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Helicopters > Instrument Cheat Sheet > Flashcards

Instrument Cheat Sheet Flashcards

1
Q

IMSAFE

A
  • Illness
  • Medication
  • Stress
  • Alcohol
  • Fatigue
  • Eating
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2
Q

Pilot Currency Qualifications

A
  • Performed and logged in appropriate aircraft, sim, FTD, or ATD:
    • 6 inst approaches
    • holding procedures & tasks
    • Intercepting and tracking courses through use of nav electronic systems.
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3
Q

Past current requirments

A

IPC Only required 6mo after currency lapses (12mo after last qualifying approach.)

Must pass Instrument Proficiency Check:

  • In appropriate aircraft
  • W/ Certified personnel
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4
Q

Helicopter Takeoff Minimums

A

1/2 SM visibility

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5
Q

IFR Fuel requirements

A

91.167

Fly to first airport, then to alternate, then for 30 mins.

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6
Q

IFR Destination Weather Minimums

A

91.169(b)(2)(ii) Alternate required if below these.
At ETA & for ETA+1hr:
Ceiling: 1,000’ above airport elevation or at least 400’ above lowest applicable approach minimum, whichever is higher.
Visibility: 2sm

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7
Q

IFR Alternate Airport Weather Minimums

A

91.169(c)(1)(ii)
Ceiling: 200’ above min approach to be flown
Visibility: 1sm, but no less than approach minimum.

With WAAS
- must use LNAV Minimums
Without WAAS
- Must have non-GPS approach available

If route and destination approach are planned for GPS, alternate must have an approach other than GPS available.

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8
Q

Loss of 2 way radio communications

A

Route:
- Route assigned in last ATC clearance.
- If being vectored, direct route from point of radio failure to fix, route or airway specified in vector clearance
- If not route assignment, go to route ATC advised may be expected in further clearance by route filed in flight plan.
- If none expected, go to route filed by flight plan.
ALTITUDE:
- last assigned by ATC
- min alt for IFR ops
- Altitude advised may be expected.

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9
Q

VOR must be checked

A

Within 30 days of IFR flight

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10
Q

Pitot Static must be checked

A

every 24 calendar months

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11
Q

Transponder must be checked

A

every 24 calendar months

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12
Q

What nav systems must be checked for IFR flight

A

VOR: within 30 days
Pitot Static: Every 24 months
Transponder: Every 24 months

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13
Q

Types of Transponders

A

3A: Position & Squawk Code
Mode C: Adds Alt encoding (own static source)
Mode S: Adds Tail Number

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14
Q

Weather Reports to go Over

A
  • Metars
  • TAFs
  • Area Forecasts
  • Prog Charts
  • Winds Aloft
  • Radar
  • Significant Weather Prog Charts
  • Convective Outlook
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15
Q

Airmets

A

Valid for 6 Hrs

  • Sierra: Obscuration
  • Tango: Lgt-Mod Turbulance
  • Zulu: Trace, Lgt, Mod Icing
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16
Q

Sigmets

A

Valid for 4hrs

  • Severe or greater icing and turbulance NOT associtated with a thunderstorm.
  • Sandstorm
  • Volcanic Ash
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17
Q

Convective Sigmets

A

Valid for 2 Hrs

  • Essentially anything dealing with thunderstorms.
  • 40% or more of an area 3,000sq miles
  • surface winds >50kts
  • Hail bigger than 3/4”
  • Tornados
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18
Q

91.175(f)

A

Minimum Departure Requirements

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19
Q

91.169(b)(2)(ii)

A

Weather Minimums required for NOT filing an alternate.

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20
Q

91.169(c)(1)(ii)

A

Weather Minimums for an alternate to be viable.

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21
Q

Tower Enroute Control

A

A/FD - Chart Supplement

- Gives you Navaids and fixes between major airports.

