUE
In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, what happens to the gun?
Gun is STOWED IN ELEVTION
What happens to the gun in the event of IHADSS failure when GUN is actioned and HMD is the selected sight?
Gun firing is inhibited
When gun is de-actioned, it will return to the stowed position
In the event of a power loss, what happens to the gun? Why?
The gun is spring driven to +11 degrees in elevation.
To prevent a dig-in.
What message is displayed in the HAD when the GUN is actioned and the WP detects a ‘NO GO’ status?
What happens when the trigger is pulled?
“GUN FAIL”
LOS reticule will flash
When is Fixed Gun especially suitable to be utilized?
When TADS or FCR are not available or unsuitable.
When using IHADSS against point targets beyond ______ meters (without the use of TADS or FCR), the crew should select __________.
1,000 meters
FIXED GUN
What is the azimuth and elevation of the GUN commanded to by the WP when in the Fixed Position?
+0.87 degrees elevation
0 degrees azimuth
Will the AWS continue to follow the IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode?
YES
There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in teh AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?
The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground.
What is the maximum effective range of the 30mm?
1500 - 1700 meters
What is the time of flight for a 3km 30mm shot?
12.2 seconds
What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round?
805 meters/second
What is the rate of fire for the 30mm?
625 +/- 25 rounds/minute
Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a __________.
4 meter radius
The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of _______ rounds.
1200
How many rounds is the 100 gallon Robertson IAFS (Robby Tank) capable of holding?
How many rounds in the flex chute?
Total Rounds?
242
58
300
Regarding the 30mm, what is the maximum range for which the WP will provide a fire control solution?
4200 meters
With the exception of Rolled Homogenous Armor (_________), penetration performance for single 30mm projectiles is _____________. In order to breach typical MOUT targets’ structures, ____________________ is required
With the exception of Rolled Homogenous Armor (2 inches of RHA), penetration performance for single 30mm projectiles is NOT AVAILABLE. In order to breach typical MOUT targets’ structures, continued/concentrated fire is required
What are the movement limits of the gun turret?
86 degrees left or right of the helicopter centerline, +11 degrees elevation (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and -60 degrees depression.
What are the ATM standards for Gun Dynamic Harmonization?
Aircraft Centerline +/- 5 degrees of target
Target range 500 to 1500 meters
When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticule (GUN DH reticule) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds and then presses the ________________________.
Store/UPDT Switch (ORT LHG)
When rockets are action simultaneously with the gun, what azimuth is the gun limited to?
+/- 60 degrees
When gun is actioned simultaneously with missile (inboard pylon), what is the azimuth limited to ON THE SIDE TO BE FIRED?
52 degrees
To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, where should the CPG select the DMPI?
Slightly short of personnel targets
What is the rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 1500 meter 30mm engagement?
115 meters
What are the visual markings of the M789 HEDP round?
Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings on projectile and case
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from ___________ stations. Fire no more than ______ with two __________ launchers every ____________, or fire with only _____________ launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from in-board stations. Fire no more than pairs with two outboard launchers every 3 seconds, or fire with only one outboard launcher installed without restrictions (ripples permitted).
After a failure of 6MP, 6FL, or 6SK rockets (which use the _________ fuse) to fire (NO-FIRE event), how long should the rockets be given to reset?
M439 (Base Mounted Resistence Capacitance)
10 days
With respect to rockets, can the crew override the settings on the Weapons Utility Load page?
YES
How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the ammount of gun ammo loaded on preflight?
Can these settings be changed from inside the aircraft? How?
The Load Maintenance Panel
YES - Weapons Utility Load page
TRUE / FALSE
If the PLT actions rockets, his steering cursor will be visible to both pilots
FALSE
What sights can be utilized to employ the Aerial Rocket Subsystem?
HMD, TADS, or FCR
Can the pylons articulate independently of one another?
YES
What is the range in elevation that the pylons are capable on independently articulating?
How fast can the pylons articulate?
What controls the pylons?
+4 degrees to -15 degrees
10 degrees per second
Weapons Processor
At what range to rockets achieve best effectiveness?
3000 to 5000 meters
It is NOT AUTHORIZED to fire MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than _____, and for all other flight conditions of less than _____.
Hover - low speed: 7’ AGL
Other flight conditions: 5’ AGL
With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available?
A - 24
B - 8
E - 6
How many rockets can fit in each pod?
With two pods installed, how many rockets can be loaded?
(yes… just multiply answer 1 by 2)
19
38
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately _________ without changing ____________. At ranges beyond __________, what may the crew have to do IOT meet firing constraints?
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately 4500 meters without changing aircraft pitch attitude. At ranges beyond 4500 meters, what may the crew have to do IOT meet firing constraints?
pitch attitude changes (nose-up)
What are the possible MK66 motor fuse/warhead combinations currently supported by our software?
6PD
6MP
6FL
6IL
6RC
6SK
The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is _________; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than ________.
10 meters burst
50 meters lethality (T)
What is employing “sunshine” IAW .45 and JFIRE?
Employing Illumination Rockets
Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than _______ of armor.
4 inches
The M261 MPSM has ___ submunitions and effective employment ranges from ____________________.
9 submunitions
effective from 500 to 7000 meters
WILL NOT FIRE AT GREATER THAN 90 KTAS or LESS THAN 1000m.
At _______, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. This is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to _________________.
1,000 meters
8mm of milled steel
Firing of 2.75-inch rockets with M261 MPSM warheads is limited to ranges greater than __________ and forward airspeeds of less than ____ knots.
Greater than 1000 meters
Less than 90 KTAS
What is a RAD and what does it do for an MPSM Rocket?
RAM AIR DECELERATOR
Stops the forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition
What altitude should the gunner ensure that Illum (M257/M278) rockets deploy above the ground?
1500’ AGL
What standoff range should Illum (m257/m278) rockets be launched from?
3500 meters
How far beyond the target and along the trajectory of the rocket will spent illum rocket motors impact?
700 to 1,200 meters
What is the minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets?
What is the effective range?
800 meters minimum
1km - 3km effective range
6FL - Minimum Range
800 meters
6FL - Effective Range
1km - 3km
____________ is ejected during Flechette employment to serve as a daytime center-pattern indicator. Future versiosn will contain a titanium pyrotechnic charge as a nighttime center-pattern indicator.
Red Pigment
The flechette rocket detonates about _____ before the predetermined range.
150 meters
Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between ______ __________ from deployment point.
Caution should be taken to address the impact point for the expended Flechette rocket motor and warhead case. The impact zone extends out between 700 and 1200 meters from deployment point.
At _____ meters, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. That is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to __________.
At 1,000 meters, Flechettes have an impact velocity of approximately 350 meters per second. That is sufficient velocity to penetrate up to 8mm of milled steel.
Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___ from other airborne helicopters.
51 meters
What are the four “T’s” of diving flight?
Target / Torque / Trim / Target
During diving flight, if rockets are fired while out of Trim, what direction will the rockets tend to go?
An out-of-trim condition will deflect the rockets toward the trim ball
What is the rotary wing risk estimate for a 1500 meter PD rocket engagement?
