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IFR > Advanced IFR > Flashcards

Advanced IFR Flashcards

1
Q

What is the approximate rule of thumb about 3 degree glideslope and agl per mile?

A

you should be 300 feet agl at the one mile point, unless the distance measures to the end of the runway, then you should be 350’

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2
Q

What does manifold pressure show?

A

The power output of the engine, and it measures the fuel/air mixture immediately before it enters the cylinders

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3
Q

What is an indication of detonation?

A

Low EGT with high CHT

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4
Q

What can be ued to maintain CHT in the normal operating range?

A
  1. mixture
  2. cowl flaps
  3. pitch attitude
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5
Q

When looking at the oil, what are indications of problems in the cylinders?

A

If the oil is excessively black, or if it smells burnt.

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6
Q

If an engine uses more than a quart of oil for every three hours you have to do something about it

A

true

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7
Q

Can normally aspirated engines exceed atmospheric pressure?

A

no

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8
Q

Do normally aspirated engines decrease in power with an increase in altitude?

A

yes

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9
Q

In a normally aspirated engine, how much manifold pressure is lost for every increase in 1000 feet in altitude?

A

1 “

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10
Q

What is critical altitude?

A

The altitude at which a turbocharged or supercharged engine can maintain maximum continuous power or maximum continuous allowable manifold pressure

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11
Q

What is an altitude turbocharged engine “turbo-normalized engine”?

A

It maintains sea level power at higher altitudes, this is seen when a turbocharger is added to a stock engine under a supplemental type certificate

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12
Q

Why does a turbocharger increase the risk of detonation and preignition?

A

The operating temperature of the air is higher because of the compressor.

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13
Q

What is an intercooler with regards to turbochargers?

A

An intercooler cools compressed air before entering the engine attempting to reduce wear.

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14
Q

Since an intercooler reduces the temperature of the intake air, power setting need to be adjusted when it isn’t manufactured with the airplane. What is the general rule when doing this?

A

Subtract 1” manifold pressure for each 15 celsius drop in intake air temperature

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15
Q

What is a ground boosted engine?

A

A turbocharger increases manifold pressure above sea level pressure

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16
Q

What is overboosting, and what should be done about it?

A

If the engine is ground boosted, overboosting occurs when the manifold pressure exceeds the rated maximum pressure. Most engines have some kind of relief system, however on cold days or rapid changes of mp, you may still overboost. Monitor the MP guage.

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17
Q

What is the turbocharger wastegate?

A

The wastegate regulates the amount of exhaust gas that bypasses the turbine of a turbocharger.

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18
Q

EFAS is available up to what altitude?

A

En Route Flight Advisory Service is only guaranteed available on 122.0 up to 17,500 MSL

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19
Q

Will the lowest usable flight level increase or decrease when the local altimeter setting falls below 29.92?

A

It will increase

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20
Q

At what altitude is a DME required?

A

At and above 24,000 MSL, but an approved GPS can be substituted for a DME

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21
Q

What is the first sign of a wind shear inside the cockpit?

A

A sudden increase or decrease in indicated airspeed

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22
Q

If, on the final approach course, you go from a headwind to a tailwind, what will be the result?

A

You will lose indicated airspeed and go below the glideslope if insufficient power is added. After you add the power however, you must reduce it again when back on the glideslope

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23
Q

What effects would a tailwind have while on final approach?

A
  1. Higher groundspeed
  2. Higher rate of descent
  3. Lower power setting
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24
Q

Low level wind shear can occur how many hours after the cold front passes the airport?

A

3 hours

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25
Q

Low level wind shear is greater when a warm front passes and can occur a little before passage and how many hours after passage?

A

6 hours, the more critical period is before the warm front passes however

26
Q

What are some indications of low level wind shear due to frontal passage?

A
  1. Fronts moving faster than 30 knots

2. Temperature difference of more than 5C (10F)

27
Q

What are some indications of low level wind shear due to low level temperature inversion?

A

When the wind speed between 2000 and 4000 feet is 25 or more knots

28
Q

Can microbursts happen in convective clouds where there is no precipitation reaching the surface?

A

Yes

29
Q

Is winds aloft from true, or magnetic north?

A

true

30
Q

How often is the winds aloft issued?

A

every 6 hours

31
Q

What happens when the wind speed exceeds 100 knots on the textual winds aloft product?

A

50 is added to the wind direction while 100 is subtracted from the wind speed

32
Q

What is the maximum wind speed shown on winds aloft?

A

199knots, if the wind is greater than 199 knots, it will still show as 199

33
Q

What is a light and variable wind coded as on the winds aloft chart, and what is the definition?

A

When the wind is below 5 knots and it is coded “9900”

34
Q

All wind forecasts and textual wind reports reference true or magnetic north?

