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CAX > instrument commercial > Flashcards

instrument commercial Flashcards

1
Q

complex airplane components

A

retractable landing gear, flaps, controllable pitch prop or full authority digital engine control (FADEC)

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2
Q

technically advanced aircraft (TAA)

A

PFD, MFD, two axis auto pilot system

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3
Q

high performance airplane components

A

engine with more than 200 hp

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4
Q

when do you need to hold a type rating

A

to act as PIC of a large aircraft except lighter than air (aircraft of more than 12,500 lbs); turbojet powered aircraft; other aircraft specified by the admin

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5
Q

what is a commercial operator

A

a person who for comp or hire engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property other than as an air carrier or foreign air carrier

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6
Q

what does operational control mean

A

the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight

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7
Q

common carriage

A

operator holds itself out as willing to furnish transportation for any member of the public

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8
Q

on demand operation

A

any operation for comp or hire in which the departure time, departure location, and destination are specifically negotiated with the customer

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9
Q

flag operation

A

any scheduled operation to a location outside of the US in a turbojet powered airplane that has more than 9 passenger seats with a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less

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10
Q

commuter operation

A

any scheduled operation with a frequency of at least 5 round trips per week on at least 1 route in a non turbo jet powered airplane with no more than 9 passenger seats with a maximum payload of 7,500

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11
Q

what is the order of the atmosphere from lowest to highest

A

troposphere, tropopause, stratosphere, stratopause, mesosphere, mesopause, thermosphere

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12
Q

what is the driving force behind all weather

A

solar radiation strikes the earth at different angles at different locations depending on the latitude and time of year; cloud cover can also block solar radiation. the variables cause the earths surface to heat unevenly which is the driving force behind all weather

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13
Q

what causes pressures differences

A

the unequal heating of the surface modifies air density

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14
Q

what are isobars

A

points of equal pressure; labeled in millibars

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15
Q

high

A

center of high pressure surrounded on all sides by lower pressure

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16
Q

low

A

area of low pressure surrounded by higher pressure

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17
Q

ridge

A

elongated area of high pressure

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18
Q

trough

A

elongated of low pressure

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19
Q

col

A

designate either a neutral area between two highs or two lows, or the intersection of a ridge and a trough

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20
Q

low pressure area characteristics

A

air moves inwards, up, and counterclockwise; rising air is conductive to cloudiness, precipitation, poor vis, gusty winds, and turbulence; weather may be violent in the area of a trough

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21
Q

high pressure area characteristics

A

air moves outwards, downwards, and clockwise; descending air favors dissipation of cloudiness; generally associated with goof visibility, calm or light winds and few clouds

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22
Q

Coriolis force

A

as the earth rotates beneath this airflow, Coriolis force counterbalances the pressure gradient force and deflects airflow to the right as it flows out of a high pressure area in the northern hemisphere

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23
Q

what happens when air cools to the dew point

A

contains all the moisture it can hold at the temperature and is said to be saturated

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24
Q

what happens when the relative humidity increases

A

temperature/dew point spread decreases

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25
Q

describe precipitation

A

condensed water droplets grow to a size where the atmosphere can no longer support their weight so they fall as precip

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26
Q

what is virga

A

water droplets that remain liquid fall as drizzle or rain; with low relative humidity rain might evaporate before it reaches the surface

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27
Q

what is a supercooled water droplet

A

water droplets can remain in liquid form even though they are cooled below freezing; when the supercooled water strikes an object such as an airplane or surface of the earth, it immediately turns to ice or freezing rain

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28
Q

how many calories of heat does it take to vaporize one gram of water

A

540 (2,260 joules)

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29
Q

what is stability

A

the atmospheres ability to resist vertical motion; the stability of a parcel of air determines whether it rises or sinks in relation to the air around it

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30
Q

when is air the most unstable

A

when it is warm and moist

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31
Q

what occurs when air is lifted?

A

air expansion and cooling

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32
Q

what occurs when air descends?

A

air compression and warming

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33
Q

what is the DALR

A

dry adiabatic lapse rate; 3 deg C per 1000 ft that a parcel of unsaturated air is lifted

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34
Q

what is SALR

A

saturated adiabatic lapse rate; the rate of cooling of a rising, saturated parcel; a saturated parcel continues to cool as it rises but at a slower rate than it were dry

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35
Q

what is the difference between adiabatic lapse rate and ambient air lapse rate?

