Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

4-2 ARB SOP > FM 3-04.126 ATK/Recon OPs > Flashcards

FM 3-04.126 ATK/Recon OPs Flashcards

1
Q

_________ is the synchronized and simultaneous application of the warfighting functions (WFFs) to achieve an effect that is greater than if each arm were used in sequence.

A

Combined Arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

________ are conducted to find, fix, and destroy enemy forces and confirm intelligence. _____ require the ability to mass overwhelming firepower and effects at the time and place where the enemy’s assets and strengths are most vulnerable.

A

Decisive Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_____ establish conditions for success of the decisive operation by setting the battlefield to our advantage.

A

Shaping Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_______ includes lethal and nonlethal operations that make the enemy vulnerable to attack, impede or divert its attempts to maneuver, provide combat support to facilitate the maneuver of friendly forces, enhance deception, or otherwise dictate the time and place for decisive battle.

A

Shaping Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_______ generate and maintain combat power.

A

Sustaining Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The primary missions of attack reconnaissance helicopter units are: (4)

A

Reconnaissance / Security / Attack / Movement to Contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_____ provide reaction time, maneuver space, and protection to air-ground maneuver.

A

Security Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_______ is a hasty or deliberate attack providing air-to-ground fires for friendly units engaged in close combat. Detailed integration is required.

A

Close Combat Attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_____ is a hasty or deliberate attack to divert, disrupt, delay, degrade, or destroy the enemy before they can be used effectively against friendly forces.

A

Interdiction Attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The ____ platoon has three non-FCR and one FCR aircraft. The ____ platoon has two non-FCR and two FCR aircraft.

A

Attack

Reconnaissance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_______ is the art of motivating and directing people and organizations to accomplish missions.

A

Command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The ______ is an FM secure net controlled by the S-3 and used for C2.

A

Command Net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The S-2 controls the _____ net.

A

Operations and Intelligence (O&I) net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The ______ net is controlled by the S-1 and S-4.

A

Administrative and Logistics Net (A&L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The staff does NOT ask the commander for solutions. It _______________.

A

presents issues, offers COAs, and recommends one of the COAs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During offensive operations, the main CP should be _____. During defensive operations, the main CP normally locates ______.

A

well forward

farther to the rear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the seven steps of the Military Decision Making Process (MDMP)? In the steps, when do WARNOs come out?

A

(1) Receipt of the Mission <> WARNO <> (2) Mission Analysis <> WARNO <> (3) COA Development, (4) Analysis, (5) Comparison, and (6) Approval <> WARNO <> (7) Orders Production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The ____ methodology facilitates the attack of the right target or objective with the right asset at the right time. What does ___ stand for?

A

D3A

Decide, Detect, Deliver, Assess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Effects refer to target or objective attack criteria. The S-3/FSO specifies the criteria according to Higher HQs. What are some quantifiable types of criteria?

A

% of casualties, destroyed elements, time on target, duration of fires, number of munitions, or application of assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The platoon leader leads his platoon in combat and is responsible for __________.

A

crew selection recommendations and mission accomplishment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the eight steps of the Troop Leading Procedures?

A

Receive Mission, Issue WARNO, Make tentative Plan, Initiate Movement, Conduct Recon, Complete Plan, Issue OPORD, Supervise and Refine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

______ are utilized by the company commander to plan, organize, and effectively execute the mission.

A

Company Planning Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who acts as the AMC on a mission?

A

Company Commander or senior officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For a (significant) mission to be executed, what are the types and order of briefings?

A

OPORD Brief, Air Mission Brief, Team Brief, Crew Mission Brief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ARBs are maneuver units that can _____, but not ____, terrain for limited periods.

A

dominate

occupy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

AWTs are normally comprised of a lead and a wingman. _____ is generally the most ______ PC in the team and is selected based on _________________.

A

Lead <> proficient

ability and demonstrated knowledge of mission, tactics, and local SOPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The wingman’s primary responsibility is to _______.

A

cover the lead aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The wingman is generally the ______.

A

Commander, Platoon Leader, or senior WO who serves as AMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the basic AWT flight formations used?

A

Combat Cruise
Combat Cruise LEFT and RIGHT
Combat Spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

________ is used when teams wish to move quickly and maximize use of terrain for masking.

A

Combat Cruise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When flying combat cruise, separation should be ____ or more depending on terrain and threat.

A

150 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Combat Cruise LEFT / RIGHT requires changing sides only _______. Optimum position is ___ off lead aircraft.

