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CAX > archer POH > Flashcards

archer POH Flashcards

1
Q

engine manufacturer

A

lycoming

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2
Q

fuel injected

A

IO-360-B4A

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3
Q

takeoff power (BHP)

A

180

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4
Q

engine displacement (in^3)

A

361

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5
Q

engine type

A

four cylinder, direct drive, horizontally opposed with fuel injection

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6
Q

prop manufacturer

A

sensenich

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7
Q

prop type

A

fixed pitch

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8
Q

fuel capacity

A

50 gal

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9
Q

useable fuel

A

48 cal

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10
Q

fuel minimum octane

A

100 green or 100LL blue aviation grade

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11
Q

oil capacity

A

8 qts

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12
Q

oil type

A

20W-50

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13
Q

max ramp weight

A

2558 lbs

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14
Q

max takeoff weight

A

2550 lbs

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15
Q

max landing weight

A

2550 lbs

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16
Q

max weight in baggage comp

A

200 lbs

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17
Q

wing loading

A

15 lbs per sq ft

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17
Q

power loading

A

14.2 lbs per hp

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18
Q

navigation system

A

garmin G1000 integrated avionics GNSS long range navigation system

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19
Q

SBAS

A

satellite based augmentation system

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20
Q

how many GNSS systems

A

when fully operational, G1000 has two independent GNSS long range navigational systems

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21
Q

GNSS

A

global navigation satellite system

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22
Q

how can you determine FDE/RAIM availability

A

using the garmin RAIM/fault detection and exclusion prediction tool available on the garmin website

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23
Q

CAS

A

calibrated airspeed; indicated airspeed corrected for position and instrument error; equal to true airspeed in standard atmosphere at sea level

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24
Q

IAS

A

indicated airspeed; airspeed indicated on the ASI when corrected for instrument error

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25
Q

TAS

A

true airspeed; airspeed relative to undisturbed air which CAS corrected for altitude, temp, and compressibility

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26
Q

Vfe

A

max flap extended speed; 102

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27
Q

Vne

A

never exceed speed; 154

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28
Q

Vno

A

max structural cruising speed; 125

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29
Q

Vso

A

stall speed at which airplane is controllable in the landing configuration; 45

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30
Q

Vx

A

best angle of climb; 64

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31
Q

Vy

A

best rate of climb; 76

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32
Q

ISA

A

international standard atmosphere; air is a dry perfect gas, temp at sea level is 15 deg celsius, pressure at sea level is 29.92 inches of mercury (1013.2 millibars)

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33
Q

OAT

A

outside air temperature; free air static temperature

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34
Q

indicated pressure altitude

A

number actually read from an altimeter when baro sub scale has been set to 29.92 inches of mercury 1013.2 millibars)

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35
Q

pressure altitude

A

indicated pressure altitude corrected for position and
instrument error

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36
Q

EGT

A

exhaust gas temperature

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37
Q

FFLOW

A

fuel flow

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38
Q

RPM

A

prop speed

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39
Q

ADAHRS

A

air data, attitude and heading reference system

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40
Q

AFCS

A

automatic flight control system

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41
Q

EIS

A

engine indicating system

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42
Q

FDE

A

fault detection and exclusion

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43
Q

FOB

A

fuel on board

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44
Q

GPS

A

global positioning system

45
Q

GSU

A

garmin ADAHRS

46
Q

GTX

A

garmin transponder

47
Q

MFD

A

multifunction display

48
Q

PFD

A

primary flight display

49
Q

climb gradient

A

demonstrated ratio of change in height during a portion of a climb, to the horizontal distance traversed in the same time interval

50
Q

arm

A

horizontal distance from reference datum to CG

51
Q

CG

A

center of gravity; point at which the airplane would balance if suspended; total moment/total weight

52
Q

CG arm

A

obtained by adding the airplane’s individual moments and dividing the sum by the total weight

53
Q

datum

A

imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances are measured for balance purposes

54
Q

basic empty weight

A

standard empty weight plus optional equipment

55
Q

max zero fuel weight

A

max weight exclusive of usable fuel

56
Q

payload

A

weight of occupants, cargo, and baggage

57
Q

useable fuel

A

fuel remaining after runout test as been completed in accordance with governmental regulations

58
Q

useful load

A

difference between takeoff weight and basic empty weight

59
Q

max prop speed

A

2700 rpm

60
Q

max oil temp

A

245 deg F

61
Q

minimum oil pressure

A

25 PSI

62
Q

maximum oil pressure

A

115 PSI

63
Q

PSI

A

pounds per inch^2

64
Q

alternator limitation

A

70 amps

65
Q

emergency batt minimums

A

23.3 volts

66
Q

approved operations

A

day VFR, night VFR, day IFR, night IFR, non icing, person operating aircraft must wear a headset while in flight

67
Q

data link wx display

A

limited to supplemental use only and may not be used in lieu of an official wx data source

68
Q

landing final approach speed (flaps 40)

A

66 KIAS

69
Q

max demonstrated crosswind velocity

A

17 kts

70
Q

can you keep the EMERG BATT switch on during normal operation?