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22
Q

STAR

A

Standard Terminal Arrival Route

  • Various transitions leading into terminal area
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23
Q

SID

A

Standard Instrument Departure

  • Various transitions leading out of terminal area
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24
Q

ODP

A

Obstacle Departure Procedure

  • Establishes obstacle clearance requirements for airports with non-standard takeoff minimums
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25
Q

Standard Takeoff Minimums

A
  • 200ft/nm
  • 400’agl before making turns
  • 35’agl over the departure end of the runway (over numbers)
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26
Q

How to file IFR plan

A
  • Foreflight

- Calling on phone

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27
Q

Difference between IFR and VFR flight plans

A
  • IFR provides clearance, separation, and positive control

- VFR is more generalized for S&R if not reporting by certain times.

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28
Q

Methods for obtaining IFR clearance

A 
Radio
  - Clearance Delivery/Ground/Tower
  - GCO - ground communications outlet
  - RCO - Radio Communications Outlet
  - 
Phone
  - WX Brief
  - 1-888-766-8267 Clearance Delivery Line
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29
Q

Hold for Release

A

Wait for ATC to get back to you with a clearance, or contact ATC again after instructed time.

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30
Q

CVT

A

Clearance Void Time

  • Separation for departure is no longer valid after CVT expires.
  • If not off by CVT, contact ATC for new clearance within 30 mins. After 30 mins, S&R procedures begin.
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31
Q

CRAFT

A 
C - Cleared to (typically airport or specific fix)
R - Route (Include SIDs and STARs)
A - Altitude cleared to
F - Departure Frequency
T - Transponder Code
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32
Q

Required IFR Instruments

A 
GRAB CARD
G - Generator
R - Radios
A - Attitude Indicator
B - Ball (Slid/Skid Coordinator)
C - Clock w/ Sweeping Seconds Hand
A - Altimeter (Pressure Sensitive) Radar Alt not sufficient
R - Rate of turn indicator
D - Directional Gyro
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33
Q

Standard Helicopter IFR Departure Minimums

A

1/2 Mile Visibility

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34
Q

Non Standard Helicopter IFR Departure Minimums

A

Are listed in Departure Procedures

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35
Q

EFC

A

Expect Further Clearance
- After specified time, expect further instruction from ATC. If communications are lost before that time, continue to next phase of flight at end of EFC.

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36
Q

Position Report Items

A
  • ID
  • Position
  • Time
  • Altitude
  • Type flight plan (not req in IFR pos reports to ARTCC or Approach)
  • ETA and name of next reporting point
  • Name only of the next succeeding reporting point along route
  • Pertinent Remarks
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37
Q

Outer Marker

A

Located on the localizer front course 4-7 miles from airport to indicate the position at which an aircraft, at the appropriate altitude, will intercept the glidepath.

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38
Q

Locator Outer Marker

A

Outer marker coupled with a compass locator.

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39
Q

Compass Locator

A

A low-powered NDB.

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40
Q

What is the 3 digit number to the right of a NAVAID identifier?

A

DME channel.

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41
Q

Max Holding Speeds

A

<6000: 200kts
6001’-14,000’: 230kts
>14,001: 260kts

42
Q

Max Speed on Helicopter SIAPs

A

90kias

43
Q

5 Hazardous Attitudes

A
  • Anti-Authority
  • Impulsivity
  • Invulnerability
  • Macho
  • Resignation
44
Q

Airborn Light Gun Signals

A

Stdy Grn: Cleared to Land
Flsh Grn: Rtrn for landing, wait for stdy grn before landing.
Stdy Red: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Flsh Red: Airport Unsafe, do not land.
Alt Red/Grn: Exercise extreme Caution

45
Q

Ground Light Gun Signals

A 
Stdy Grn: Cleared for departure
Flsh Grn: Cleared for taxi
Stdy Red: Stop
Flsh Red: Taxi clear of runway in use.
Flsh White: Rtrn to starting point at airport
Flsh Red/Grn: Exercise extreme caution
46
Q

The Leans

A

An abrupt correction of a banked attitude, which has been entered too slowly to stimulate the motion sensing system in the inner ear, can create the illusion of banking in the opposite direction. The disoriented pilot will roll the aircraft back into its original dangerous attitude, or if level flight is maintained, will feel compelled to lean in the perceived vertical plane until this illusion subsides.