A

after coordinating with the lead aircraft

45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

________ promotes security by providing maximum firepower forward and overlapping fields of view.

A

Combat Spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

___ rotor discs is the approximate separation needed during Combat Spread.

A

10 rotor discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Combat Spread should not be used in the objective area when ________.

A

constant maneuvering is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the three flight modes?

A

Low-Level, Contour, and Nap-of-the-Earth (NOE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the three movement techniques?

A

Traveling, Traveling Overwatch, and Bounding Overwatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When conducting NVD terrain flight, what factors increase psychological and physiological stress?

A

Increased Workloads, Limited FOV, Reduced visual acuity, and more complex Aircrew coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

____ flight is conducted at varying airspeeds as close to the earth’s surface as vegetation and obstacles permit. Aviators should decrease _____ if ________.

A

NOE

airspeed if Wx and ambient light restrict visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

_____ is conducted at low altitude conforming to the earth’s _____. It is characterized by _______.

A

Contour flight; contours

varying airspeeds and altitude, dictated by terrain and obstacles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

______ is conducted at constant altitude and airspeed, which are both dictated by ______.

A

Low-Level Flight

Threat Avoidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Company elements employ the ______ movement technique to move rapidly through the operational environment when enemy contact is unlikely, or the situation requires speed for evading the enemy.

A

traveling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Company elements employ the _______ movement technique when speed is essential and enemy contact is possible.

A

Traveling Overwatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Company elements employ ________ movement technique when they expect enemy contact and the greatest degree of concealment is required.

A

Bounding Overwatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which movement technique is the slowest?

A

Bounding Overwatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Bounding Overwatch is too ____ for high tempo operations and ________ for nonlinear and/or urban operations.

A

slow

vulnerable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Units normally employ contour and NOE flight with the _____ movement technique

A

Bounding Overwatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the four categories of reconnaissance?

Companies may be assigned any combination of the four

A

Route <> Zone <> Area <> Surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Reconnaissance missions focus on reconnaissance objectives and set strict _________ and developing the situation in conjunction with ground forces.

A

criteria for engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the fundamentals of reconnaissance?

A

Gain and Maintain Contact <> Orient on the Objective <> Report rapidly and accurately <> Retain freedom to maneuver <> Develop the situation <> Ensure max recon force forward <> Ensure cont recon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the acronym used for the fundamentals of reconnaissance?

A

GORRDEE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Gorrdee - Once contact is made, it is _________; ____ or ____ criteria of the OPORD.

A

not voluntarily broken
orders must be received to break contact
be defined in the bypass

53
Q

Gorrdee - Breaking contact is dangerous because it is _________ to ________.

A

inherently risky

regain contact

54
Q

gOrrdee - The objective may be a __________.

A

terrain feature, control measure, locality, or threat force

55
Q

goRrdee - Acquire and report accurately and timely information on the ______________ that could impact friendly operations.

A

threat, civil considerations, and terrain and weather

56
Q

goRrdee - Combat information is extremely _____.

A

time sensitive

57
Q

gorRdee - Obtain information by stealth when possible, but _____ as necessary to accomplish the mission. __________ help retain freedom to maneuver.

A

fights

overwatch, suppressive fires, cunning, and constant SA

58
Q

gorRdee - _______ occurs when the company is fully committed and cannot maneuver or extricate itself.
If the ARC is decisively engaged, ________ and a battle for survival begins.

A

Decisive Engagement

reconnaissance stops

59
Q

gorrDee - If a threat force is encountered, the ARC determines its __________.

A

size, composition, disposition, activities, and movement.

60
Q

gorrdEe - Recon assets are most valuable when positioned __________ as METT-TC, combat support, and sustainment factors allow; use maximum ___ integration.

A

as far forward

UAS

61
Q

gorrdEe - Recon assets do not necessarily have to be in a linear fashion; _____ is essential, especially in restricted terrain or a contaminated environment.

A

depth

62
Q

gorrdeE - Extended operations, both distance and duration, require ARC commanders to develop _________ to maintain a continuous recon effort.

A

crew rest plans

63
Q

What are the five planning considerations for reconnaissance operations?

A

Focus, Tempo, Engagement/Bypass Criteria, Air Limits of Advance (LOAs), and Transition Operations Guidance

64
Q

What are the four Actions on Contact an aviator must take?

A

Deploy to cover and report
Maintain contact and develop the situation
Choose a COA; Recommend or Execute the COA

65
Q

For “Actions on Contact”, what are the options for ‘Choose a Course of Action’?