A

yes; switch can remain ON while using external power; emergency bus does not receive power from external power source due to a relay in the circuit

71
Q

why should you avoid prolonged idling at low rpm?

A

it may result in fouled spark plugs

72
Q

during runup, what is the maximum amount of time you should operate on one mag?

A

do not exceed 10 seconds

73
Q

what is the enroute climbing speed

A

87 KIAS; will produce better forward speed and increased visibility over the nose during a climb

74
Q

when is best economy mixture reached?

A

moving the mixture control aft until peak EGT is reached

75
Q

when is best power mixture reached?

A

leaning to peak EGT and then enriching until the EGT is 100 deg F rich of the peak value

76
Q

during cruise why should you keep the electrical fuel pump on OFF?

A

so any malfunction of the engine driven fuel pump is immediately apparent

77
Q

when does fuel vapor occur?

A

can occur in the fuel system during ground operations when high ambient temperatures are present

78
Q

what are some symptoms of fuel vapor?

A

fluctuation of idle speed and fuel flow, poor engine response to throttle movement, engine will not operate when throttle is closed, high rpm drop (greater than 175 rpm) during mag check

79
Q

if during ground operation you suspect fuel vapor, what should you do?

A

(a) Advance the throttle to an engine speed of 1800 to 2000 RPM. Continue
at this power setting for - 1-2 minutes or until smooth engine operation.
Make sure oil temperature stays within limits.
(b) Return throttle to idle and check for smooth operation.
(c) During taxi, lean mixture and operate at as high a power setting (1200
RPM max) as practical.
(d) Prior to takeoff, sel the mixture lo the full rich position (for high
elevation fields, mixture leaning could be necessary for smooth engine
operation).
(e) Prior to initiation of takeoff roll, set full throttle and verify smooth
engine operation.

80
Q

what does the standard empty weight include?

A

full oil capacity and 2.0 gallons of unusable fuel

81
Q

describe the engine

A

powered by a four-cylinder, direct drive, horizontally opposed fuel injected engine rated at 180 horsepower at 2700 rpm; it is furnished with a starter, 70 ampere 28-volt alternator, shielded ignition wires, a fuel pump, and a dry, automotive type induction air filter

82
Q

describe the exhaust system

A

The exhaust system is made entirely from stainless steel and is equipped with a single dual muffler; a heater shroud around the muffler is provided to supply heat for the cabin and windshield defrosting

83
Q

describe the induction system

A

incorporates an avstar RSA-5AD1 type fuel injector; based on the principle of differential pressure which balances air pressure against fuel pressure; the regulated fuel pressure established by the
servo valve when applied across a fuel control (jetting system) makes the fuel
flow proportional to airflow; fuel pressure regulation by the servo valve causes a
minimal drop in fuel pressure throughout the metering system; metering pressure
is maintained above most vapor forming conditions while fuel inlet pressure is
low enough to allow use of a diaphragm pump; the servo system feature also
checks vapor lock and associated starting problems

84
Q

what does fuel injected mean?

A

the fuel is injected directly into the cylinders, or just ahead of the intake valve; fuel injectors mix the fuel and air immediately before entry into each cylinder or injects fuel directly into each cylinder

85
Q

what are the advantages to a fuel injected induction system?

A

Reduction in evaporative icing
Better fuel flow
Faster throttle response
Precise control of mixture
Better fuel distribution
Easier cold weather starts

86
Q

describe the alternate air induction system

A

the induction airbox assembly contains a valve that can open and allow airflow into the engine in the event of blockage of the primary induction air source; the air provided through the alternate air source is heated, which will also provide induction system icing protection; as this alternate air source is not filtered, the primary air source should always be used for takeoff; control of the alternate air valve is through a lever located to the right of the engine control lever quadrant

87
Q

describe the flight controls

A

dual controls are provided as standard equipment with a cable system used between the controls and the surfaces

88
Q

describe the horizontal tail

A

the horizontal tail (stabilator) is of the all moveable slab type with a trim tab mounted on the trailing edge

89
Q

describe the flaps

A

single slot manually operated flaps

90
Q

what are single slot flaps?

