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BIO 2.0 > Inheritance, Variation & Evolution > Flashcards

Inheritance, Variation & Evolution Flashcards

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1
Q

how many parents are involved in asexual reproduction?

A

1

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2
Q

how many gametes are involved in asexual reproduction?

A

none

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3
Q

what type of cell division is involved in asexual reproduction?

A

mitosis

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4
Q

what type of offspring does asexual reproduction produce?

A

genetically identical (clones)

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5
Q

what are some disadvantages of asexual reproduction?

A
  • all offspring have the same weakness/disease due to no variation
  • no adaptation or evolution
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6
Q

what are some advantages of asexual reproduction?

A
  • guaranteed to reproduce
  • large numbers of offspring
  • no mutations
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7
Q

how many parents are involved in sexual reproduction?

A

2

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8
Q

how many gametes are involved in sexual reproduction?

A

2 - egg and sperm or ovum and pollen

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9
Q

what type of offspring does sexual reproduction produce?

A

genetically different but similar

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10
Q

what type of cell division is involved in sexual reproduction?

A

mitosis and meiosis

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11
Q

what are some advantages of sexual reproduction?

A
  • can choose mates (survival of the fittest)
  • variation and adaptation
  • multiple offspring (some survive)
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12
Q

what are some disadvantages of sexual reproduction?

A
  • mates may be scarce
  • longer process
  • negative mutations or diseases
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13
Q

describe the process of mitosis

A
  • cell grows larger
  • DNA and organelles (eg ribosomes and mitochondria) are replicated
  • one set of chromosomes is pulled to each end of the cell
  • nucleus divides
  • cytoplasm and cell membrane split in half
  • 2 new genetically identical cells formed
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14
Q

why do cells divide?

A
  • growth of new tissue
  • repair of damaged tissue
  • asexual reproduction
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15
Q

describe the process of meiosis

A
  • cell grows larger
  • DNA and organelles (eg ribosomes and mitochondria) are replicated to form chromosomes that have double DNA
  • (meiosis 1) 1 set of chromosomes are pulled to each end of the cell and pairs of homologous chromosomes separate leading to variation (any one of the pair can go to either side)
  • nucleus divides
  • (meiosis 2) chromosomes split in half, half going to each new cell
  • cytoplasm and cell membrane divide to form 4 daughter cells from the original 1 cell
  • all cells are different from each other
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16
Q

how many divisions are in mitosis?

A

1

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17
Q

how many divisions are in meiosis?

A

2

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18
Q

how many cells are produced in mitosis?

A

2

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19
Q

how many cells are produced in meiosis?

A

4

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20
Q

how many chromosomes are in the daughter cells after mitosis?

A

diploid - full

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21
Q

how many chromosomes are in the daughter cells after meiosis?

A

haploid - half

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22
Q

what is meiosis used for?

A

sexual reproduction - production of gametes

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23
Q

where does mitosis take place?

A

any cell

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24
Q

where does meiosis take place?

A

sex organs

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25
Q

what parts of a daffodil are involved in sexual reproduction?

A

flowers to attract pollinators (if it is warm enough)

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26
Q

what parts of a daffodil are involved in asexual reproduction?

A

produce clones of bulbs under the soil if there are no pollinators

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27
Q

why is it an advantage for daffodils to use both sexual and asexual reproduction?

A
  • flowers are favoured because it introduces variation which is good for the species
  • asexual reproduction gives a guarantee of reproduction in the absence of pollinators
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28
Q

what parts of a strawberry plant are involved in sexual reproduction?

A

flowers to attract pollinators (if it is warm enough)

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29
Q

what parts of a strawberry plant are involved in asexual reproduction?

A

runners producing clones (plantlets) of original parent plant

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30
Q

how can a strawberry producer take advantage of asexual reproduction in strawberry plants?

A

grow strawberries inside polytunnels to stop sexual reproduction so its faster (dont have to wait for pollinators) and no animals to eat the strawberries

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31
Q

describe the reproductive system of fungi

A
  • the network of hyphae is haploid.
  • 2 hyphae grow together and fuse
  • from this, a spore-producing fruiting body develops.
  • cells in the fruiting body undergo fertilisation and then meiosis to produce haploid spores
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32
Q

what are the parts of a nucleotide?

A
  • phosphate group (circle)
  • pentose (sugar - deoxyribose - pentagon)
  • nitrogen-containing base (rectangle)
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33
Q

what type of molecule is DNA?

A

A polymer, made from 4 different nucleotides

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34
Q

what is the function of DNA?

A

to store coded information which can be used to make proteins

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35
Q

what is a gene?

A

a small section of DNA on a chromosome; it codes for a particular sequence of amino acids to make a particular protein

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36
Q

what are the complementary base pairing rules?

A

A + T, C + G

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37
Q

what do the full lines in a diagram of DNA represent?

A

covalent bonds

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38
Q

what do the dotted lines in a diagram of DNA represent?

A

hydrogen bonds

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39
Q

describe the strength of hydrogen bonds

A

very weak individually (which they must be to be able to separate strands of DNA) but together they are quite strong

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40
Q

how many sugar phosphate backbones are in a double helix?

A

2

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41
Q

why are 3 different DNA bases needed (triplet codes)?

A

to make enough combinations to code for 20 different amino acids

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42
Q

how many base combinations are there in triplet codes?

A

64

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43
Q

what does it mean when the protein a triplet code produces is ‘stop’?

A

the gene is finished and protein is completed, so stops production of protein

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44
Q

what are some functions of protein in living things?

A
  • collagen
  • antibodies
  • receptor proteins
  • haemoglobin
  • actin and myosin (muscle proteins)
  • enzymes
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45
Q

describe the process of protein synthesis

A
  • DNA strands separate as hydrogen bonds are broken, so one strand can form a template
  • the DNA code of a gene is copied to form a mRNA molecule (but not exactly - there are different bases for mRNA [no T] so cells can tell DNA and mRNA apart)
  • mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus through a nuclear pore and attaches to a ribosome
  • ribosome moves along mRNA strand, reading bases, and tRNA (carrier molecules) bring the correct amino acids to the ribosome
  • amino acids join together to form a polypeptide
  • polypeptide detaches and folds into a uniquely shaped protein
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46
Q

what is a polypeptide?

A

a long chain of amino acids

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47
Q

what is a mutation?

A

a change in the sequence of bases in DNA / a gene

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48
Q

how are base sequences altered in mutations?

A

substitution, insertion, deletion, inversion

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49
Q

describe the effect of a change in a base sequence of DNA

A
  • change in amino acid sequence
  • change in protein structure/shape
  • change in protein function
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50
Q

why do most mutations not alter the amino acid sequence?

A
  • there are multiple codons for the same amino acid, so it doesn’t matter if it mutates, as we still get the right amino acid.
  • not all DNA codes for proteins; some in non-coding, so if it mutates it won’t make a difference or affect proteins
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51
Q

how could a mutation affect the function of an enzyme?

A

if amino acids change in the active site, the shape will change and substrates won’t fit, so the enzyme won’t work

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52
Q

how does a change to gene coding cause sickle cell disease?

A
  • change to the gene coding for haemoglobin
  • haemoglobin is the wrong shape (clumped [fibrous] rather than normal [globular]) so doesn’t fit in RBC properly
  • this means the RBC are stretched out of shape
  • so they get can’t fit through capillaries and get stuck, lowering O2 levels
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53
Q

how can mutations in part of non-coding DNA cause cancer tumours?

A
  • division of cells is usually controlled by genes
  • cells grow and reproduce uncontrollably therefore are not the right shape and function and are cancerous
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54
Q

what is meant by n + n ⇒ 2n?

A

gamete + gamete ⇒ fertilised egg

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55
Q

what is meant by 2n ⇒ n + n?

A

Diploid cell undergoing meiosis to produce haploid cells.

56
Q

what is meant by 2n ⇒ 2n or n ⇒ n?

A

2n represents diploid cells undergoing mitosis, while n represents haploid cells undergoing mitosis.

57
Q

what does haploid mean?

A

Having a single set of unpaired chromosomes - cell’s with one copy of each chromosome - 23 chromosomes

58
Q

what does diploid mean?

A

Having two sets of chromosomes - 46 chromosomes

59
Q

what is DNA?

A

a polymer made of 2 strands forming a double helix; contained in structures called chromosomes

60
Q

what is a chromosome?

A

larger structure of DNA, found in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell

61
Q

what is a human genome?

A
  • Complete set of DNA in an organism
  • complete set of genes in a cell
62
Q

why is the understanding of the human genome useful?

A
  • can recognise genetic disease early and make lifestyle changes accordingly
  • can choose surgery to avoid cancers (eg breast cancers)
63
Q

what are alleles?