305 meters
To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline __________ to the side of the SAL missile being launched.
3 to 5 degrees
The SAL LOBL missile constraint box is ___________
+/- 20 degrees
The SAL LOAL missile constraint box is ____________
+/- 7.5 degrees
The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what?
The acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position
Hellfire missile arming occurs after ___________ acceleration __________ meters after launch.
Exceeding 10 G’s
150 to 300 meters
Peak velocity of the Hellfire missile when launched at sea level is _________ or ____________ or ________ or ______.
475 meters per second
923 knots
950 mph
Mach 1.4
How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?
30 minutes
If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon?
What does the symbol mean?
OT
Overtemperature
In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missile will the WP reserve for the priority channel?
3
The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the CCM routing within the laser missile. This selection ________ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code.
NARROWS
What are the SAL II K2A LOBL minimum engagement ranges?
0 degree offset
20 degree offset
500 meters
700 meters
What are the SAL II K2A LOAL DIR minimum engagement ranges?
0 degree offset
7.5 degree offset
1,500 meters
1,700 meters
What are the SAL II K2A LOAL LO minimum engagement ranges?
0 degree offset
7.5 degree offset
2,000 meters
2,500 meters
What is the SAL II K2A LOAL HI minimum engagement range?
0 degree offset
7.5 degree offset
3,500 meters
3,500 meters
What is the minimum range for a AGM-114 K2A missile?
Why?
800 meters
because of fragmentation and possible pre-mature detonation
During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within _______ and __________ of the gun target line, nor more than _______ from the target centerline
During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within 30 degrees lateral and 40 degrees vertical of the gun target line, nor more than 60 degrees from the target centerline
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by ______ if the target is ________ below the aircraft
500 meters
50 to 400 feet
Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased ________ if the target is __________ the aircraft
1000 meters
401 to 800 feet below
With LOAL LO selected, a SAL hellfire will clear a ______ mask ______ away
260 foot mask
600 meters away
With LOAL HI selected, a SAL hellfire will clear a _______ mask _______ away.
1,000 foot mask
1,500 meters away
What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL DIR K2A missile with a 7.5 degree offset? Your altitude is 300 feet above the target.
2200 meters
(1700 meters due to the offset plus 500 meters additional range due to altitude above the target)
The maximum ______________ for a SAL missile engagemetn is limited by the ability of the designator to _____________________, the _______________ to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for _____________________ to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.
The maximum effective engagement range for a SAL missile engagemetn is limited by the ability of the designator to accurately maintain the laser spot on the target, the size of the laser spot to be concentrated enough to prevent overspill or underspill, and for sufficient reflected laser energy to the seeker so the seeker can lock onto the reflected laser energy.
The maximum _____ of the Hellfire missile is affected by missile trajectory, launch altitude, battery life, and laser designation capabilities; 7km. What can be done to extend the range?
Selecting LOAL - LO or LOAL-HI trajectory will extend the missile’s maximum range from 7 to 8 kilometers.
What can be done to extend the maximum SAL missile range?
Fire LOAL-LO or LOAL-HI to increase the missile trajectory
What is the maximum LOBL Cloud Clearance Ceiling for K/M/N/R missile trajectory?
600 feet
What is the maximum airspeed you can fly when engaging with an AGM-114F-A?
90 Knots
What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow Hellfire missile?
105.1 lbs
For RF missile engagements _______, the maximum allowable offset angle is 5 degrees.
less than 1 Km
When the RM missile is tracking and the target range is ______________, the allowable constraints angle is 20 degrees
greater than or equal to 1 Km
When an RF missilt detects a moving target with a range between _____________, it will radiate and engage LOBL
0.5 - 8.0 Km
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of _________. If target is not detected, it will revert to LOAL.
1.0 - 2.5 Km
The RF missile can engage stationary targets LOAL between __________.
2.5 - 6 Km
The RF missile is capable of hitting a stationary LOAL target via the TADS handover through RFHOs to a maximum of ______.
8 Km
If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?
RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present
What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target?
R
When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?
NA
What is “transfer alignment”?
The transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform
What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover?
TADS, FCR, and IDM
Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?
To allow for LOAL shots only, inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature.
The ____________ is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the RF missile during a _________ target engagement.
2nd Target Inihibit button
Stationary
__________ is when an RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target.
Doppler Beam Sharpening
At a 20 degree offset launch angle, an RF missile azimuth DBS flight profile will use a maximum curved trajectory cross range of ________ at ______.
990 meters @ 8 Km
Stationary targets between _______________ are engaged by RF LOAL using a Doppler beam sharpening (DBS) missile fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control which direction the missileconducts DBS by ________________________________.
2,500 and 8,000 meters
pointing the nose of the aircraft in the desired direction
The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at __________ invervals. This DOES/DOES NOT occur while missiles are WASed.
10 minute interval
DOES NOT
Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?
1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose
The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using the ________ sight and range source, regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.
CPG’s sight and range source
How many shot-at locations can be stored?
128
When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as ______________ in the firing sequence.
The next missile to be launched
When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is ______. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is __________.
Active
Not Active
What is the “rule of thumb” for computing Hellfire TOF?
Range x 4
What is the “rule of thumb” for calculating maximum laser delay?
(TOF / 2) - 2
What is the rotary wing risk estimate for AGM-114 K/M/N/F/L?
110 meters
Default range for the pilot is _____
Default range for the CPG is _____
- 5 km
- 0 km
The FCR has the ability to initiate the radar scan, detect, and classify more than ___ targets, prioritize the __ most dangerous targets, transmit information to other aircraft, and intiate a precision attack within 30 seconds. Processors determine location, speed, and direction of travel of a maximum of ____ targets.
128 targets
16 targets
256 targets
A flashing asterisk (*) in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates a ____________________.
Multiple Target Condition is detected
When TADS is the selected sight, the weapons processor employs a seven-state Kalman filter-based Target State Estimator to determine actual target velocities. The target state estimator differentiates aircraft induced motion rates from motion target rates. Once a target rate is derived, the lead predictor computes the appropriate lead angle based on computed TOF of the projectile. The TSE computes the target rates for the _____ and compensates for ________ when engaging with __________ when TADS is the LOS.
The TSE computes the target rates for the RF missile hand over and compensates for trajectory shift when engaging with gun and rockets when TADS is the LOS.
True / False
Scan to scan correlation is available in the Air Targeting Mode (ATM)
FALSE
True / False
In the air surveillance mode, NTS target symbols are displayed.
FALSE
Up to __ RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page.
10 RFI symbols
RFI emitters will stay full intensity until ________ after they cease transmission.
30 seconds
The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a _____________________ around the threat Symbol and target type
Home Plate Symbol
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for _____, the symbols will change to _____________. After _________ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will ______.
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for 30 seconds, the symbols will change to partial intensity. After 90 seconds of no transmission receipt, the symbols will blank.
Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in _______.
Enemy/Gray emitters are displayed in _________.