A

most commonly used flaps today; they increase wing camber (curve of the wing) and when extended they open a slot between the wing and the flap; by opening a slot between the wing and the flap, high pressure air from the bottom of the wing flows through the slot into the upper surface; this adds energy to the wing’s boundary layer, delays airflow separation, and produces less drag

91
Q

describe the landing gear

A

three landing gear use Parker 6.00 x 6 wheels; mains are equipped with single hydraulically operated external caliper and disk brake assembly

92
Q

what is the hydraulic fluid we use?

A

petroleum hase; MIL-PRE-5606; red color

93
Q

describe the brake system

A

consists of dual toe brakes attached to the rudder pedals and a hand brake lever located below, behind, and to the left of the throttle quadrant; toe and hand brakes have their own master brake cylinders, but
they share a common reservoir; the brake fluid reservoir is installed on the top left front face of the firewall; the parking brake is incorporated in to the hand lever master cylinder

94
Q

AHRS

A

attitude and heading reference system; uses GPS, rate sensors, air data, and magnetic variation to provide pitch and roll attitude, sideslip, and heading information; incorporates internal monitors to determine validity to its parameters; 2 magnetometers (one for PFD/MFD one for standby), inclinometers, accelerometers, rate sensors

95
Q

ADC

A

air data computer; provides airspeed, altitude, vertical speed, and air temperature; also used for FMS and traffic system; incorporates internal monitors to determine validity of its parameters; pitot static instruments provide information

96
Q

what kind of transponder do we have

A

GTX345R

97
Q

what are some of the capabilities of our transponder?

A

ADSB-in, ADSB-out, TAS, timers, static OAT display, internal GPS, PA and DA display

98
Q

what happens to the standby during complete electrical failure of the alternator, primary, and emergency batt

A

G5 standby will revert to its internal battery allowing for 4 hours of additional operation

99
Q

describe the electrical system

A

28 volt electrical system includes a 24 volt primary battery, a 70 ampere 28 volt alternator, a single external power connector and an isolated 24 volt emergency battery; the electrical system is capable of supplying sufficient current to all the required equipment for day/night IFR and day/night VFR operations

100
Q

what does the primary battery do?

A

provides for electric power to the equipment when the engine is not running and for engine starting; when energized by the battery master switch the primary battery supplies electrical power to the starter as well as all items on the Essential Bus, Non-Essential Bus and Lighting Bus; if
it becomes necessary to charge the battery by an external source, it should be removed from the airplane prior to charging

101
Q

describe the alternator

A

belt driven directly from the engine; once engine is running and ALTR switch is activated the alternator becomes the primary source of electrical power for the aircraft; primary batt provides stored electrical power to back up the alternator; batt is charged by alternator

102
Q

what is a voltage regulator?

A

designed to regulate the electrical system bus voltage to 28 volts and to prevent damage to the electrical and avionics equipment by removing the alternator from the circuit if its output exceeds 32 volts

103
Q

describe the emergency battery

A

provides electrical power to emergency bus; with EMERG BATT in ARM position power is applied to emergency bus automatically if electrical power is removed from primary electrical system; provides minimum duration of 30 minutes of electrical power to emergency bus equipment

104
Q

what functions are available via the emergency bus

A

all standby instrument functions, PFD functions (nav/comm1 only), and the audio panel

105
Q

how can you ensure that you have the full 30 minutes of power from emergency batt

A

only available if its voltage is greater than 23.3 volts prior to flight

106
Q

what role does the diode serve regarding the emergency battery

A

the emergency battery is also isolated from the electrical power generating system
via a diode in the circuit; this diode will allow the generating system to charge
the emergency battery during normal operations but prevents discharge of the
emergency battery when operating with the alternator off

107
Q

what happens when the alternate static is engaged?

A

altimeter, vertical speed indicator, and airspeed indicator on the PFD and standby will use cabin air for static pressure

108
Q

what do you have to do during alternate static operation?

A

storm window and cabin vents must be closed and cabin heat and defrost must be on

109
Q

when do you have to replace the ELT

A

batt replacement date marked on the transmitter; batt must be replaced before or on this date or if the transmitter has been used in an emergency situation or accumulated test time exceeds one hour

110
Q

ELT test transmission

A

should be conducted only in the first 5 minutes of any hour and limited to three audio sweeps

111
Q
A

CAX (7 decks)

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