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IFR > Instrument Approaches > Flashcards

Instrument Approaches Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of approaches?

A

precision, non-precision, and approach with vertical guidance

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2
Q

What are some examples of an approach with vertical guidance.

A

lnav/vnav, lpv, lda w/ glide slope

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3
Q

What is an approach clearance>

A

authorization to descend to the mda or da while following the approach procedure

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4
Q

In order to descend below the da or mda, what three things must be present?

A

You must have the required flight visibilty, have the runway environment in sight, and be in a position where a descent to landing can be made with a normal rate and normal manuevers

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5
Q

Letters at the end of an approach starting with the top of the alphabet signify what?

A

That the inbound course is more than 30 degrees from the runway centerline (not aligned with the runway) starts with A, then works down the alphabet for more than one approach that isn’t aligned

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6
Q

Letters at the end of an approach starting with the bottom of the alphabet signify what?

A

There are two of the same approaches to a runway. They start with Z and work there way backwards

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7
Q

T/F Everything inside the solid line circle is to scale and stuff outside is not to scale?

A

True

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8
Q

All navaids used in the approach are shown in what view?

A

Plan View, with the exception being the marker beacons which transmit on 75mgHz and will only be heard almost directly above them

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9
Q

Approach charts show terrain using color contours and large bodies of water using ink blots in the plan view

A

Treu

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10
Q

What four instances will you not need to make a course reversal?

A
  1. NoPT (on chart)
  2. Procedure Turn NA (on chart)
  3. Radar vectors to final
  4. Timed approach from hold
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11
Q

What view will you see that a procedure turn is not authorized?

A

Profile View

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12
Q

When is atc clearance required to make a procedure turn?

A
  1. during radar vectors

2. when cleared for timed approach from a holding fix

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13
Q

What are CNFs?

A

Computer navigation fix, can be entered as GPS waypoint, shown as a “x” on the chart, and in parantheses

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14
Q

Minimum safe altitudes show altitude with a 1,000 foot obstacle clearance with up to four sectors and either 25 nm or 30nm from the primary navaid, but don’t gaurentee what>

A

navaid reception

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15
Q

An altitude with a bar above and below is means it is…

A

a maximum altitude

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16
Q

An altitude without any bar above or below it signifies what?

A

it is a recommended altitude

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17
Q

Do plan view altitudes have bars?

A

no

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18
Q

What is the symbol for the final approach fix on non-precision approaches?

A

titled maltese cross

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19
Q

The ILS is divided in three parts

A

Guidance (localizer and glideslope), range (outer middle markers / dme), visual information (approach lights)

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20
Q

Where is the localizer transmitting antennea?

A

1,000 feet beyond the departure end of the runway

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21
Q

The localizer transmits on how many frequencies, and what is the range?

A

40 frequencies between 108.1 to 111.95, exclusive for localizers

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22
Q

On a localizer frequency, the three letter morse identifier is preceded by what letter?

A

“i”

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23
Q

A typical VOR has a scale of 20 degrees for a full scale right or left deflection (10 degrees deflection, five dots)

A

true

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24
Q

A localizer is how many time more precise than a VOR?

A

4 times

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25
Q

A localizer varies between how many degrees, and why?

A

It varies between 3 and 6 degrees due to the fact that signal must be 700 feet wide at the approach end of the runway. Therefore longer runways require a smaller degree and shorter runways require the opposite.

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26
Q

A full scale deflection at the end of the runway is how many feet from the runway centerline?

A

350 feet

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27
Q

What are the close relatives of the localizer?

A

The LDA (localizer directional aid) and the SDF (simplied directional facility)

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28
Q

What is the difference between an LDA and a localizer?

A

A LDA is an honest to goodness localizer, except the signal is more than 3 degrees from the runway centerline

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29
Q

Do some LDA’s have glideslopes?

A

Yes, but most don’t

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30
Q

What are the difference of SDF’s and Localizers?