CYAN
YELLOW
Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places _______________ over that emitter.
an inverse video homeplate (selected emitter symbol)
Powering the RLWR ON enables up to ______ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the ______ of the ASE footprint.
SEVEN
INSIDE
Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats on the _______ of the ASE footprint.
TEN
OUTSIDE
The RFI system detects and processes what kind of radar signals?
PULSE
PULSE DOPPLER
CONTINUOUS WAVE (CW)
What does the message “RFI DATA?” mean?
RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available.
A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___________ of the ____________.
+/- 90 degrees
FCR centerline
The _________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.
CUED Search
While performing a cued search, the RFI #1 emitter is not merged. What will happen if the cued search button is pressed a second time?
The FCR antenna will orient to the next priority emitter.
Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended how often?
TWO times ever 2.5 hours
(intent: once every 1+15 hrs)
When do FCR target symbols become stale?
Moving / Stationary
Moving - 5 seconds
Stationary - 30 seconds
If the FCR is operating in GTM and you do a cued search, but the detected emitter is airborne - what will the FCR do?
Change to ATM
How do you make the alternate NTS the NTS on the FCR page?
1) Pressing NTS button again
2) Selecting ALT NTS with the cursor
3) Shooting the NTS
4) Conducting another FCR scan
What is the maximum range of the FCR in the Terrain Profile Mode?
2500 meters
What are the GTM/RMAP scan sectors for each FOV?
WFOV - 90 degrees
MFOV - 45 degrees
NFOV - 30 degrees
ZFOV - 15 degrees
The FCR is unable to process STI targets at ranges greater than ________.
6000 meters
In zoom mode the FCR will conduct ___ scans per scanburst
4 scans per scanburst in ZFOV
The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict _____ each?
2 km
The ____ button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target.
NTS
Which FCR priority scheem emphasizes STI ground targets?
B
Which priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage MTI ground targets?
C
A single scan burst in GTM NFOV will give how many scans?
3 scans per scanburst in NFOV
What improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification?
Scan-to-Scan Correlation
When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the _______ is ______ and the NTS symbol will become ______.
When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the NTS target is frozen and the NTS symbol will become solid.
Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ________ will be automatically displayed on the target symbol and ______________.
ANTS symbol
flash for 3 seconds
What is the caution associated with the use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?
Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to the FCR components.
What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT grip?
The display zoom area 6:1 will be centered on the NTS target.
Regarding the TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of _______ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.
64 symbols
A shot-at symbol will be displayed ________ target symbols ________ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The sumbol is displayed ______ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.
beneath
during/after
on top of
Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a _______ scan sector when ground speed decreases below ____ and until increasing above ____ knots. Narrow format displays a ____ scan sector when the ground speed increases above _____ and until decreasing below _____.
WFOV - 180 degree sector
decreasing below 45 KTAS and increasing above 55 KTAS
NFOV - 90 degree secotr
increases above 55 KTAS and until decreasing below 45 KTAS
When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in ___.
T50
The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a ____________ in the center of the _____ icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.
flashing lightning bolt
Ownship
Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?
Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity)
The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ______________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ______________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the _______________.
FCR centerline to the TADS LOS
TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS
TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS
FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The _______________ process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality.
FLIR SANUC (scene assisted non-uniformity correction)
____________ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if __________________________.
Crew Coordination
ground and obstacle clearance cannot be maintained
On the AF (Air Fire) page, if the values are all displayed in ____ the mission may be executed safely. If a value is displayed in ____, a performance parameter has been exceeded.
GREEN
WHITE
The ________ will nominally take ______ for the algorithms to provide an accurate target-state output for ballistics computation and lead-angle compensation.
Target State Estimator (TSE)
3 seconds
MUMT-2 Range expectations for the following -
AAG to Observer:
AAG to AAG:
UR to UAS:
15 km
15 km
40 km
While performing diving fire, the Low Altitude Warning audio sounds. What actions are required by the crew?
The aircrew shall give their sole attention to placing the aircraft back above the minimum altitude. The P* will ensure that the nose of the aircraft is placed equal to or above the horizon prior to adding power to preclude accelerating, descending flight. Tactical play, radio transmissions, and nonessential ICS shall cease until the P* states “BACK ABOVE” to the P.
When performing firing techniques, which crewmember will operate the SAFE/ARM button?
Pilot not on the controls
What are the three levels of safing?
Finger off the trigger
de-WASed
SAFE/ARM button - SAFE
Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?
NO (Safety Inhibit)
Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?
NO (Safety Inhibit)
Pilot and CPG shall perform their _____________ prior to entering the ____.
armament safety check
FARP
When _________ or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher _______ located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to ______.
icing conditions exist
ARM/SAFE switch
icing
When operating at ________, ensure anti-ice is in the ______. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during _________ could result in severe _______.
high power settings
manual mode
high power settings
Np/Nr droop
The crewmembers will not use enemy targets on the TSD to mark _______.
friendly positions
What are the four major fratricide prevention initiatives IAW the .45?
DOCTRINE
TRAINING
ORGANIZATION
LEADER/SOLDIER DEVELOPMENT
Maximum effective range is defined as ______________________________.
the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target
The two types of fires are ____ and _____.
Direct and Indirect
What are the three techniques of fire?
Destruction, Neutralization, and Suppression
Destruction is a decisive engagement that puts a target our of action permanently. Destruction is achieved by _______________________.
killing enemy personnel or destroying enemy equipment
Neutralization knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. Neutralization of a target occurs when it suffers at least ___ casualities or damage.
10%
Suppression is used to defend friendly forces from accurate enemy attack. What are suppressive fires supposed to do?
limits enemy movement, limits enemy observation, and increases friendly freedom to maneuver
Suppressive fire is most effective when fired at a sustained rate of ______ round bursts from the 30mm, each burst should strike within _____ of the suspected target area.
10 or 20 round bursts from the 30mm
10 meters
The four modes of fire IAW .45 are what?
Hover
Moving
Running
Diving
Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter equal to or greater than ___ but less than _____. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter above _________.
Greater than 40 KTAS but less than Vne
Above 40 KTAS through Vne
What is the purpose of a “Fence Check”?
Ensure that the aircraft is configured to fight.
Each aircraft prior to moving into a hostile environment must be prepared to engage threats immediately and defend itself accordingly.
What are the standard steps of a Fence Check?
(WAILR)
Weapons, ASE, IFF, Lights, Recorder
What does “FENCE OUT” mean?
What does “FENCE IN” mean?
OUT - conduct WAILR check crossing ‘the wire’, leaving the traffic pattern, crossing the FLOT, or METT-TC depending
IN - conduct revers WAILR as part of the before landing checks
How many priority fire zones can be created/displayed on the TSD?
How many can be active?
8 created/displayed
1 active
During pre-mission planning, when conducting EA Calculus and determining what Hellfire weapons load would be applicable to the mission, the Battalion will always use a Ph = __%
Ph = 70%
Define “BREAK”
immediate action command to perform an emergency maneuver to deviate from the present ground track by executing the maximum performance evasive maneuver
Define JINKING
deliberate, controlled changes of multiple axes in order to elude enemy fire
Define PULL OFF
employed to enable attack helicopter the safest possible departure from the target area
Transmission of the ____ CCA Brief constitutes _________ except in ________ situations.
