ATM Flashcards

1
Q

A _______ is an operating procedure or practice that, if not correctly followed, could result _____________.

A

WARNING

in personal injury or loss of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A ______ is an operating procedure or practice that, if not strictly observed, could result ______________.

A

CAUTION

in damage to or destruction of equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A ____ highlights essential information of a ________.

A

NOTE

non-threatening nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the semi-annual flying-hour requirement for a FAC 1 aviator?

A

70 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

For a dual seat designated aviator, the semi-annual flying requirement is ___ hours, of which ___ must be flown in each crew station.

A

70

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many simulation hours may be applied to an aviator’s semi-annual flying hour requirement?

A

12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the semi-annual LCT requirement for a dual seat designated FAC 1 aviator?

A

15 hrs

4.5 hrs in each seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the semi-annual NVD (NVG and NVS) requirement?

A

9.0 hours

3 hours in each device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

To be considered NVG current, every __________ an aviator must take part in at least a _____________ while wearing NVG.

A

60 consecutive days

1-hour flight in the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

To be considered NVS current, every _________ an aviator must take part in a _________, or a _________.

A

60 consecutive days
1-hour flight in the aircraft while using NVS
1-hour flight in the LCT while using NVS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An aviator must participate every _______ in a 1-hour flight in the aircraft at night while using NVS.

A

120 consecutive days

i.e. - cannot reset twice in LCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the common condition regarding the HDU?

A

P* and P fitted with a boresighted display unit (HDU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

______ may approve instances when wearing an HDU during task performance is not desired.

A

The PC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What tasks will not be performed when performance planning indicates that OGE power is not available?

A
Alt/Airspeed Takeoff
VMC Approach (termination to an OGE hover)
Respond to Engine Failure
Instrument Takeoff
Terrain Flight (NOE)
Vertical Masking and Unmasking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the common standards for ALL tasks? (3)

A

Crew Coordination per Ch. 6 of the ATM
Do not exceed aircraft limitations
Utilize applicable terminology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the common standards for HOVER? (7)

A

Heading +/-10 degrees / Altitude +/-2’ IGE (10 OGE)
Drift - 3’ IGE or 12’ OGE
OGE - establish/announce forced landing/flyaway plan
Ground Track w/in 3’ / Constant rate of movement and turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the common standards for IN-FLIGHT? (7)

A

Heading +/-10*, Ground track alignment w/min drift
Altitude +/-100’, Airspeed +/-10 KTAS, IVSI +/-200 FPM
Trim +/- ball width, Ack LO-BUG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the common standards for all tasks with APU or ENG(s) operating? (2)

A

Maintain Airspace Surveillance (Task 1026)

Apply appropriate environmental considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) is defined as the _____

A

minimum safe height above the surface or obstacles to which the aircraft can descend in a masked condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Minimum Maneuvering Altitude (MMA) is defined as the _______.

A

altitude above the mask or barriers at which the aircraft may safely hover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Visual barriers (areas so dimly viewable that a determination cannot be made if they contain barriers or obstacles) will be treated as _______.

A

physical obstacles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The ___ has overall responsibility for the crew mission briefing. The __ may direct the other crewmember to __________.

A

PC

perform all or part of the crew briefing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The crew will validate the _________ by comparing the manual or electronic performance planning and _______________ (conditions permitting).

A

aircraft PERF page

results of the hover power check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the four methods of validating the PERF Page?

A

CUR PERF mode weight, balance, and CG values
ENG 1 and ENG 2 TQ factor (ETF) values against HIT log
ENG 1 and ENG 2 TGT limiter validation
Hover Power Check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In performance planning, what is the permissible range of the ATF?

A

0.9 to 1.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In performance planning, what is the permissible range of the ETF?

A

0.85 to 1.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A reduction in GWT of approximately ____ lbs equates to a change of approximately _ knot(s) less minimum SE airspeed and __ knot(s) greater maximum SE airspeed.

A

200 lbs

1 knot, 1 knot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What changes in environmental conditions require a re-computation of PPC?

A

5*C
+1,000’ PA
+1,000’ lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

One of the four standards for Preflight Inspection: Activate the ___________, select the desired format, and enter the correct data into the ____.

A

Load Maintenance Panel

LMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The ___ will ensure a walk-around inspection is complete prior to each flight.

A

PC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tactical situation permitting, use a flashlight _________ to supplement available lighting when performing preflight at night. _________ are difficult to see using a flashlight with a colored lens.

A

with an unfiltered lens

Hydraulic leaks, oil leaks, and other defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The PLT (backseat crewmember) will announce ___ and ___ starts.

A

APU and ENG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The pilot not on the controls will call out ____________ checks.

A

before taxi, taxi, before takeoff, before landing, and after landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the standards for Task 1026: Maintain Airspace Surveillance?

A

(1) Clear the aircraft. (2) Announce heading, altitude, or position changes. (3) Alert all sightings that may pose a threat. (4) Ack alerts. (5) Announce when focused inside the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the standards for Perform Ground Taxi?

A
Speed appropriate for conditions
Ground track +/- 3 feet
TQ Appropriate
Perform Taxi Check
Level Fuselage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When ground taxi-ing, increase collective to approx. ___ % TQ. High GWTs, soft, rough, or sloping terrain may require the use of more than __ % TQ.

A

27-30

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

During Ground Taxi - the P* may temporarily reduce taxi TQ to __ to __ percent for short periods with limited cyclic displacement to reduce negative effects of rotor downwash.

A

22 to 24 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the standards for Hovering Flight

A

Smooth & Controlled Ascent to a Hover
Hover Check near T/O point & in direction of T/O
Determine if sufficient power is available for mission
Smooth & Controlled Descent with min drift

39
Q

What must the P* announce when ascending to a hover for power checks?

A

CG and Controllability are Good

40
Q

What are the standards for VMC Takeoff?

A

HDG +/-10* until 50’ off ground or clear of obstacles
Ground track alignment with T/O direction
A/C in trim above 50’ AGL
Desired Airspeed +/- 10 KTAS
T/O power, not to exceed MAX TQ

41
Q

Due to high gross weight and adverse environmental conditions, when operating at or near maximum power limits, the P* will select ______________ and monitor the ______ during takeoff.

A
the aircraft (A/C) ENG page
TQ and TGT
42
Q

The height velocity diagram displays “avoid areas”. This diagram assumes the availability of a suitable forced landing area in case of engine failure. If surface conditions permit, the P* should _______________.

A

accelerate the aircraft to minimum single engine airspeed prior to establishing the desired climb rate.

43
Q

The P* can use the _______ mode stabilator control to fine-tune drag vs. airspeed and reduce lower power requirements for a given airspeed. The P* will announce:

A

manual

the use of the manual stabilator

44
Q

Compute in-flight fuel consumption within _______ of leveling off or entering into the mission profile.

A

15 to 30 minutes

45
Q

Define “JOKER Fuel”

A

PC or unit defined fuel state above bingo. It is the point where a training event is terminated or when the flight should begin to return to base. JOKER can be exceeded at the discretion of the PC.

46
Q

Define “BINGO Fuel”

A

Minimum amount of fuel necessary to fly to a refuel site with the regulatory minimum required fuel reserve. It is not negotiable or extendable.

47
Q

What five things will the P* announce when executing a VMC Approach?

A
Beginning the Approach
Terminate to a hover/ground
Intended point of landing
Any deviation from the approach
Use of Manual Stabilator
48
Q

What are the considerations for a VMC Approach to a confined area? (SBAT-w)

A

Size & Suitability, Barriers, Approach Direction, Touchdown & Takeoff point, Wind

49
Q

When conducting a VMC Approach to a confined area, where should the aircrew aim the approach?

A

Forward 1/3 of the approach area

50
Q

What are the standards for Slope Operations? (5)

A

(1) Set Parking Brake, (2) HDG +/-5*, (3) Minimum Drift, (4) Don’t exceed slope limits, (5) Smooth/Controlled Descent/Ascent

51
Q

When performing a slope landing, orient _______ if possible.

A

into the wind

52
Q

To avoid ______ during a slope landing, begin to adjust the cyclic and simultaneously reduce the collective to achieve centered cyclic with no less than _______ TQ applied.

A

droop stop pounding

25%

53
Q

The Pilot NOT on the Flight Controls will select and monitor _______ during slope landings.

A

a FLT page

54
Q

When performing a Slope Landing, what must the P* address?

A
Dynamic Rollover
(Pivot Point, Rolling Motion, Exceed the Critical Angle)
55
Q

When performing a Roll-On Landing, what must the P* announce before touchdown?

A

Brakes are Released
Tail Wheel is Locked
Area is Suitable for Landing

56
Q

Aerodynamic braking is accomplished by applying aft cyclic with no less than _____ DE TQ, ____ SE TQ.

A

30%, 60%

57
Q

A DE Roll-On landing should be accomplished at:

A SE EP Roll-On landing should be accomplished:

A

at or slightly above ETL

above VSSE

58
Q

For a roll-on landing during night (aided/unaided), the rate of descent during the final ___ feet should be _________.

A

100 feet

slightly slower than during the day to avoid abrupt attitude changes at low altitudes

59
Q

What are the standards for Perform Single Engine Landing? (4)

A

(1) A/S at or above VSSE until 10-20 ft above touchdown
(2) Ground track alignment with minimum drift
(3) Constant approach angle to first 1/3 of the surface
(4) Runway or landing area alignment +/- 5 degrees

60
Q

During any OGE hover or low speed OGE hovering operations, the P* will announce his ____________.

A

forced landing or SE flyaway plan

61
Q

During autorotation, P* will check and call out _____.

A

Nr, airspeed, and aircraft in trim + any deviations

62
Q

During autorotation, ensure that the airspeed at _____ AGL is not less than ____ KTAS.

A

130 feet AGL not less than 80 KTAS

63
Q

Prior to initiating an autorotation in the aircraft, the P* will select an _______ on one MPD and direct the P to select an _____ on one MPD to SIMULATE auto-paging.

A

ENG page

64
Q

Upon reaching the correct entry point, the P* will announce “___________”.

A

ENTERING AUTOROTATION

65
Q

During autorotation, the P* will call out ___________.

A

Nr, airspeed, trim and announce any deviations during the maneuver

66
Q

An autorotation may be accomplished either “_____” or “______”.

A

Straight In

With Turn

67
Q

When autorotating; prior to ____ AGL, ensure a steady state autorotation is obtained. If conditions are not met, execute a _______.

A

200 feet AGL

Go-Around

68
Q

When autorotating; between ______ AGL, adjust the cyclic for a smooth, progressive deceleration. Maintain ground track and apply pedal to align the aircraft with the direction of touchdown.

A

75 - 125 feet AGL

69
Q

When conducting an autorotation (training/eval) in the aircraft, the P* should limit TQ to below ____ to ensure that an autorotational descent is occurring.

A

10%

70
Q

When responding to NP Failed - HIGH, the malfunctioning engine should be placed in LOCKOUT and then retarded so that TQ is ____ below the good engine ________.

A

5% below the good engine

+/-5%

71
Q

A locked out engine’s ________ protection is disabled.

A

overtemperature

72
Q

After placing a power lever to LOCKOUT, the engine can be reset by placing the power lever to _____ momentarily.

A

IDLE

73
Q

When performing Rolling-Takeoff, do not allow the aircraft nose to _____________.

A

drop below the fuselage level until the aircraft departs the takeoff surface

74
Q

When performing Rolling-Takeoff, position the stabilator to __________.

A

0 degrees trailing edge down

75
Q

What are the procedural steps for unusual attitude recovery?

A

Level the pitch and back attitude
Establish and maintain a heading
Adjust torque to cruise or hover power as applicable
Trim the aircraft as required to return to level flight

76
Q

For Terrain Flight Takeoffs, what considerations must be analyzed? (TSLOW)

A

Tactical Situation <> Long Axis <> Obstacles <> Wind

77
Q

What are the three types of terrain flight takeoffs?

A

Continuous Angle
Altitude over Airspeed
Airspeed over Altitude

78
Q

When is a Continuous Angle terrain flight takeoff considered?

A

This takeoff technique should only be attempted with robust OGE power available (power available > 10% above OGE power required)

79
Q

When is an Altitude over Airspeed terrain flight takeoff considered?

A

When in an area where maneuver space is limited and/or OGE hover power is marginally available

80
Q

When is an Airspeed over Altitude terrain flight takeoff considered?
A ______ must be announced.

A

When OGE power is not available and/or when sufficient maneuver area exists
Abort takeoff point

81
Q

Continuous Takeoff -
Altitude over Airspeed
Airspeed over Altitude

A

Robust OGE Power
Limited OGE Power
OGE Power not Available

82
Q

________ remain the primary sensor for night operations and must be operational _________.

A

MPNVS and MTADS

prior to takeoff, and during the entire mission

83
Q

Ground Taxi - approximately _______% TQ should be applied. Apply _______ to initiate the taxi (this will help avoid __________)

A

27-30
TQ as necessary
excessive strap pack loads and droop stop pounding

84
Q

Ground Taxi - depending on ground velocity and surface conditions, how may EMERG stops be performed?

A

wheel brakes
aerodynamic braking
bringing Aircraft to a hover

85
Q

Ground Taxi - unlocking the tail wheel during rearward taxi causes the wheel to swivel 180 degrees. Use caution ______________, as this puts an excessive load on the tail wheel cam.

A

so that the tail wheel does not caster around suddenly

86
Q

Ground Taxi - the P* may temporarily reduce taxi TQ to _____% for ______________ to limit the negative effects of rotor downwash. Excessive cyclic input and insufficient TQ may result in _______________.

A

22-24
short periods with limited cyclic displacement
droop stop pounding or excessive strap pack loading

87
Q

Ground Taxi - during SE ground taxi, ______ the required TQ for a given condition.

A

double

88
Q

Ground Taxi - maintain level attitude with:
T/W locked =
T/W unlocked =

A

cyclic & pedal

cyclic

89
Q

Ground Taxi - (SNOW/SAND/DUST) - if ground reference is lost because of snow/sand/dust, __________.

A

lower the collective and neutralize the flight controls until visual reference is reestablished

90
Q

Ground Taxi - (SNOW) - when initiating ground taxi in snow or ice, apply _____________ to ________.

A

pressure and counter pressure to the pedals to ensure the wheels are not frozen to the ground

91
Q

Hovering Flight - Anytime the aircraft is brought to an OGE hover, the P* will announce _______________.

A

his intended forced landing area or flyaway plan

92
Q

Hover power check will be performed at a _______ and in the ______________.

A

5-foot stationary hover

vicinity and direction of takeoff

93
Q

Hover Power Check - the P will monitor _______ and ______ the hover power check.

A

aircraft instruments

verify

94
Q

Additional hover power checks must be performed in conjunction with the PERF page and PPC if the load or environmental conditions have increased _______.

A

1000’ PA <> 1,000 lbs <> 5*C