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IFR > Air Traffic Control and IFR > Flashcards

Air Traffic Control and IFR Flashcards

1
Q

TRACON is the contraction for what?

A

Terminal Radar Approach Control

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2
Q

Who has the sole responsibility to see and avoid other aircraft, terrain, and obstructions while in VMC?

A

The pilot in command

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3
Q

“Heavy” Aircraft are defined as airplanes with a certificated maximum takeoff weight of what

A

more than 41,000 lbs

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4
Q

How much vertical separation do you have with other airplanes up to FL290?

A

1,000 ft.

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5
Q

To fly (cruise) between FL 290 and FL 410 you must have what?

A

Reduced vertical separation minimum authorization (RVSM)

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6
Q

Above FL410 what vertical separation do you have with other traffic?

A

2,000 ft.

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7
Q

If you don’t have RVSM, where can you cruise?

A

Below FL290 and above FL410

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8
Q

When are position reports necessary?

A

When not in radar contact

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9
Q

What does a position report entail?

A
  1. identification
  2. position
  3. time over reporting point
  4. Altitude or FL
  5. Type of flight plan (only if report is to a FSS)
  6. ETA & name of next reporting point
  7. Name or reporting point after next
  8. pertinent remarks
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10
Q

Compulsory reporting points are shown by what?

A

a solid triangle or if the route is not on an established air route, then any fix that defines the route

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11
Q

When weather is less than vfr, when must you file and obtain a clearance?

A

prior to entering controlled airspace

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12
Q

What is ATC purpose?

A

To provide separation for airplanes in controlled airspace while flying IFR

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13
Q

What are the different Air Traffic Services Routes (ATS Routes) (“Airways”)?

A
  1. victor airways
  2. jet routes
  3. Q/T routes
  4. colored airways
  5. Arrival / departure routes
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14
Q

Victor airways go from what altitude to what altitude?

A

1,200 AGL to 17,999 MSL

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15
Q

Jet routes go from what altitude to what altitude?

A

18,000 MSL to FL 450

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16
Q

T/F Aircraft above FL450 fly point to point or direct navigation.

A

True

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17
Q

T/F T routes are low altitude RNAV routes, and Q routes are high altitude RNAV routes.

A

True

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18
Q

Colored airways are what?

A

low - medium frequency airways that are still used in alaska and coastal california. They are brown in color and are distinguished by (R)ed (G)reed (A)mber and (B)lue and a number

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19
Q

What are the different VOR classifications?

A

Terminal, Low, and High

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20
Q

Low VOR’s have a reception how far away?

A

from 1,000 AGL to 18000 MSL you can get reception up to 40 miles away

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21
Q

High VOR’s have a reception how far away?

A

same reception of L VOR’s below 14500 MSL. From 14500 msl to 17999 msl it extends to 100 NM. Above 18000 MSL to 450000 MSL it has a range of 130 NM

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22
Q

What is happening when you receive a verbal squeeling and the CDI is swaying back and forth?

A

You are in range of two VOR’s with the same frequency

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23
Q

T/F Terminal VOR’s are signified by a small (T) in the name and are on an airport surface usually used for an approach

A

True

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24
Q

What is the range of a terminal VOR?

A

1,000 AGL to 12,000 AGL with a range of 25 NM (not used for airways)

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25
Q

FSS can be reached on 122.2 above what altitude?

A

5,000 agl

26
Q

Flight Watch can be contacted 122.0 above what altitude?

A

5,000 agl

27
Q

What services do flight watch provide?

A

weather pertinent to your route of flight and pireps

28
Q

Sometimes you can simultaneously receive two VOR’s with the same frequency, what are some indications?

A

An oral squeal and oscillation of the indicators

29
Q

MEA guarantee and don’t guarantee what?

A

guarantee: navigation signal strength, and obstacle clearance
don’t guarantee: radar coverage and communication

30
Q

MOCA guarantee and don’t guarantee what?