47
Q

Coriolis Illusion

A

An abrupt head movement in a prolonged constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis. The disoriented pilot will maneuver the aircraft into a dangerous attitude in an attempt to stop rotation. This most overwhelming of all illusions in flight may be prevented by not making sudden, extreme head movements, particularly while making prolonged constant-rate turns under IFR conditions.

48
Q

Graveyard Spin

A

A proper recovery from a spin that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of spinning in the opposite direction. The disoriented pilot will return the aircraft to its original spin.

49
Q

Graveyard Spiral

A

An observed loss of altitude during a coordinated constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system can create the illusion of being in a descent with the wings level. The disoriented pilot will pull back on the controls, tightening the spiral and increasing the loss of altitude.

50
Q

Somatogravic Illusion

A

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of being in a nose up attitude. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low, or dive attitude. A rapid deceleration by a quick reduction of the throttles can have the opposite effect, with the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up, or stall attitude.
Inversion illusion. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level

51
Q

Inversion Illusion

A

An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of tumbling backwards. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft abruptly into a nose low attitude, possibly intensifying this illusion.

52
Q

Elevator Illusion

A

An abrupt upward vertical acceleration, usually by an updraft, can create the illusion of being in a climb. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low attitude. An abrupt downward vertical acceleration, usually by a downdraft, has the opposite effect, with the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up attitude.

53
Q

Elevator Illusion

A

An abrupt upward vertical acceleration, usually by an updraft, can create the illusion of being in a climb. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low attitude. An abrupt downward vertical acceleration, usually by a downdraft, has the opposite effect, with the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up attitude.

54
Q

False Horizon

A

Sloping cloud formations, an obscured horizon, a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars, and certain geometric patterns of ground light can create illusions of not being aligned correctly with the actual horizon. The disoriented pilot will place the aircraft in a dangerous attitude.

55
Q

Autokinesis

A

In the dark, a static light will appear to move about when stared at for many seconds. The disoriented pilot will lose control of the aircraft in attempting to align it with the light

56
Q

GPS equipment used while operating under IFR must:

A
  • meet the standards set forth in Technical Standard Order (TSO) C-129 (or equivalent);
  • meet the airworthiness installation requirements;
  • be “approved” for the required type of IFR operation;
  • be operated in accordance with the applicable POH/AFM or flight manual supplement.
  • Have an updatable and up-to-date database for the required operations.
57
Q

Weather requirements at an alternate airport

A

Ceiling: 200’ above approach min
Visibiilty: 1sm, but not less than approach min

58
Q

Critera for International SIGMET

A
  • Thunderstorms occuring in lines, embedded in clouds, or in large areas producing tornadoes or large hail.
  • Tropical Cyclones
  • Severe Icing
  • Severe or extreme turbulence
  • Dust storms and sandstorms lowering visibilities to less than 3 miles
  • Volcanic Ash
59
Q

Fundamental Skills of Instrument Flying

A

1) Cross Check
2) Interpretation
3) Aircraft Control

60
Q

If ILS Outer Marker is inop, what can be substituted?

A

Other fixed authorized in the IAP.