5-Line
Clearance to Fire
Danger Close
To provide time and spacing to set up a running or diving attack, the PC/AMC/JTAC selects an Initial Point (IP) approximately _____ from the target utilizing an identifiable terrain or electronic feature. The IP acts as the starting point for the attack run.
8 - 10 km
After conducting the proper TPM-R brief, the AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based upon the tactical situation. What are the three common attack pattern calls?
Shooter/Shooter
Shooter/Cover
Looker/Shooter
NORMA / BRASCRAF - Range. The kill zone should be within the _______ of the weapon’s range for aircraft survivability. Range must be within the minimum and maximum effective range of the selected weapon system, and should be outside the enemy’s _____________.
last one-third
maximum effective range
What are the four dimensions of a WEZ? What is the 5th dimension?
R-Min
R-Max
Azimuth
Elevation
TOF
What are the four types of ballistics?
Interior / Exterior / Aerial / Terminal
Rotor Downwash Error is what type of ballistic?
What weapon system is most affected?
When is maximum error induced?
Aerial
Rockets
Engagements while IGE
Rotor Downwash Error is reduced to zero with a forward airspeed of _____.
30 knots
Projectile Drift is ________ ballistic that causes a clockwise spinning projectile to __________.
an Exterior
drift to the right
Trajectory Shift is _______ ballistic. Aircraft movement imparted onto the projectile shift forward causing the projectile to _____-.
an Aerial
Shift Forward
Port-Starboard Effect is produced when _____________ combine. When a target is to the left, _________________. When the target is to the right, ___________.
Trajectory Shift and Projectile Drift
the effects of drift and shift compound each other, causing the round to move further right.
Trajectory Shift / Projectile Drift cancel each other
Angular Rate Error is an _______ ballistic that is caused by __________________.
Aerial Ballistic
the motion imparted on the projectile by the launch platform
A crew fires a 30mm burst at a target and misses to the left. Crew adjusts by placing the line of sight equal distance to the right of the target and fires again, this time hitting the target. What technique was used?
Burst on Target Recognition Method
Kentucky Windage
List the 9 laser related missile performance detractors.
Backscatter, Boresight Error, Attenuation, Beam Divergence, Spot Jitter, Overspill, Entrapment, and Podium Effect
What is backscatter?
A portion of the laser beam’s energy reflected off atmospheric particles in the laser path back towards the designator while the remainder of the laser’s enegery penetrates towards the target.
True / False
The BACKSCATTER inhibit message can be overridden by the weapon trigger 2nd detent
FALSE
What is Entrapment?
Laser’s reflection point on the DPI is trapped or masked within the target.
What is the Podium Effect?
When the designator is illuminating a target and some portion of the target blocks the reflected energy or the angle between the laser designator and the missile seeker.
What is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon?
Turret Bending
What is turret bending?
Airframe and Gun-Turret flexing in response to sustained recoil
The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is ______.
620 meters
What are the three selectable modes of IZLID operation?
Low
High
Pulse
To illuminate targets with the IZLID beyond ______, a manual range of _____ must be entered into the WP to prevent the gun barrel from elevating above the line of sight.
1000 meters
1000 meters
When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed”?
Training
What is entered on the keyboard unit to select an auto range?
A
The maximum PRF laser frequency that may be entered is ____
1788
The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately ______ with a ________ look down angle.
33 feet AGL
one-degree look down angle
Squeezing the laser trigger switch to the first detent fires _______ for target ranging. Squeezing the laser trigger to the second detent fires _______ burst of laser energy for target destination and continuous range updates.
3 laser bursts
continuous
On the COORD page, pressing any _______ makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an _________________.
VAB L1-L6
acquisition source
The _________ to WAS a weapon has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the LHG WAS and the PLT actions rockets, _________ is in effect.
last crewmember
cooperative moding
The engagement process is a systemic fires cycle and a continual process on any mission and has five tennents. What are they?
DIDEA
Detect - Identify - Decide - Engage - Assess
A target is _______ when it is temporarily taken out of the battle. ________ a target allows the maneuver commander to decide whether to continue to engage with indirect fires, maneuver to the target and engage with direct fires or bypass a target and proceed with other missions.
neutralized
neutralizing
_________ is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. A unit with __% or more casualties is usually rendered permanently ineffective, depending on the type and discipline of the force. Direct hits are required on hard materiel targets.
Destruction
30%
The method of attacking a target is governed by the results desired. What are the 3 possible results?
Suppression
Neutralization
Destruction
What are the four types of ballistics influencing projectiles fired from helicopters?
Interior / Exterior / Aerial / Terminal
What are the various types of interior ballistics?
(BLTPP)
Barrel Wear / Launcher Tube Alignment / Thrust Misalignment / Propellant Charge / Projectile Weight
Gravity, Yaw, and Wind Drift are what type of ballistics?
Exterior
What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?
Time of Flight
Wind Speed acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile
Yaw is the angle between the centerline of the projectile and its trajectory which results in the projectile’s trajectory changing which increases ____. Where would a projectile have its maximum yaw?
Drag
Near the muzzle
The exterior ballistic which causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right called?
Projectile Drift
________ and ________ combine to constitute the port-starboard effect.
Trajectory Shift and Projectile Drift
Aerial-Fired weapons characteristics derived from fin or spin-stabilized munitions and whether they are fired from a fixed or flexible mode. Common errors for these munitions are ___________.
Rotor Downwash Error, Angular Rate Error, and Turning Bank Error
In general, at ranges less than _______, the effect of trajectory shift is greater. At ranges greater than _______, the effect of projectile drift is greater and tends to cancel the effect of trajectory shift.
1,000 meters
1,000 meters
AH-64D pilots should recognize that compensation for trajectory shift is accomplished automatically by the weapons processor if:
TADS is the selected LOS (7-state kalman filter)
FCR is the selected LOS (scan-to-scan correlation)
**no lead angle compensation is computed or added when IHADSS is the selected sight
PROJECTILE JUMP
Firing to the right produces a _____ jump.
Firing to the left produces a _____ jump.
When is projectile jump correction required?
downward
upward
if a relative wind exists
___________ is caused by the motion (pitch/roll/yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon.
Angular Rate Error
_________ is effectively negligible for 30mm projectiles, but it can affect rocket accuracy if rates are appreciable. ________ induces angular rates in the pitch axis up to __ degrees per second.
Angular Rate Error
Articulating Pylons
10
What are three factors that effect dispersion?
Vibrations
Sights
Boresights
Angle of Impact is a characteristic of what type of ballistic?
Terminal Ballistic
Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as _____________.
Relative Wind Effect
What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?
Thrust Misalignment
Rocket Spin
Maximum effective range is defined as:
the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target
The MPSM submunition (M73) will land __ degrees off center __ percent of the time, resulting in a 90% probability of producing personnel injuries within a __ meter radius.