A

adiabatic lapse rate is the rate at which a parcel of air cools as altitude changes (constant rate); ambient air lapse rate is the rate at which the temperature of the actual air around you changes as your altitude changes; not a constant and often varies from one altitude to another, one place to another, and one minute to another

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36
Q

characteristics of stable air

A

wide area of stratiform clouds or fog, small droplets in fog and low level clouds; restricted visibility for long periods of time; light or nonexistent turbulence

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37
Q

characteristics of unstable air

A

cumuliform clouds with extensive vertical development; large drops in heavy rain showers (usually brief showers); poor visibility in showers or thunderstorms, good otherwise; moderate to severe turbulence; high or gusty surface winds, lighting, tornadoes

38
Q

how do clouds form

A

as air cools to its saturation point condensation changes invisible water vapor to a visible state; condensation is facilitated by condensation nuclei which can be dust, salt, from evaporation sea spray or products of combustion

39
Q

what are the groups of clouds

A

low, middle, high, clouds with vertical development

40
Q

cumulus

A

heap

41
Q

stratus

A

layer

42
Q

nimbus

A

rain

43
Q

cirrus

A

ringlet

44
Q

how do cumulus clouds form

A

moist air is lifted and condenses; widely spaced cumulus clouds that form in otherwise clear skies are called fair weather cumulus

45
Q

define low clouds

A

extend from near the surface to about 6,500 ft AGL; usually consist entirely of water but sometimes contain supercooled water and can create an icing hazard for aircraft

46
Q

types of low clouds

A

stratus, stratocumulus, and nimbostratus

47
Q

define middle clouds

A

have bases that range from about 6500 to 20,000 ft AGL; they are composed of water, ice crystals or supercooled water and can contain moderate turbulence and potentially severe icing

48
Q

types of middle clouds

A

altostratus and altocumulus

49
Q

define high clouds

A

have bases beginning above 20,000 ft AGL; composed mainly of ice crystals and seldom pose a serious turbulence or icing hazard

50
Q

what is a cold front

A

separates advancing mass of cold dense and stable air from an area of warm lighter and unstable air; cold air moves along the surface and forces the less dense warm air upward

51
Q

cold front weather during passage

A

towering cumulonimbus, heavy showers possible lighting and thunder, poor vis, variable and gusty, suddenly cooler

52
Q

cold front weather after passage

A

cumulus clouds, slowly decreasing showers, good visibility, unstable air

53
Q

what is a warm front

A

occur when warm air moves over the top of cooler air at the surface; usually move much slower speeds than cold fronts

54
Q

warm front weather during passage

A

stratiform clouds, drizzle precipitation, poor but improving visibility

55
Q

warm front weather after passage

A

stratocumulus clouds, rain or showers if any, fair visibility

56
Q

what is a stationary front

A

when the opposing forces of two air masses are balanced the front that separates them might remain stationary and influence local flying conditions for several days; weather is usually a mixture of that found in both warm and cold fronts

57
Q

when does a frontal occlusion occur

A

a fast moving cold front catches up to a slow moving warm front; the difference in temperature within each frontal system strongly influences which type of front and weather are created

58
Q

what is a cold front occlusion

A

develops when the fast moving cold front is colder than air ahead of the slow moving warm front; the cold air replaces the cool air at the surface and forces the warm front aloft

59
Q

what is a warm front occlusion

A

occurs when the fast moving cold front is warmer than the air ahead of the slow moving warm front; the cold front rides up over the warm forcing the cold front aloft

60
Q

occluded front weather during passage

A

nimbostratus possible towering cumulus, light to heavy precipitation, poor visibility

61
Q

occluded front weather after passage

A

nimbostratus, altostratus, light to moderate precip then cleared up, improving visibility

62
Q

what conditions are necessary to create a thunderstorm

A

sufficient water vapor, unstable air, lifting mechanism

63
Q

what factors can provide lifting action

A

rising terrain (orographic lifting), fronts, or the heating of the earth’s surface (convection)

64
Q

what are the stages of a thunderstorm

A

cumulus, mature, dissipating

65
Q

what happens during the cumulus stage

A

lifting action initiates vertical movement of air; because of strong updrafts precip usually doesn’t fall; updrafts as great as 3000 ft/min might begin might begin near the surface and extend well above the cloud top; the cloud reaches the mature stage in about 15 minutes