A

The SDF uses localizer frequencies but it doesn’t have the letter “I” preceding the mrose identifier, SDF’s are also either 6 or 12 degrees wide, but the exact width can’t be determined by the pilot. Glideslopes aren’t installed on SDF’s and the centerline may be at an angle to the runway

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31
Q

Localizers modulate an a 90Hz and 150Hz frequency, when the airplane is on the centerline, the receiver picks up an equal strength of both frequency. What side is the 150 Hz on?

A

The 150 hz is on the right side of the approach course and is the shaeded side on a approach chart

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32
Q

Can you center the CDI by turning the OBS?

A

No

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33
Q

.6 Nm from the runway threshhold, how wide is the localizer, and what does one dot represent?

A

It is 1000 feet wide, and one dot represents 100 feet

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34
Q

5Nm from the runway threshold, how wide is the localizer, and what does one dot represent?

A

3,400, and each dot is 340 feet

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35
Q

Outside the outermarker, how many degrees of heading change should you use?

A

5 degrees or less

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36
Q

After you pass the outer marker how large should heading changes be>

A

2 degrees at a time, which can be controlled by the rudder

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37
Q

What is the purpose of a marker beacon>

A

to provide distance information

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38
Q

The elipse shaped signal from a marker beacon is how many feet wide and thick 1000 feet agl?

A

4800 feet wide and 2400 feet thick

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39
Q

What frequency do marker beacons transmit on? and what seeting should the sensitivity be set on when flying an approach>

A

All mb’s transmit on 75 MHz and the sensitivity should be set to low

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40
Q

How far are outer markers from the approach end of the runway>

A

between 4 and 7 miles

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41
Q

When you pass the outer maker what will you hear/see?

A

You will hear dashes at a low tone at the rate of two per second, the “o” will illuminate as a blue color, and brighten and dim

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42
Q

How far are middle markers situated from the approach end of the runway>

A

About 3500 feet from the approach end of the runway, and the centerline is about 200 feet above the touchdown portion of the runway which is the standard decision height.

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43
Q

How are middle markers identified?

A

They have alternating dots and dashes at a rate of 95 per minute, while illuminating the “m” with a amber light and a higher pitch tone.

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44
Q

How are ILS’s categorized, and what are the standard categories?

A 
They are categorized based on the decision height and required flight visibility.
Category I
DH 200 ft. and 1/2 mile (canbe reduced to 1,800 RVR if TDZL/CL)
Category II
DH 100 ft. and 1,200 RVR
Category III
a   DH 699 RVR
b   DH
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45
Q

TDZL are imbedded in how many feet of the runway>

A

The first 3,000 feet

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46
Q

What is RVR?

A

It is machine measured horizontal visibility near the approach end of the runway

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47
Q

What ILS approaches require specific crew training and equipment? These also require an inner marker.

A

Cat II and Cat III approaches

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48
Q

If you have a back course marker, it will be on a localizer back course approach and will be determined by what?

A

6 dots per second and a flashing white light over the “a”

49
Q

What are fanmarkers, why are they used, and how can they be idnetified?

A

They are used to establish a fix not part of a LOC or ILS approach, they can be identified by the flashing white light, 6 dots per second, and a morse indentifier of the letter “r”. It will be shown in the profile view of the approach and if identified will allow lower minimums

50
Q

How far away can compass locators be picked up?

A

15 miles

51
Q

How are compass locators distinguished?

A

They will only have a two letter morse code identifier, which is the first and second letter of the ILS morse identifier

52
Q

Are middle compass locators a thing?

A

They are more rare, but yes, they are a thing and will be indified by a two letter morse identifier that is the second and last letter of the ILS morse identifier

53
Q

Where is the glideslope anntenea usually placed?

A

1,000 feet down the approach end of the runway, but can be varied to provide a TCH of approximately 55 feet

54
Q

How many degrees is the lowest false glideslope?

A

more than 10 degrees to the horizontal

55
Q

How many degrees wide is the glideslope signal?

A

1.4 total, .7 above and .7 below

56
Q

What is the definition of the glidepath?

A

The portion of the glideslope that intersects the localizer

57
Q

On a typical glide slope, how high is the centerline of the glideslope at the outer marker?

A

1800 feet

58
Q

Full scale above to full scale below at the outer marker translates to how many feet on the glideslope?

A

800 feet, 400 above and 400 below

59
Q

Full scale above to full scale below at the middle marker translates to how many feet on the glideslope?

A

100 feet, 50 feet above and below

60
Q

How do you approximate the descent rate required to stay on the glidepath?

A

groundspeed/2 x 10

61
Q

When should you use pitch or power to maintain glidepath?

A

when you are off by 1/2 scale deflection or less, use pitch only to stay on glidepath, use power otherwise (1/2 in MP)

62
Q

On a precision approach, what determines the glideslope intercept and also the FAF?

A

The altitude and point of the lightening bolt

63
Q

What is the RVR of 1/4 SM and 1/2 SM

A

1,600 feet and 2,400 feet respectively

64
Q

What are approaches with vertical guidance?

A

Approaches that don’t meet precision approach standards, has a glideslope, and has higher minimums than ILS

65
Q

What type of approach is Baro-VNAV?

A

It is an approach with vertical guidance, and it uses a flight management system to provide vertical guidance based on air pressure, not allowed without the local altimeter setting or during super cold temperatures

66
Q

LDA’s with glideslop are also called what?

A

APV approaches and are non precision approaches with vertical guidance

67
Q

What do the asterick and cross symbol mean when shown on the profile view?

A

That ATC can amend the mandatory altitude if necessary

68
Q

If you participated in a timed approach from a holding fix, your missed approach can’t involve flying back on the approach course if there is an alternate missed aproach procedure.

A

true

69
Q

If you are doing a timed approach from a holding fix and there is only one missed approach procedure, what must the visbility and ceiling be>

A

The visibility and ceiling must be at least equal the highest circling requirements.

70
Q

If you want a close turn when being radar vectored, what must you request?

A

A turn at the final approach fix

71
Q

Most GPS units will only catch a glideslop from above or below>

A

below

72
Q

What are the five T’s?

A

time, turn, twist, throttle, talk

73
Q

When close on a VOR approach, what is the maximum heading cahnge you should make?

A

10 degrees

74
Q

At what deflection should you start correcting for a deviation on a vor approach>

A

one dot deflection

75
Q

When flying a procedure turn, is the second turn always opposite of the first turn?

A

yes

76
Q

how long do you track outbound before making the procedure turn?

A

1 minute at the intial approach fix or two minutes if it is a terminal approach

77
Q

What is the speed limit while conducting a procedure turn?

A

200 KIAS

78
Q

Do all missed approaches end up in a hold?

A

yes

79
Q

For a hold that is not charted what information will the controller give you?

A 
direction of hold (n, ne, e, se,)
holding fix
bearing or airway
leg length
turning direction if not standard
EFC time
80
Q

What can the holding fix be?

A

a navaid, intersection, waypoint or DME distacne

81
Q

How many minutes away can you start slowing to holding speed?

A

3 minutes

82
Q

What are the maximum holding speeds?

A

up to 6000 feet = 200 kias
6000 - 14000 = 230 kias
above 14000 = 265 kias

83
Q

Do some holding patterns have speed limits charted?

A

yes, they are located inside and end with a “k”

84
Q

What is the standard holding pattern leg lengths?

A

1 minute leg up to and includign 14000, 1.5 minutes above 14,000 feet

85
Q

If you are holding at a VOR, when do you start your outbound turn?

A

At the first complete reversal of the to/from indicator

86
Q

When do you start timing?

A

whenever your aircraft is abeam the fix

87
Q

If you can’t determin when you are abeam the fix, when do you start your outbound time?

A

When your outbound turn is completed

88
Q

How steep should turns be made in a holding pattern?

A

All turns should be standard rate, but not more than 30 degrees or 25 degrees if you are using a flight director

89
Q

What is the rule of thumb when dealing with wind correction in a holding pattern?

A

On the outbound leg, you should triple the wind correction needed to maintain the inbound leg.

90
Q

What is the rule of thumb to change your inbound time closer to the required 1 minute leg?

A

lengthen or shorten the outbound leg by an amount of twice the deviation from the inbound leg

91
Q

For an approach to be considered “straight-in”, what is the maximum amount of degrees it can be from the runway centerline?