A

Hasty Attack, Bypass, Hasty Screen, Support by another team

66
Q

What is the main criteria for COA selection with regards to ‘Actions on Contact’?

A

Resuming the mission as soon as possible

67
Q

In order to bypass the enemy when conducting the reconnaissance, what must the team leader receive?

A

Commander’s Permission (verbal or OPORD)

68
Q

Without augmentation, a company has the capability to reconnoiter up to _ routes _____, or _ routes ____ for limited periods.

A

2 routes continuously

3 routes simultaneously

69
Q

What are the three reconnaissance methods at the company level?

A

Aerial
Reconnaissance-by-Fire
Dismounted

70
Q

What are the four forms of reconnaissance?

A

ROUTE <> ZONE <> AREA <> SURVEILLANCE

71
Q

A _____ reconnaissance is conducted to obtain information about a specific ___ and all ________ from which the threat could influence movement along the _.

A

Route, Route, adjacent terrain, route

72
Q

A ____ reconnaissance is a directed effort to obtain information concerning all routes, obstacles, terrain, and enemy forces within a ____ defined by ____.

A

Zone, Zone, Boundaries

73
Q

The boundaries of a zone reconnaissance are _____.

The boundaries of an area reconnaissance are ____.

A

Restrictive

Permissive

74
Q

The purpose of ______ reconnaissance is to gather intelligence or conduct surveillance of a specified ___.

A

Area, Area

75
Q

Landing Zone / Pickup Zone reconnaissance is a type of _______ performed to determine the suitability for air assault operations.

A

area reconnaissance

76
Q

(Primarily for UAS) ____ is defined as systematic observation to obtain detailed information of a specific target or area.

A

Aerial Surveillance

77
Q

Security operations include all measures taken by a command to protect itself from ____________ by the threat.

A

surprise, provocation, espionage, sabotage, or observation

78
Q

What are the fundamentals of security? What is the acronym?

A

MOPP
Maintain threat contact, Orient on the objective, Provide early warning, Provide reaction time and maneuver space, Perform continuous reconnaissance

79
Q

Moppp - Once the ARC gains contact, it does not break contact unless ___________.

A

directed to do so by HHQs

80
Q

mOppp - A security force operates __________.

A

between the main body and known or suspected threat units

81
Q

moPpp - Early warning of threat activity includes accurate reports regarding threat: __________. (SDCLDRE)

A

Size <> Disposition <> Composition <> Location <> Direction of movement <> Rate of advance <> special Equipment

82
Q

mopPp - The ARC provides ____ for the commander to assess the situation, determine a COA, issue orders, and maneuver.

A

time

83
Q

moppP - A security force performs _____ to gain all possible information about the enemy force and terrain within the assigned AO.

A

continuous reconnaissance

84
Q

What are the four types of security missions the ARC is expected to conduct and/or participate in?

A

SCREEN <> GUARD <> COVER <> AREA SECURITY

85
Q

What is the primary purpose of the SCREEN?

A

provide early warning to the main body

86
Q

Screening operations are not performed _____ of a moving force because that would be an ____ or ____.

A

forward
advance guard
zone reconnaissance

87
Q

Screen missions are ____ in nature, largely accomplished by establishing a series of OPs to ensure adequate ____ of the assigned sector.

A

defensive

surveillance

88
Q

What are the two types of screens?

What determines which is appropriate?

A

Stationary <> Moving

Main Body being secured: moving or stationary?

89
Q

What is the primary difference between a SCREEN and a GUARD?

A

Expectation of contact and necessity for protection

90
Q

The ARC cannot perform a ____ mission independently and without augmentation of ground forces.

A

GUARD

91
Q

What are the two types of guards?

A

Stationary <> Moving

92
Q

A ______ force accomplishes all the tasks of screening and guard forces. Difference: a ___ force is tactically self-contained and capable of operating independently.

A

cover

cover

93
Q

___ security operations includes recon and security of designated personnel, airfields, unit convoys, facilities, main supply routes (MSRs), FOBs, equipment, and critical points.

A

AREA

94
Q

A ______, part of Area Security, is executed against a specific target within a given area. It incorporates both air and ground forces.

A

Cordon and Search

95
Q

The two basic methods for conducting convoy security are ______ and ______.

A

Attached and Detached

96
Q

Attached Convoy Security provides _______.

Detached Convoy Security provides ________.

A

deterrent and immediate CCA if the convoy is engaged

GND CDR with real-time SA IOT make decisions

97
Q

Attached CNVY SECURITY: Lead flies up to __ ahead of CNVY to provide security. Trail flies behind or over the CNVY.