  • Compass Locator
  • Precision Radar
  • DME
  • VOR
  • NDB
  • Surveillance Radar
61
Q

When to go missed

A

Fucking Go Missed If Shitty Runway Conditions

F - Full Deflection
G - Gyro Failure
M - MAP reached w/out runway environment
I - If ATC tells you
S - Safe approach cannot be made
R - RAIM failure
C - Circling to land and lose sight of airport environment
62
Q

Protected area radius for circling to land is

A

Category A: 1.3NM

63
Q

Personal Documents Required for flight

A
  • Pilot Certificate
  • Medical Certificate
  • Photo ID
  • Radio License (for flight outside of US)
64
Q

Aircraft Maintenance Inspections for IFR

A 
A - Annual (12mo)
V - VOR (30 days)
I - 100hr Inspection
A - Altimeter (24mo)
T - Transponder (24mo)
E - ELT (12mo)
65
Q

Preflight info required for IFR

A 
W - Weather Reports &amp; Forecasts
K - Known traffic delays as advised by ATC
R - Runway length of intended use
A - Alternate
F - Fuel Requirements
T - Takeoff &amp; Landing Performance
66
Q

AVIATE

A

Aircraft Maintenance Inspections for IFR

A - Annual (12mo)
V - VOR (30 days)
I - 100hr Inspection
A - Altimeter (24mo)
T - Transponder (24mo)
E - ELT (12mo)
67
Q

WKRAFT

A

Preflight info Required for IFR

W - Weather Reports &amp; Forecasts
K - Known traffic delays as advised by ATC
R - Runway length of intended use
A - Alternate
F - Fuel Requirements
T - Takeoff &amp; Landing Performance
68
Q

Risk Management & Personal Minimums

A

PAVE

69
Q

PAVE

A

Risk Management & Personal Minimums

P - Pilot (general health, physical/mental/emotional state, proficiency, currency)
A - Aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance)
V - enVironment (wix, terrain, runways/airports)
E - External Pressure (meetings, people, etc)

70
Q

What time can be logged as instrument

A

Only that which the aircraft was soley by reference to instruments (actual or simulated)

71
Q

Instrument PIC Recency Experience

A

Last 6 calendar months (6 HITS):

  • 6 Instrument approaches
  • Holding procedures & tasks
  • Intercept & Track courses through use of electronic nav Systems
72
Q

6 HITS

A

Instrument PIC recency experience:

6 - Instrument Approaches
H - Holding procedures &amp; tasks
I - Intercept &amp;
T - Track courses through use of electronic navigation
S - Systems
73
Q

To carry Px as PIC

A

3 takeoffs & landings w/in last 90 days

74
Q

To act as PIC

A

Flight review in last 24 cal months (BFR)

-

75
Q

How to file flight plan

A
  • FSS: in person, radio, phone
  • DUATS: Online
    ATC: through radio/phone
76
Q

How long are IFR flight plans stored?

A

90mins from proposed departure time

77
Q

How to cancel IFR Flight Plan

A
  • Towered Airports: Automatically cancelled by ATC upon landing
  • Non-Towered: Contact ATC/FSS after landing
  • Can cancel any time if in VMC and outside Class A
78
Q

Where are preferred IFR routes published?

A

A/FD section of Chart Suppliments

79
Q

Describe ODP

A

Obstacle Departure Procedures

  • Only provide obstruction clearance
  • May be flown without ATC clearance, unless SID or instructions are assigned
  • Graphic ODP denote “obstacle” in the chart title
  • All new RNAV ODPs are available in graphical form
  • Found in the front of NACO chart booklets, arranged alphabetically by city name.
  • Jeppesen charts show ODPS under airport diagram, or on separate chart at larger airports
80
Q

Describe SID

A

Standard Instrument Departures

  • Provide obstruction clearance and helps reducing radio congestion and workload by simplifying ATC clearances
  • Pilot NAV SIDS - Pilot navigates by charted routes with minimal radio instructions
  • Vector SIDs - Nav is based on radar vectors. Routes no printed on chart
  • Some SIDs depict non-standard radio failure procedures
  • File “NO SIDs” in the remarks of your flight plan if you don’t want them
  • RNAV SIDs and all graphical RNAV ODPs require RNAV 1 performance (+/-1NM for 95% of total flight time)
81
Q