5 degrees off center - 66 percent of the time
90% probability of injuries within 20 meter radius
Hellfire II missiles maximum velocity is approximately _____ meters per second.
475 m/s
Running fire performed at airspeeds _____ will offer a mix aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy.
above ETL
Turret bending is the single largest contributor to the percieved dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon. Turret bending compensation is applied by the WP: 1st round….
no - compensation. 2nd round, 1/2 table value, 3rd round on - full table value applied.
The 30mm audible signature travels approximately ____ meters per second. Engagement at ranges greater than _____ meters can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts.
331 meters per second
2,000 meters
The base line TADS can take up to ______ to establish a good track history and generate a quality ballistic solution.
three seconds
At approximately _____ indicated forward airspeed, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero.
33 knots
The TARGET STATE ESTIMATOR utilized to derive target states using the following inputs:
- Processed range data from the laser range validator
- TADS pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros
- Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI
The Apache’s ___________ will correct for steady state target movement when the TADS or FCR sights are used. However, the ___ assumes that the gunner is smoothly tracking the target. Excessive or inconsistent target tracking by the gunner is misinterpreted by the ___ as target movement and will result in the wrong amount of lead.
Target State Estimator
TSE / TSE
What is used to preprocess laser range data recieved from the TADS LRFD?
LASER RANGE VALIDATOR
Crewmembers will not use ________ affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations and vice-versa to avoid fratricide and other unnecessary confusion.
FRIENDLY
The Laser Range Validator processes the range returns and derives a range rate “profile”. When data is good - _____. When data is not consistent with the established range profile, the ______.
SOLID ASERISK
ASTERISK IS FLASHED
To provide time and space to set up a running or diving fire attack, the AMC selects an initial point (IP). Normally, the IP is located approximately ____ from the target and acts as a starting point for the attack run.
8 - 10 km
Transmission of the 5-line CCA brief (Ground to Air) constitutes clearance to fire except in a __________.
Danger Close Situation
The Four “T’s” associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements are?
Target / Torque / Trim / Target (re-verified)
_______ is the recommended mode of operation as the gun turret is positioned and rocket pylons articulate based on the commands computed by the ballistic solution.
NORMAL MODE
In _______, the gun turret is positioned to 0-degrees azimuth and +6 degrees elevation. Ballistic correctors are computed and used to position the fixed-mode reticle?
FIXED MODE
What are the four techniques of fire?
Hover / Running / Diving / Low-Alt Bump
_______ maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a 300’-1,000’ bump about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target.
Low-Altitude Bump
The AMC will select the appropriate team employment technique and will brief the team utilizing_____.
TPM-R
In TPM-R, what is T and what are the options for T?
Technique
Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Alt Bump
In TPM-R, what is P and what are the options for P?
Pattern
Racetrack, Cloverleaf, L-Attack, Figure 8, Butterfly Pattern, 45-degree Attack, Circular/Wheel Pattern
In TPM-R, what is the M and what are the options for M?
Munitions
30mm, (type) RKT, MSL
In TPM-R, what is R and what need be announced?
Range
Range to engage with each munition and then pull off at
The AMC assigns team engagement from a moving helicopter _________________. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter __________________.
Moving - greater than ETL but less than 40 KTAS
Running - 40 KTAS and the aircraft velocity never exceeds (Vne)
The three techniques of applying burst on target corrections are as follows:
Laser Range-Finder Method
Mil Relationship Method
Recognition Method
You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters. You then adjust your LOS to the right of the target and fire again, hitting the target. This is ________.
Recognition Method (Kentucky Windage)
You fire a pair of rockets at a target, which miss long. You then laze the approximate center of the rocket’s impact point and adjust your range down (manual range) to fire your next pair. This is ____.
Laser-Rangefinder Method
When the LRFD is not working, referencing the target size vs. symbology to determine range to target is known as _____________.
Mil Relationship Method
Steep dive angles (______) result in large rates of change in aircraft flight parameters and present flight safety challenges.
> 25 degrees
Steeper dive angles compress the range error for rockets significantly and result in less _____ around the rocket aim point.
dispersion
Pilots must plan the ____ in time to avoid abrupt recovery maneuvers. _____ may cause a pilot to fly the aircraft into the ground.
Dive Recovery
Target Fixation
______ may make dive recoveries difficult. If the aircraft enters ______, the pilot must reduce the severity of the dive recovery by reducing the amount of aft cyclic and/or reducing the collective pitch on the rotor system.
Mushing
What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?
Time of Flight
Wind-Speed acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile
The two types of fires are ___ and ____.
Direct and Indirect
Fire delivered on a target, which cannot be seen by the firing unit, is know as ______.
Indirect Fire
What are the three levels of safing the aircraft?
Finger of the Trigger
de-WASed
SAFE/ARM button - SAFE
What is the rotrary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing): 30mm cannon
500m
1000m
1500m
75m
95m
115m
What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round?
Black Projectile with Yellow Band and Yellow Markings
To accomplish AWS dynamic harmonization, maintain a heading to target of ____ degrees, at a range of _______.
+/- 5 degrees
500-1500 meters
The nominal burst radius of the M789 HEDP round is ____; however, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the surface conditions, ______________________.
4 meters
impact angle, velocity, and target type
What is the time of flight for a 2km 30mm shot?
5.8 seconds
When viewed from above the fragment pattern of each individual round is a flattened “X” shape with the majority of the fragments moving to the side and slightly forward, with the highest concentration spiking at the _______ o’clock positions.
2:00 and 10:00
To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the crew DMPI selection should be _______ of the target to achieve the desired effects.
offset and/or short
When actioning the gun or rockets from the cyclic in either crew station the range will change to the last valid _____ when HMD is the selected sight.
Manual Range
When FXD is selected by the pilot, the ____ will only be displayed in the ____ format symbology. When FXD is selected by the ___, both crewmembers will have the CCIP displayed in their respective formats.
CCIP
PLT
CPG
Fixed gun may be utilized during degraded system operations (IHADSS Invalid LOS). When selecting FXD gun, the gun will be commanded to ______ in elevation and forward in azimuth to the helicopter armament datum line (ADL).
+0.87 degrees
What is the gun duty cycle?
6, 50 round bursts w/5 seconds between bursts followed by at 10 min cooling period. For burst limiter settings other than 50 - no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated.
The WARNING regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ___ minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for _____. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
300
10 minutes
30 minutes
The maximum effective range of the 30mm is __________.
1500 - 1700 meters
When firing the AWS in NORM, LOS INVALID is a ____ inhibit. When firing the AWS ___________, LOS INVALID becomes ______________, and the operator can override the inhibited via the weapon trigger second detent.
Safety
in FXD mode
a performance inhibit
The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of _______ left or right of the helicopter centerline, ______ elevation (_____ elevation within ____ of aircraft centerline), and ______ in depression.
86 degrees
+11 degrees
+9 degrees (within 10 degrees…)
-60 degrees
True / False
Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode.
TRUE
The 30mm is limited to _____ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.
+/- 60 degrees
The 30mm is limited to ______ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon.
52 degrees
If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a “____” weapon status field message will be displayed and the __________ anythime the trigger is pulled.
“GUN FAIL”
LOS reticle will flash
There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?
The possibility exists that the AWS could be inadvertently be driven into the ground.
In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will __________. Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle.
Stowed in Elevation.
What is the approximate velocity (fps) of the 30 mm round?
2640 fps
What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm?
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death
The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of _______.
4200 meters
The maximum capacity of the ammunition handling system is _____ rounds.
1200
The 100-gallon auxiliary fuel cell includes a 242 round ammunition storage magazine, making a maximum capacity of about ____ rounds. (__ rounds in the chain)
300 total
58 in the chain
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ______ in elevation to prevent ____ during landing.
+11 degrees
dig-in
In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is _______. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ____________.
inhibited
return to the stowed position
The rate of fire for the 30 mm is _____.
625 +/- 25 rounds per minute
__________ is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon.
Turret bending
When conducting AWS harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticle (GUN DH reticle) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the _______________.
Store/Update Switch (ORT LHG)
The Sideloader / Magazine Controller (S/MC) performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions. What are they?
Counting of 30mm rounds
Control of the carrier driver assembly
Control of the loader assembly for uploading/downloading
The 30mm can accommodate 3 different types of rounds. What are they?
M789 HEDP
M799 HEI
M788 TP
How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?
888 rounds
The rotarty wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing):
HE Rockets: 300m / 800m / 1500m
Flechette: 1000m
HE: 300m - 140m
800m - 210m 1500 - 305m
FL: 1000m - 170m
With Hellfire rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quanties of each are available?
A-24
B-8
E-6
M439/M261 (MPSM)/M66 engagements at ranges less than _______ and/or speeds greater than ____ are not authorized.
1000 meters
90 KTAS
________________ that is displayed when vertical acceleration is less than 0.5 G and may cause the main rotor blade to obstruct the trajectory of the rocket.
ACCEL LIMIT is a safety inhibit
The _______ to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the ______ and the pilot actions rockets, ________ is in effect.
last crewmember
LHG WAS
cooperative moding
The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and provides range settings from ______ to about ________.
500 - 7000 meters
Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than _____ of armor.
4 inches
There are ____ submunitions in each M261 MPSM warhead.
nine
An MPSM submunition that lands _ degrees of center has a __ percent probability of producing casualties within a ______ radius and a submunition landing ___ degrees off center has a ___ percent probability of producing casualties within a _____ radius.
5 degrees - 90 percent - 20 meters
20 degrees - 90 percent - 5 meters
The MPSM submunition (M73) will land _ degrees off center ___ percent of the time and __ off center ___ percent of the time.
5 degrees - 66 percent of the time
30 degrees - 33 percent of the time
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ____ with two ___ launchers every _____ seconds, or fire only ___ outboard launcher installed without restrictions.
pairs / outboard / three / one
The target area coverage achieved by one M261 MPSM warhead ______ as range increases.
decreases
In each M267 MPSM training warhead there are ___ inert submunitions and _____ smoke producing submunitions.
six
three
What is the RAD and what does it do as it relates to the MPSM rocket?
Ram Air Decelerator
Stops forward velocity, stabilizes the descent and arms the submunition
Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ____ from other airborne helicopters.
51 meters
The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is ___________.
HMD, TADS, or FCR
When rockets are in cooperative mode the WP will use the _______________ and will disregard the __________.
CPG Sel LOS and range data in the fire control solution
PLT LOS and range data
Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode?
Yes. During the rocket coop mode, both the CPG and PLT share a common WPN’s RKT page. Both may view, access, edit or fire RKT’s
What does the inclusion of a HERO filter provide for a rocket?
Hazard of Electronic Radiation to Ordnance, prevents the rocket from inadvertent ignition due to electromagnetic radiation (radio waves)
The “10 pounder” rocket flies a relatively flat trajectory; firing rockets at ______ will improve anti-personnel lethality by increasing the effective beam spray.
high dive angles
The flechette rocket detonates about ____ before the predetermined range.
150 meters
Hover fire rocket engagements with PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately _______ without changing the aircraft pitch angle.
4500 meters
The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by out software includes _______________.
6PD / 6RC / 6IL / 6SK / 6MP / 6FL
Firing Mk66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than ______, and for all other flight conditions of _____, is not authorized.
7 ft AGL
5 ft AGL
The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rocket is ____ meters. The effective range with Mk66 rocket motors is ______. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than ___.
800 meters
1-3 km
3 km
Re-inventory and attempting to fire ______ rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least ____ to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuze to reset.
6MP / 6FL / 6SK
10 days
The _______ warhead provides one million candlepower for 100 seconds or more.
M257 Illumination (over)
The M278 IR Illumination (cover) warhead will provide IR light for _____ minutes.
Three
The rotary wing risk estimate distance for a 0.1% Pi (Standing) for the AGM-114 K/M/N/FA/L is
110 meters
Firing the missile near the edge of constraints reduces the missiles probability of hit (Ph). Aircrews should attempt to align the missile as close as possible, both _________, to the gun target line prior to firing.
horizontally and vertically
An offset of ____ degrees, to the firing side, should be used when possible to preclude the missile from flying through the TADS FOV.
3 to 5 degrees
SAL Hellfire Missile Performance Detractors are:
Backscatter, Boresight Error, Spot Jitter, Beam Divergence, Attenuation, Overspill, Underspill, Entrapment, and Podium effect
Backscatter can/cannot be overridden by the trigger second detent.
CANNOT
Safety Inhibit
Under severe backscatter conditions it may not be possible to perform LOBL. In these cases, the preferred backscatter avoidance technique is to utilize a __________ to provide missile guidance.
Remote Designator
“Buddy Lase”
To eliminate a backscatter lock on, stop lasing the target. Switch to LOAL-Direct, and use a minimum of ________ of delay from missile separation.
two seconds
What are the missile constraints box drivers:
LOBL
LOAL DIR
LOAL LO / HI
LOBL - missile seeker
LOAL DIR - selected LOS
LOAL LO/HI - target coordinates (B5 data)
True / False
The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window.
FALSE
The missile seeker has a ________ seeker limit from the missile centerline.
+/- 30 degree
LOAL LO/HI maximum engagement range is ____.
8 km
LOAL DIR maximum engagement range is ___.
7 km
LOBL maximum engagement range is ___.
7 km
SAL II “K Model” LOBL min engagement ranges:
0 degree offset: 500 meters
20 degree offset: 700 meters
SAL II “K Model” LOAL DIR min engagement ranges:
0 degree offset: 1,500 meters
7.5 degree offset: 1,700 meters
SAL II “K Model” LOAL LO min engagement ranges:
0 degree offset: 2,000 meters
7.5 degree offset: 2,500 meters
SAL II “K Model” LOAL HI min engagement ranges:
0 degree offset: 3,500 meters
7.5 degree offset: 3,500 meters
The LOBL missile constraint box is ____ degrees.
+/- 20 degrees
The LOAL missile constraints box is ____ degrees.
+/- 7.5 degrees
LOAL LO will clear a ____ mask with a ____ meter standoff.
260 ft - 600 meter
LOAL HI will clear a ____ mask with a ____ standoff.
1,000 ft - 1,500 meters
Due to the seeker look down limits, the minimum engagement range for LOAL engagements should be increased as follows:
___ meters for 50-400 feet above TGT alt
____ meters for 401-800 feet above TGT alt
500 meters
1,000 meters
Avoid firing LOAL when the launch altitude is greater than ______ the target due to the limited ability of the missile seeker to look down sufficiently to acquire the laser spot.
800 feet above
What is the definition of Ripple fire?
Multiple missiles launched with two, or more, unique laser channel codes
During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within ___ degrees of the gun target line nor more than ___ degrees from the target centerline.
30 degrees
60 degrees
The three conditions that will cause a REMOTE message to be displayed in the HAD are the following:
1) the firing ACFT’s LRFD code does not match the requested (PRI) code
2) the selected sight is HMD
3) the laser is off
When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is _____. When the SAL missile is NORM or RIPL the switch is _____.
active
not active
The minimum cloud ceiling to fire a “K” model missile in LOBL mode is___
300 feet at 3 Km, 500 feet at 5 Km and 600 feet at 7 Km
Targets shall be a minimum of ____ from the firing point when firing AGM-114 M/N/K2A missiles.
800 meters
When employing a K2A against personnel in the open, aiming at the ground __________ may achieve the maximum shrapnel dispersion.
just short of the target
Do not fly faster than ____ when firing the AGM-114 missile
90 KTAS
Restrict the forward airspeed of all AH-64 aircraft to no gretaher than ______ during running fire of the Hellfire AGM-114
90 knots
When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as __________ in the firing sequence.
the next missile to be launched
In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel?
3
As a guideline, moving targets tracking on the rail ________ pull latency.
can tolerate
As a guideline, for RF inhibit FCR moving target, trigger pull latency should be no more than _____ seconds.
15
As a guideline, for TADS stationary targets, trigger pull latency no more than ___ seconds.
5
To decrease the effect of target velocities building up over time, the crew should attempt to fire the LOAL TADS to RF missile hand over no longer than _______ seconds after the TARGET DATA message disappears.
5 to 7
Target velocities are set to _____ during TADS to RF handover, if target velocities are under a specific threshold.
zero
_____________ is transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform, which occurs automatically, whether inflight or not, at missile power up with no pilot action required.
Transfer Alignment
___ is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that transfer alignment has occurred, and that the missile is ready to receive a target.
“R”
__________ occurs from the time that the WP transfers target data to the missile until the missile is either launched or returns to the standby mode.
Prelaunch Mode
______________ is when a missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target.
Doppler Beam Sharpening
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on stationary targets between the ranges of _______. If the target is not detected, the missile will revert to LOAL.
1 - 2.5 Km
The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode RF missiles will be powered up at ________. This does NOT occur when missiles are actioned.
10 minute intervals
A RF missile can receive a target handover from one of the following sources:
TADS / FCR / IDM
The _________ is initiated when the firing command (weapon trigger pull) occurs.
postlaunch mode
The target ____________are terms used to explain the different ways that the missile seeker improves its chances of locating and hitting LOBL and LOAL targets.
Acquisition and Tracking Modes
What are the three target acquisition modes of the RF missile?
Preterminal Track Acquisition
Terminal Track Acquisition
Moving Target Acquisition
What are the two missile tracking modes of the RF missile?
Preterminal Track and Terminal Track
When a stationary target is handed over to the RF missile between 0.5 - 1.0 km, the missile will radiate and attempt to LOBL. At this range the missile must achieve LOBL. If the target is not detected or track is subsequently lost, the message _______ will be displayed and firing will be inhibited.
“NO ACQUIRE”
RF DBS trajectory is based on target location relative to the ___________.
missile centerline
When an RF missile uses DBS, and the target is on the left side of the missile centerline, the missile will DBS to the _____ side of the target.
RIGHT
When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?
NA
How long is the allowable traning mode missile elapsed ON time?
30 minutes
If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon?
What does the symbol mean?
OT
Overtemperature
Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?
To allow for LOAL shots only
Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature
What does the message “TARGET DATA?” mean in the HAD?
Indicates no target data is available
(MSL WAS’d, RF MSL selected, and TADS is the selected LOS)
The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection ______ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) tracking capability of the missile to the precision PRF of the selected laser code.
narrows
The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the ______ RF missile during a _______ target engagement
Primary
Stationary
A RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying off-axis path to the target. This is called _____________.
Doppler Beam Sharpening
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of _____.
1 - 2.5 km
At a 20 degree offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of _____ meters at 8 km.
990 meters
True / False
The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR / TSD page ACQ source window.
FALSE
By what is acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position
If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to ____, the allowable constraints angle is ______.
1 km
20 degrees
If the RF missile is tracking and the target is less than ____, the allowable constraints angle is ______.
1 km
5 degrees
Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?
1 meter and 45 degree off the missile nose
What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow Hellfire missile?
105.1 lbs
In what three modes does the RF missile operate?
Standby
Prelaunch
Post Launch
If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?
RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present
The FCR has been selected as the active sight. The RFHO data has exceeded optimum parameters to a magnitude that safety inhibits are implemented. What HAD Sight Status Field message will be displayed?
“NAV DATA INVALID”
The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are:
WFOV / MFOV / NFOV / ZFOV
WFOV - 90 degrees
MFOV - 45 degrees
NFOV - 30 degrees
ZFOV - 15 degrees
Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes airborne and stationary ground targets?
A
Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets?
B
Which priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets?
C
A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give __ scans
3 scans
When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between ______, it will radiate and attempt LOBL.
0.5 - 8 km
_____________ improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification
Scan-to-Scan Correlation
When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the ___ target is ______ and the NTS symbol will become _____.
NTS <> frozen <> solid
Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ________ will be automatically displayed on that symbol and _________.
ANTS symbol
flash for 3 seconds
The ______ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.
CUED search
A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___ degrees of the ________.
+/- 90 degrees
Aircraft Centerline
Up to __ RFI emitters can be displayed
10
The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a __________ around the threat symbol and target type.
Home Plate Symbol
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for ______, the symbol will change to _______. After _______ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will ______.
30 seconds <> Partial Intensity <> 90 seconds <> blank
Powering on the RLWR ON enables up to ___ detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the _____ of the ASE footprint.
ten
inside
Powering the RFI ON enables up to ___ detected RFI threats to be displayed on the _____ of the ASE footprint.
ten
outside
The RFI system detects and processes ____________________________ radar signals.
pulse, pulse doppler, and continuous wave
When the Radar Jammer is transmitting ___________ in the center of the Ownship Icon will be present.
a flashing lightning bolt
What does the message “RFI DATA?” mean?
RFI has been commanded to do a CUED SEARCH and no threat data is available
What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button?
Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components.
What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT Grip?
The display ZOOM area will be centered on the NTS target
Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of _______ may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time.