A

1 kilometer

98
Q

The ______ technique for convoy security has each aircraft fly racetrack patterns on opposite sides of the route.

A

butterfly pattern

99
Q

__________ missions are flown to protect helicopters conducting air assault, MEDEVAC/CASEVAC, or air movement missions. Upon reaching the objective, the AWT immediately transitions to _________.

A

Aerial escort

Area Security Operations.

100
Q

The standard escort formation for a single AWT when conducting aerial escort is _______. The AWT flies a ______ off the last aircraft in the escorted formation.

A

the “Inverted Y” formation

combat spread formation

101
Q

Air Assault planning is conducted ______.

What are the 5 stages of planning for AASLT?

A

backwards

Ground Tactical Plan <> Landing Plan <> Air Movement Plan <> Loading Plan <> Staging Plan

102
Q

Under optimum conditions of wide-open terrain, excellent visibility, and all available aircraft screening and rotating through the FARP, a company can screen along ______ for ____ hours.

A

30 kilometers for 8-12 hours

103
Q

An ____ is an ______ that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both

A

attack is an offensive operation

104
Q

A _____ is an attack launched with the forces at hand and with minimal preparation to maintain the momentum or take advantage of the enemy situation.

A

hasty attack

105
Q

The objectives of a _______ are the overwhelm the enemy quickly and seize the initiative.

A

hasty attack

106
Q

A _____ is an attack that is planned and carefully coordinated with all involved elements to provide synchronization of combat power at the decisive point.

A

deliberate attack

107
Q

Close Combat Attack (CCA) is defined as _________.

A

a coordinated attack by Army aircraft against targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces

108
Q

Transmission of the CCA brief is _________ except in _____ situations.

A

clearance to fire

Danger Close

109
Q

The check-in brief includes:

A

Identification, Team Composition/Location/ETA, Munitions, Playtime, Request for SITREP + Task/Purpose

110
Q

After completion of CCA, aircrew provides ____ and ______ recommendation to ground commander.

A

BDA

re-attack / end of mission

111
Q

An _____ is an attack by Army aircraft to diver, disrupt, delay, degrade, or destroy enemy combat power before it can be used effectively against friendly forces.

A

Interdiction Attack

112
Q

_____ attack is conducted at such a distance from friendly forces that detailed integration with ground forces is not needed.

A

Interdiction

113
Q

AWT normally perform as ____ during Joint Air Attack Team (JAAT) operations because they have the highest level of __.

A

AMC <> SA

114
Q

What are the three attack employment methods (timing)?

A

Continuous <> Phased <> Maximum Destruction

115
Q

What are the three weapons delivery techniques?

A

Hover, Running, and Diving Fire

116
Q

Hover Fire is any engagement conducted below____.

A

ETL

117
Q

Running Fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter ______.

A

above ETL

118
Q

The ______ attack is used to take advantage of masking terrain while increasing the angle of attack.

A

Low Altitude Bump

119
Q

A normal dive angle for diving fire is ____ degrees. Anything greater than ____ is a steep dive.

A

10-15 degrees

30 degrees

120
Q

More than any other factor, it is important to avoid ______ as it increases a weapon’s Pk. In a target-rich environment, a unit may ________ and still not meet the CDR’s intent.

A

overkill

expend all its ammunition

121
Q

In what three can an engagement end?

A

Commander Announces Cease-Fire
All Targets Destroyed
All Ammo Expended

122
Q

The primary purpose of the rehearsal is ensuring all crews know and understand ___________.

A

the Commander’s Intent and how it will be executed

123
Q

Once established in BPs, crews prepare for engagement. They must expect the enemy to employ _________ unless _______.

A

active and passive Air Defence

reliable intelligence predicts otherwise

124
Q

The amount of time a helicopter can safely remain unmasked will depend _____. Should enemy AD or tanks be in overwatch, or if the TGT is STI, no more than __________.

A

two engagements from the same firing position

125
Q

Leaders must plan engagements within the “____” of the sensors, not merely “____”.

A

USEABLE range

maximum range

126
Q

The ______ is the last covered and concealed position prior to the objective that is occupied for short periods of time.

A

Holding Area

127
Q

Holding areas are normally located ______ behind the BP, ABF, or FLOT.

A

2-5 kilometers

128
Q

What is the key factor when selecting ABFs/BPs?

A

SENSOR RANGE (not weapons range)

4-2 ARB SOP (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions