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4-2 ARB SOP > 4-2 Battle Book > Flashcards

4-2 Battle Book Flashcards

1
Q

How long do new aviators have to report to their supporting company commander with their IFRF and IATF?

A

14 calendar days from signing into the unit

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2
Q

What constitutes integration into the unit ATP and must be completed within 45 days following assignment to the unit?

A

designation of an RL level

45 days

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3
Q

Who can authorize ATP extensions?

For how long?

A

Battalion Commander

30-days

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4
Q

Crewmembers designated RL3 are prohibited from performing ANY cockpit flight duties in the aircraft unless _____.

A

an SP, IP, or IE is conducting the training or evaluation

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5
Q

Each semi-annual, each RL1 aviator will receive _____ of EP training in the aircraft or LCT; training will be administered by __.

A

2 hours

an SP/IP

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6
Q

What will not be mixed in the same formation?

A

Aided and Unaided aircraft

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7
Q

What must be used to preflight the aircraft in hours of darkness?

A

flash light with a clear lens

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8
Q

NOE NVD flight is NOT authorized except ________.

A

on approved NVD training routes, helicopter training areas, and tactical missions when a wire/hazard recon has been conducted within 72 hours of the planned flight.

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9
Q

Aviators will not operate single ship at night, aided or unaided, except under the following conditions:

A

1) On published routes, 2) in Control zones with an operational tower, 3) in LOCAL flying area, 4) IFR, 5) Off published RTEs when transitioning to and from airfields

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10
Q

NVD Flight: The TADS/PNVS will ______.

A

be ON, operational, and fully adjusted during all NVD flights

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11
Q

In addition to AR 95-1, all NVD operations will have ________.

A

an operational and adjusted and boresighted HDU’s (P and CPG)

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12
Q

Aviators will NOT take off on an NVD mission with an inoperative _____.

A

TADS or PNVS

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13
Q

What color lighting will NOT be used in the cockpit during NVG operations?

A

RED or WHITE

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14
Q

What will NOT be used by PLT and CPT simultaneously during night flight?

A

NVGs

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15
Q

Use of _____ as the sensor when firing IHADSS GUN is prohibited.

A

NVGs

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16
Q

Define “Terrain Flight”

A

Flight at less than 200’ AHO along the RTE (DAY) or less than 500’ AHO (NIGHT)

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17
Q

Aircrews will not perform _____ unless authorized in ______.

A

any mode of terrain flight

the mission briefing

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18
Q

Aircrews WILL ________ to prevent descending below hard deck.

A

set LO BUG to an appropriate altitude

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19
Q

Terrain flight outside of approved terrain flight areas is not authorized unless ______________.

A

a day hazard recon has been conducted IAW AK 95-1 within 72 hours prior to execution.

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20
Q

Who must validate hazard maps prior to flight

A

pc

21
Q

How many NVD hours must be flown semi-annually (in the aircraft or LCT)?
How many of each device minimum?

A

9 hours

3 hours

22
Q

How many hours of night un-aided must be flown semi-annually?

A

1 hour

23
Q

How many hours of hood/weather must be flown semi-annually?

A

3 hours

24
Q

How many hours of EP training must be conducted semi-annually? Who administers?

A

2 hours.

IP/SP

25
Q

Unaided night flight is not recommended _______.

A

below 200’ AHO except for takeoff and landing

26
Q

For all NVD operations, aviators (CPT & PLT) will have an operational and properly ______.

A

boresighted HDU

27
Q

What is the regulation regarding PLT and CPG flying NVG?

A

PLT and CPG will not utilize NVGs simultaneously

28
Q

What is the regulation regarding NVGs and weapons?

A

Use of NVGs as the sensor while firing IHADSS GUN is prohibited.

29
Q

Aircrews will not perform any mode of terrain flight unless ________.

A

authorized in the mission briefing

30
Q

Aircrew members will set lo bug to an appropriate altitude to prevent _____.

A

descending below hard deck

31
Q

Hazards WILL be _______ and should be made to enter in ______.

A

be plotted on the individual aviators’ maps

the AMPS for display on the TSD

32
Q

Aircrews WILL have a current _____ with hazards of the area of operations with them loaded into the aircraft.

A

BN DTC

33
Q

After all fires, prior to departing the FARP for the final time, the PC will ensure _____.

A

all weapon systems are cleared

34
Q

To clear the AWS, it will be cycled ______ while being visually inspected prior to departing range.

A

three times

PC will write up and sign off the inspection

35
Q

Aviators may operate _____ with the exception that they must maintain ___ for the entire route of flight.

A

IFR

VMC

36
Q

Reverse stack is _____. Aircraft will turn __ degrees times their gun number to their briefed side and stack down ____ foot increments.

A

prohibited 10* 500’

37
Q

When must IIMC procedures be briefed?

A

all multi-ship flights and anytime Wx is less than 3000’ and 3sm

38
Q

What is the first course of action for IIMC recovery?

A

PAR RWY 32

39
Q

Complete operational checks and utilize ASE and IFF equipment on ______.

A

every flight

40
Q

For dual pilot ground runs, the minimum crew is _____. Two RL1 aviators will ____.

A

a PC and an RL2 aviator.

NOT operate engines

41
Q

All RL1 aviators are authorized to operate _____.

A

the APU

42
Q

Define multi-aircraft operations.

A

the movement of two or more aircraft in one or more formations

43
Q

Define formation flight.

A

a flight in which two or more aircraft are operating in such proximity that the others must duplicate movement of the lead aircraft

44
Q

What are the hard decks for OW flight and the associated rule?

A

100’ AWL Day, 200’ AWL Night. LO BUG used, below 500’ crew will limit rate of descent equivalent to altitude

45
Q

Single-Ship overwater flight is authorized within ____ of land.

A

5 minutes

46
Q

BC must approve flight operations when Weather Warnings, Area Weather Advisories and Forecasts indicate:

A

-

47
Q

Missions that are delayed more than ___ or that have a ____ will be re-briefed.

A

24 hours

crew change

48
Q

PCs should NOT be AMC during _______. The BN CDR will approve on a case by case basis when this occurs.

A

Company or higher level tactical training

4-2 ARB SOP (13 decks)

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