A

true

35
Q

All wind directions received over the radio (ATIS, ASOS, AWOS) are in magnetic or true north?

A

magnetic

36
Q

low level significant prog charts are from what altitude to what altitude?

A

the surface to 24000 feet

37
Q

What do high level significant prog charts show, and what are the applicable altitudes?

A

They are from 25,000 to 63,000 feet, and show areas of turbulence, cumulonimbus clouds, jet stream, and height of the tropopause

38
Q

What is the average height of the tropopause in the middle latitudes?

A

37000 feet

39
Q

How do you adjust most VSI’s?

A

There is a small screw that you can twist with a screw driver to reset the 0 position

40
Q

How do you check the electrically driven gyro instruments?

A

Before turning on the engine and after you turn on the electricity, listen to the instrument spin up.

41
Q

What is the acceptable precession every 15 minutes in the heading indicator?

A

3 degrees

42
Q

After rolling out of a skidding turn, due to precession the attitude indicator will indicate a bank attitude of how many degrees in the opposite direction?

A

3 to 5 degrees

43
Q

Are there errors of precession in the attitude indicator when turning coordinated?

A

Yes, the maximum amount of error occurs during a 180 degree turn, if turning 360 degrees, the second 180 cancels out the first 180. The amount of error is directly proportional to the amount of bank used.

44
Q

ATC will include what word to express urgency?

A

“immediately”

45
Q

What does “resume own navigation” mean when said by a controller?

A

Radar vectors are complete, proceed via the route in the ATC clearance

46
Q

Should altitude assignments and vector headings be read back exactly?

A

Yes

47
Q

When can you cancel an IFR clearance prior to landing?

A

When in VFR conditions and outside Class A airspace

48
Q

When will your IFR flight plan be automatically closed?

A

When landing at an airport with an operating control tower.

49
Q

What is the FAR requirement for battery operation after alternator failure?

A

FAR 23.1353 states in the event of a complete loss of the electrical power generating system, the battery must be capable of providing electrical power for those loads essential to continue safe flight and landing for at least 30 minutes.

50
Q

Along with an abbreviated clearance “cleared as file”, what else will the controller always give?

A

Name of destination airport, altitude to maintain, name and transition of a SID

51
Q

If you receive a clearance at a non-towered airport, what two times will be given in conjunction with other information?

A

A release and void time. The release time means the departure airspace is unavailable until that time (earliest time for take off). The void time is the latest time for takeoff.

52
Q

What happens to pilots who take off after the void time?

A

Pilots who depart at or after their clearance void time are not afforded IFR separation and may be in violation 14 CFR Section 91.173 which requires that pilots receive an appropriate ATC clearance before operating IFR in controlled airspace.

53
Q

When do pilots need to notify ATC that they will be unable to takeoff before the void time?

A

As soon as possible, but definitely before 30 minutes after the void time, because search and rescue will be initiated at that time

54
Q

What are the requirements to operate VFR on Top?

A
  • Pilots must be intrument rated and current
  • IFR flight plan must be filed
  • IFR clearance must be received
  • En route cruise conducted in VMC
  • You cannot enter IFR weather conditions
  • It must be requested by the pilot
  • Must follow both VFR and IFR rules
  • Cruise altitude must be a VFR altitude
55
Q

What are the IFR requirements for operating under a VFR on top clearance?

A
  • Maintain centerline of airway or route
  • at or above minimum IFR altitudes
  • make position reports if not in radar contact
  • make required IFR reports without request
56
Q

What is the one of the only advantages of operating VFR on top?

A

You can change altitudes at pilot’s discretion as long as you maintain VFR weather minimum and report altitude changed with ATC

57
Q

What is a cruise clearance?

A

Usually given at the arrival end of a flight, and are used for relatively short flights in uncongested airspace.

58
Q

What does a cruise clearance allow?

A

It allows the pilot to select any altitude above the MEA and the cruise altitude specified. You are not required to report altitude changes. However, if you report descending from an altitude, you may not return to that altitude without an ATC clearance. It authorizes a pilot to fly to and make an approach at the destination airport.

59
Q

Can block altitude requests contain both horizontal and vertical boundaries?

A

Yes

60
Q

When assigned a block altitude, do you have to report when leaving an altitude for an altitude in the block?

A

No

61
Q

What are the different kinds of NOTAMS and what are they each for?

A
  1. Flight Data Center (FDC) : Chart / Procedure Amendments, Special Events, TFRs (regulatory issues)
  2. Notam (D) : Navigation Facilities, Airports
  3. Pointer : Reference other NOTAMs
  4. Special Activity Airspace (SAA) : Changes to published airspace boundaries and times

IFR (7 decks)

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