A

guarantee: navigation signal strength within 22 NM of navaid, and obstacle clearance
don’t guarantee: radar coverage and communication

31
Q

T/F it is sometimes difficult to get a clearance at the MOCA or MEA

A

True, because those altitude don’t ensure radar and communication

32
Q

TRACON’s (terminal approach control) handles communication in what dimensions?

A

30 miles from the primary airport and up to 10,000 to 12,000 feet agl, but soe can handle larger areas (laterally)

33
Q

Air Route Traffic Control Centers are divided into a high altitude sector and a low altitude one, what is the altitude cut off?

A

FL230

34
Q

When changing altitude, at what rate should you do that?

A

You should climb or descend at the optimum rate consistent with airplane characteristics until within 1,000 feet from the new altitude, then maintain 500 - 1500 fpm

35
Q

When your maximum climb or descent rate is below 500 fpm you must notify atc of the new climb rate

A

yes

36
Q

When must you notify atc when your tas differs from that filed in your flight plan

A

greater of +/- 5% or 10 knots

37
Q

When any communication, navigational or approach equipment becomes inoperative, you must notify ATC, what else must you tell them?

A

The degree of the impairment and the nature of assistance required from ATC (e.g. no gyro approach, vectors, etc.)

38
Q

T/F when flying direct legs between fixes, radar coverage is required which may result in you having a higher cruising altitude

A

True

39
Q

When filing a flight plan, go to a navaid close to the airport, or one used in a STAR or approach

A

Yes

40
Q

By how many miles should you avoid active restricted and prohibited as?

A

3 nm

41
Q

T/F On high altitude Military operating areas aren’t depicted, but there are vertical extensions that may require you to deviate when flying direct legs

A

True

42
Q

How wide are VOR airspace?

A

4 NM of centerline

43
Q

What is the obstacle clearance given on an airway?

A

1,000 in non mountainous areas and 2,000 in mountainous terrain

44
Q

T/F VOR indicators show angular deviation from a course?

A

True ( a full scale, five dot, deviation indicates 10 degrees off course)

45
Q

60 miles from the VOR, one degree of deviation indicates how many miles from the centerline?

A

1 mile

46
Q

30 miles from the VOR, one degree of deviation indicates how many miles from the centerline?

A

1/2 mile

47
Q

GPS CDI indicates linear, not angular deviation

A

True

48
Q

what are the purposes of SID’s

A

standardize traffic flow, ensure aircraft separation, and provide obstacle clearnace to the en route environment

49
Q

Can you fly a SID without an ATC clearacne to do so?

A

no

50
Q

Are ODP’s textual or graphic?

A

They can be either. A graphic ODP will have the word “obstacle” in paranthesis

51
Q

When should you fly an ODP?

A

An atc clearance in not required, and if one is established at the departure airport, fly it whenever in weather other than basic VFR.

52
Q

Do takeoff minimums apply to part 91?

A

They don’t apply unless it is for hire

53
Q

What are standard takeoff minimums for hire?

A

1SM visibility for airplanes with one or two engines, and 1/2SM visiblity for airplanes with 3 or more engines

54
Q

What is standard IFR Climb Procedure?

A

Clearance is predicated on a climb of at least 200 feet/NM and a climb to 400’ AGL before turning

55
Q

What is the expected descent rate?

A

250 - 350 feet per NM

56
Q

What is a visual approach and when can it be approved?

A

It is strictly a visual descent and landing and will be given only when you see the airport and the preceding traffic (no prescribed missed approach)

57
Q

What are the requirements of a “contact approach”

A

It must be initiated by the pilot and approved by atc, clear of clouds, 1 mile visibilty reported, airport has an approved IAP, and the pilot is responsible for obstruction clearance

58
Q

Altitude Facts:

A

Never leave an assigned cruising altitude unless on a published route, never descend below published minimum altitudes, follow approach minimums, don’t leave da or mda until runway environment is in sight

59
Q

On a no-gyro approach, what rate should your turns be?

A

Standard rate up to final approach fix, then half standard rate

60
Q

Use full call sign when?

A

On initial contact or when an airplane has a similar call sign. It can be shortened to last three digits or registration.

IFR (7 decks)

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