64 symbols
CAUTION: ________ selection in extreme cold weather (-10*C or colder) could result in damage to the FCR.
FCR BIT ORIDE
A shot-at symbol will be displayed ____ target symbols ______ a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed ______ a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target.
beneath
during / after
on top of
Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a 180-degree scan sector when ground speed ____________________. Narrow format displays a 90-degree scan sector when the ground speed _______________________.
decreases below 45 knots and until increasing above 55 knots
increases above 55 knots and until decreasing below 45 knots
Selecting an RFI detected emitter using the display cursor will command ________ to the line of bearing of the selected emitter.
the FCR centerline
Continuing to press and release the cued switch will _________________.
continuously cycle the cued search through the existing list of detected emitters
Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in ____ and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in ______.
CYAN
YELLOW
Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places ______________ over that emitter.
an inverse video home plate (selected emitter symbol)
The configuration of the laser sensors of the Laser Detecting Set provides for _______ of coverage in azimuth and ____ in elevation about the helicopter with substantial overlap.
360 degrees
+/- 45 degrees
When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed”?
TRAINING
Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the sight status field of the High Action Display?
NO (safety inhibit)
Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display?
NO (safety inhibit)
The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using ___________________ regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement.
the CPG’s sight and range source
The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a ____________ in the center of the ______ icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting.
flashing lightning bolt
ownship
Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed?
Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity)
The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ____________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the ________________.
FCR centerline to the TADS LOS
TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS
TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS
The FCR can engage stationary targets between ___ and ____ km.
0.5 - 8 km
When operating at _________, ensure anti-ice is in the manual mode. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during _______ could result in sever Np/Nr droop.
high power settings
high power settings
_________ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if __________ cannot be maintained.
Crew Coordination
ground and obstacle clearance
When _______, or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ARM/SAFE switch located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to liftoff. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to ______.
icing conditions exist
icing
Pilot and CPG shall perform their ________ prior to entering the Forward Area Refuel Point (FARP)
armament safety check
A solid asterisk is displayed in front of the range indicates _________.
receiving valid range data
A flashing asterisk in the *XXXX message indicates
receiving multiple target returns
What is the maximum PRF laser frequency that may be entered?
1788
________ of laser energy in one second are fired when pulling the RH ORT grip trigger to the first detent.
Three bursts
When operating in the TESS / weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed”?
TRAINING
The second detent of the trigger activates the laser transmitter for ranging and target designation. The range displayed in the HAD will remain ______ for up to 10 seconds following release of the second detent.
dynamic
The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately _____ with a ______ look down angle.
33 feet
one-degree
On the COORD page, pressing any VAB L1-L6 makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat __________.
an Acquisition Source
Navigation range is entered automatically when a coordinate point (TXX, WXX, or CXX) is selected as the ______ source and the _______ is pressed.
acquisition
RHG SLAVE
The CPG is required to ________ the selected sight to the acquisition LOS via the RHG. If the CPG selects (changes) an acquisition source, the slave function is automatically _________.
manually “slave”
set to off
Medium field of vieew should be used for target acquisition and _______ field of view should be used for target recognition and engagement.
narrow or zoom
While maneuvering and tracking a target with LMC, an accurate dynamic range must be maintained to target. ________ should be used anytime the aircraft, target or both are moving.
Linear Motion Compensator (LMC)
When storing a target with the TADS using the UPDT/ST switch on the ORT left handgrip, a TXX message will be displayed where?
In the PLT/CPG weapon inhibit field for 4 seconds
The target and threat file has up to ___ locations protected from overwriting referred to as the safe set.
25
The TADS footprint symbol on the TSD changes from partial intensity to full intensity _____ when TADS is lasing.
white
What do the TADS FOV brackets surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those gates are not present?
The gates indicate what portion of the TADS imagery will be displayed if the next narrower field of view is selected. If the gates are not present then there is no narrower field of view (zoom).
Describe what will happen to the TADS if the Laser Spot Tracker is in Manual and the LST receives properly coded laser energy?
The thumbforce controller will no longer move the TADS until the LST is turned off
The initial internal boresight takes approximately 2 minutes due to the cue search process. Subsequent boresights (same power cycle) take approximately ______ as they use AZ and EL cue data from the initial boresight.
30 seconds
If you have been operating the MTADS/MPNVS on the ground for _______ or longer, perform a SANUC before takeoff.
15 minutes
What does the LRFD in the “LAST” position do?
WP uses last laser return
An aircraft equipped with an Upper Receiver (UR) is capable of receiving _________.
C, L, S, and KU band
An aircraft equipped with an Air to Air, Air to Ground (AAG) antenna is capable of receiving ____.
KU band
JFIRE BREVITY
BLIND
No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft / ground position. Opposite of Visual
JFIRE BREVITY
CAPTURED
Specified surface target/object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor
JFIRE BREVITY
CONTACT
- Sensor SA at the stated position
- Air-to-Surface acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point
JFIRE BREVITY
LOOKING
Aircrew does not have the ground object, reference point, or target in sight
(opposite of CONTACT)
JFIRE BREVITY
LOWDOWN
A request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest
JFIRE BREVITY
MOVER(S)
Unidentified surface vehicle(s) in motion
JFIRE BREVITY
NO JOY
Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET/BANDIT. Opposite of TALLY
JFIRE BREVITY
PLAYTIME
Amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes
(“ONE PLUS THIRTY” = 1hr 30min)
JFIRE BREVITY
POSTURE
Communicates sensor posture (offensive/defensive/ or neutral) by the JTAC to assets. Does not imply friendly ground forces’ tactical situation.
JFIRE BREVITY
REMINGTON
No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo.
JFIRE BREVITY
SQUIRTER
A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area
JFIRE BREVITY
SUNSHINE
Illuminating target with artificial illumination
JFIRE BREVITY
TALLY
Sighting of a target, nonfriendly aircraft or enemy position. Opposite of NO JOY
JFIRE BREVITY
VISUAL
Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position. Opposite of BLIND
JFIRE BREVITY
WINCHESTER
No ordnance remaining
JFIRE BREVITY
CEASE (activity)
(CEASE BUZZER / CEASER LASER / CEASE FIRE)
Discontinue stated activity
JFIRE BREVITY
LASER ON
Start / Acknowledge laser designation
JFIRE BREVITY
LASING
The speaker is firing the laser
JFIRE BREVITY
NEGATIVE LASER
Laser energy has not been acquired
JFIRE BREVITY
SPOT
- Acquisition of laser designation
- Platform is LST capable
JFIRE BREVITY
STARE (with laser code and ref point)
Cue the laser spot search
Tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point
JFIRE BREVITY
ROPE
Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position
JFIRE BREVITY
SNAKE
Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target
JFIRE BREVITY
SPARKLE
Mark / Marking target by IR pointer
Platform is capable to IR point
JFIRE BREVITY
HANDSHAKE
Video data link established
Opposite of HOLLOW
JFIRE BEVITY
HOLLOW
Any data link message not received
Lost video data link. Opposite of HANDSHAKE