Describe STAR

A

Standard Terminal Arrivals

  • Serve as transions from en route structure toa point from which an approach can begin.
  • Transitions routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR procedure
  • Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins
  • File “No STARs” if you don’t want to use them
  • RNAV STARs require RNAV 1 performance
82
Q

CVT

A

Clearance Void Time

  • Time at which clearance is void, after which you may not depart.
  • Must notify ATC within 30 mins after CVT if you did not depart.
83
Q

Hold for Release

A

You may not depart until released for IFR departure

84
Q

Release Time

A

Earliest Time Aircraft may depart under IFR

85
Q

EDCT

A

Expected Departure Clearance Time
- A runway release time given under traffic mgmt programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later then 5 mins after EDCT

86
Q

Mandatory Reports under IFR

A

MARVELOUS VFR C500

87
Q

MARVELOUS VFR C500

A

M - Missed Approach
A - Airspeed +/-10kts/5% of filed TAS
R - Reaching a holding fix
V - VFR on Top
E - ETA change +/-3mins (only when not in radar environment)
L - Leaving a holding fix/point
O - Outer Marker (only when not in radar environment)
U - Unforcasted weather
S - Safety of Flight
V - Vacating an altitude/FL
F - Final approach fix (only when not in radar environment)
R - Radio/Nav Failure
C - Compulsory reporting points (when not in radar environment)
500 - Unable to climb/descend 500fpm

88
Q

Position Report Items

A
  • Aircraft ID
  • Position
  • Time
  • Altitude
  • Type of flight plan
  • ETA
  • Name next succeeding reporting point along route
  • Any pertinent remarks
89
Q

Lost coms procedures in IFR

A 
Altitude (Highest of):
  - Minimum alt prescribed for IFR
  - Expected altitude
  - Assigned by ATC last
Route:
  - Assigned route
  - Vectored (fix/route/airway last vectored towards)
  - Expected route by ATC
  - Filed route
90
Q

Precision Approaches

A

Lateral & Vertical Guidance

  • ILS: Instrument Landing System
  • MLS: Microwave Landing System
  • PAR: Precision Approach Radar
  • GLS: GNSS Landing System
  • TLS: Transponder Landing System
91
Q

Non-Precision Approaches

A

Lateral Guidance Only

  • VOR
  • NDB
  • RNAV/GNSS(LNAV mins)
  • LOC
  • LDA: Localizer-type Directional Aid. Not aligned w/ runway
  • SDF: Simplified Directional Facility: 6deg or 12deg wide.
  • ASR: Approach Surveillance
92
Q

CAMAFOOTS

A

VFR Required Equipment

C - Compass
A - Airspeed Indiciator
M - Manifold Pressure
A - Altimeter
F - Fuel Gauge
O - Oil Temp
O - Oil Pressure
T - Tachs
S - Seatbelts
93
Q

GRABCARD

A

IFR Required Instruments (+VFR)

G - Generator/Alternator
R - Rate of turn/Turn coordinator
A - Sensitive Altimeter
B - Ball /Slid-Skid Indicator
C - Clock w/ seconds
A - Attitude Indicator
R - Radios (for nav)
D - Directional Gyro
94
Q

VOR Check Signoff Requires

A

DEPS

D - Date
E - Error
P - Place
S - Signature

95
Q

VOR Receiver Checks

A

VOT: +/-4
VOR Ground Checkpoint: +/-4
VOR Air Checkpoint: +/-6
Dual VOR: +/-4

96
Q

Low VOR Area

A

1000’-18,000’: 40nm

97
Q

High VOR Area

A

1000’-14,500’: 40nm
14,501’-18,000’: 100m
18,001’-45,000’: 130nm
45,001’-60,000’: 100nm

98
Q

Terminal VOR Area

A

1000’-12,000’: 25nm

99
Q

Distance off course from VOR

A

200’/dot/NM from VOR

100
Q

Slant range error negligible at

A

1NM from DME per every 1000’

Helicopters (9 decks)

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