66
Q

what happens during the mature stage

A

as the water drops in the cloud grow too large to be supported by updrafts, precip begins to fall to the surface; this creates downward motion in the surrounding air and signals the beginning of the mature stage; the downdrafts can reach a velocity of 2,500 ft/min; air spreads outwards at the surface, producing a sharp drop in temperature, rise in pressure, strong gusty surface winds, and turbulent conditions; updrafts continue to increase up to 6,000 ft/min

67
Q

what is a gust front

A

the leading edge of a downdraft

68
Q

what happens during the dissipating stage

A

because upward movement is necessary for condensation and the release of the latent heat energy, the entire thunderstorm begins to weaken; when downdrafts become dominant air movement within the cell it it considered to be the dissipating stage; upper level winds often blow the top of the clouds downwind creating the anvil stage

69
Q

what is a squall line

A

narrow band of active thunderstorms that normally contains very severe weather; often forms 50-200 miles ahead of a fast moving cold front; the existence of a front is not necessary for a squall line to form

70
Q

what is a funnel cloud

A

violent spinning columns of air that descend from the base of a cloud; a funnel cloud that reaches the earths surface is a tornado

71
Q

what do you do to avoid thunderstorms

A

avoid thunderstorms by at least 20 miles; if you plan to deviate around a thunderstorm fly on the upwind side do your path does not converge with the path of the storm

72
Q

what are the three categories of turbulence

A

low level, clear air, mountain wave

73
Q

what do you do if you are in severe turbulence in cruise

A

slow the airplane to maneuvering speed (Va) or less and maintain straight and level flight

74
Q

what do you do if you encounter severe turb on approach

A

fly a power on approach and touchdown at a slightly higher airspeed and altitude

75
Q

what are the three types of turbulence frequency

A

occasional, intermediate, continuous

76
Q

what are the four types of turbulence intensity

A

light, moderate, severe, extreme

77
Q

define wind shear

A

sudden drastic shift in wind speed and/or direction that occurs over a short distance at any altitude in a vertical or horizontal plane

78
Q

rime ice

A

normally encountered in stratus clouds and results from instantaneous freezing of tiny water droplets striking the aircraft surface; has an opaque appearance caused by air being trapped in water droplets as they freeze; the major hazard is the ability of rime ice to change the shape of an airfoil and destroy lift

79
Q

clear ice

A

can develop in areas of large water droplets that are found in cumulus clouds or in freezing rain beneath a warm front inversion; when the droplets flow over the aircraft structure and slowly freeze they can glaze the aircrafts surface

80
Q

what is the most dangerous kind of ice

A

clear ice; it has the fastest rate of accumulation, adheres tenaciously to the aircraft and is more difficult to remove

81
Q

why is ice so dangerous

A

ice increases drag and weight and increases lift and thrust; stall speed is increased and reduce the angle of attack at which the airplane stalls

82
Q

what are the different severities of ice

A

trace, light, moderate, severe

83
Q

how often are TAFs released and how long are they good for

A

4 times daily and valid for 24 hours

84
Q

what are the benefits of fuel injected engines

A

reduced risk of induction system ice, greater efficiency, enhance engine performance and safety; reduces fuel consumption per hp; lower operating temperatures and less vibration

85
Q

how do fuel injected systems operate

A

pressurize the fuel, meter it to provide specific amount of engine power and spray it directly into each cylinder intake port; each cylinder receives the same quantity of fuel, making it possible to set the mixture precisely; as fuel air mixture vaporizes in the cylinder, it cools the combustion chamber, injecting fuel at the cylinders rather than in the throttle area reduces the chances of ice forming in the induction system

86
Q

what causes spark plug fouling

A

carbon build up due to an excessively rich mixture which lowers the temperature inside the cylinder, inhibiting complete combustion of the fuel; can occur during runup at high elevation airports and during climbs or cruise at high alt

87
Q

what does an excessively lean mixture cause

A

can result in high engine temperatures which can cause excessive engine wear or failure over time

88
Q

what are the purpose of fuel pumps

A

force fuel into the cylinders under pressure; fuel pressure is very important fuel injection systems have two fuel pumps

89
Q

engine driven fuel pump operation

A

operates when engine is turning

90
Q

electric fuel pump (auxiliary) operation

A

provides fuel under pressure to the fuel air control unit for engine starting and/or emergency use;

91
Q

what are the output levels of the auxiliary fuel pump

A

low output level provides fuel under moderate pressure for priming and eliminating vapor bubbles in the fuel lines and higher level provides greater output to supply the engine with fuel if the engine driven pump fails

CAX (7 decks)

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