A

it has to be within 30 degrees from the runway centerline or 15 degrees for GPS approaches

92
Q

does the pilot need to maintain visual contact with the airport during a circling approach?

A

YES

93
Q

When must you make a missed approach while doing a circling approach?

A

when the airport is no longer insight due to a reason other than the pilot doing a normal bank

94
Q

When on a circling approach, how are you expected to manuaver to the inteded runway of landing?

A

The shortest path to the base or downwind leg

95
Q

Can you fly over the airport and other runways when flying a circling appproach?

A

yes

96
Q

How do you initial start your missed approach procedure on a circlnig approach?

A

a climbing turn towards the direction of the runway until established on the missed approach course

97
Q

How can you tell where a VDP is on an approach chart?

A

approach charts show the VDP as a V (arrow) on the profile view, these are not required

98
Q

What is the purpose of a VDP?

A

It provides an imaginary point where the pilot know he can make a standard 3 degree descent to the runway at a normal rate and with obstacle clearance, especially important at night.

99
Q

When there is a VDP, can you descend below MDA before this point even if you have your requirements to do so?

A

A descent below MDA should not be made until past the VDP

100
Q

How do you come up with your own VDP?

A

You divide the DA in agl by 300. This will give you the VDP from the end of the runway

101
Q

DME arcs are used to position an airplane on the final approach course, are they ever the final approach course?

A

Yes, in rare cases

102
Q

What is the distance a DME arc can be?

A

not less than 7 miles, and up to 30 or more miles

103
Q

What is the obstacle clearance on a dme arc?

A

1,000 feet within 4 miles either side of arc

104
Q

How soon should you lead your turn into a DME arc, and what heading do you turn to?

A

You lead the turn by .5 mile if your speed is below 150 knots, and turn to a heading that was on the 90 degree heading indicator

105
Q

Every 10 degrees on a dme arc, turn how many degrees?

A

10 degrees, unless you are less than the distance of the dme arc, then turn less than 10 degrees, the opositie if you are more than the dme distacne

106
Q

The GPS and WAAS are part of what larger system?

A

GNASS global navigation satellite system

107
Q

What are the GPS screens commonly called?

A

GPS navigators

108
Q

If your sole source of navigation is by GPS, does it need to be WAAS capable?

A

Yes

109
Q

Is GPS a form of RNAV?

A

Yes, it acts as a RNAV system (random area navigation) which provides long direct flights

110
Q

Basic GPS uses a network of satellites to triangulate your position anywhere on earth, how many satellites are needed?

A

4 are needed in order to provide vertical navigation as well as horizontal

111
Q

How many satellites are in view at all times?

A

no matter where you are on earth, you will be in view of at least 5 satelllites

112
Q

What is waas?

A

It stands for Wide Area Augmentation System, It uses two additional geostationary satellites to improve the accuracy of your triangulated position. It can transmit a correction signal to your gps navigator. A network of stations (receivers) on the ground continuously monitor gps accuracy sending it to master ground stations which sends it to the geostationary satellites and those send the correction

113
Q

What is an OROCA?

A

off route obstruction clearance altitude, and provides 1000 obstacle clearance in non mountenous and 2000 in mountenous

114
Q

Does OROCA gaurentee radar coverage or communication?

A

no

115
Q

If the GPS is a non-waas gps, what is required at the alternate?

A

The alternate must have an approach not involving the GPS, and the airplane must be capable of flying this approach without the GPS

116
Q

When is a current GPS database required?

A

When using the GPS for en route and terminal use, the database doesn’t need to be current, but you need to verify that the waypoints used are accurate. Your database must be current if the GPS is used for instrument approaches.

117
Q

Can you fly a GPS instrument approach when the RAIM doesn’t ensure the aircraft will be within the proected limit

A

no

118
Q

how many satellites does RAIM require?

A

minimum of five gps satellites in view, or four GPS satellites in view with barometric altimeter input, or if the gps is waas equipped, four GPS satellites and one WAAS geostationery satellite

119
Q

What is an APV approach?

A

Either a LNAV/VNAV or LPV approach that has a DA, but doesn’t meet the ICAO standards for a precision approach

IFR (7 decks)

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