A

Different forms of a gene - the 2 copies of a gene on a pair of chromosomes

64
Q

what is a genotype?

A

Genetic makeup of an organism, representing the specific combination of alleles for a particular trait.

65
Q

what is a phenotype?

A

Observable characteristics or features of an organism determined by its genetic makeup and environmental factors.

66
Q

what is a gamete?

A

sex cell - 23 chromosomes

67
Q

what is a recessive allele?

A

An allele that is only expressed in the phenotype if 2 copies of that allele are present and there is not the dominant allele of that gene

68
Q

what is a dominant allele?

A

An allele that is always expressed in the phenotype when present in the genotype whether partnered by a recessive or another like itself

69
Q

define homozygous

A

a genotype in which the 2 alleles for the characteristic are identical - AA or aa

70
Q

define heterozygous

A

a genotype in which the 2 alleles for the characteristic are different - Aa

71
Q

define monogenic

A

Trait controlled by a single gene.

72
Q

define polygenic

A

Trait controlled by two or more genes - because multiple genes are involved, traits do not follow patterns of Mendelian inheritance

73
Q

what are the female sex chromosomes?

A

XX

74
Q

what is an inherited disease?

A

a disease which can be passed on from parent to child through chromosomes

75
Q

what are the male sex chromosomes?

A

XY

76
Q

how can people pass on a genetic disease without suffering from it?

A

By being carriers of the recessive allele for the genetic disease - recessive alleles require 2 copies to be expressed so can be carriers without suffering

77
Q

what are some examples of characteristics caused by environmental factors?

A
  • scars
  • tattoos
78
Q

what are some examples of characteristics caused by a mixture of genetic and environmental factors?

A
  • height
  • body mass
  • skin colour
  • personality
79
Q

what are some examples of human mutations that cause new phenotypes?

A
  • cystic fibrosis (thicker mucus)
  • haemophilia (blood doesn’t clot)
  • polydactyly (extra digits)
  • diabetes (insulin doesn’t form)
  • huntington’s (alters brain proteins)
  • eye colour (anything not brown or blue)
  • hair colour (anything not dark brown)
  • freckles
  • lactose tolerance
  • ability to roll tongue
  • dis/connected earlobes
80
Q

describe the process of natural selection

A
  • there is variation within a population due to mutations
  • some individuals are better adapted to their environment than others as a result of their genetic makeup
  • these individuals are more likely to survive the competition with other members of that species
  • these individuals reproduce and pass on their advantageous alleles to the next generation
  • over many generations, the advantageous alleles are more frequent in the gene pool than the non-advantageous alleles
81
Q

what are the stages of natural selection + mnemonic?

A

“Very Many Elephants Can See Ravenous Antelopes”
- Variation
- Mutation
- Environment
- Competition
- Survive
- Reproduction
- Alleles

82
Q

describe the stages in development of antibiotic resistance

A
  • mutations occur naturally in original population, causing variation (some bacteria have high or low antibiotic resistance)
  • an antibiotic is introduced so the environment changes
  • different bacteria are better adapted to this change (have higher resistance) and survive the competition with other members of its species (survival of the fittest)
  • the surviving bacteria with higher resistance reproduce and pass on their resistant alleles
  • over generations, these resistant alleles become more frequent in the gene pool than the non-resistant alleles
83
Q

why shouldn’t doctors prescribe antibiotics for viral infections?

A

Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses because they target bacterial infections but they do increase the resistance of bacteria

84
Q

why should patients complete their courses of antibiotics, even if they feel better?

A

To prevent antibiotic resistance and ensure complete eradication of the infection.

85
Q

why are antibiotics used in agriculture?

A

to prevent infections in livestock

86
Q

why should agricultural use of antibiotics be restricted?

A

To prevent antibiotic resistance in bacteria.

87
Q

what was Lamarck’s theory?

A
  • a characteristic which is used more and more by an organism becomes bigger and stronger and one that is not used, eventually disappears
  • any feature of an organism that is improved through use is passed to its offspring
88
Q

what was wrong with Lamarck’s theory?

A

it can’t account for all observations in nature; the theory implies that all organisms would gradually become complex and simple organisms would disappear

89
Q

what was darwin’s theory?

A
  • individual organisms within a particular species show a wide range of variation for a characteristic
  • individuals with characteristics most suited to the environment are more likely to survive and breed
  • the characteristics that have enabled these individuals to survive are then passed on to the next generation
90
Q

why was darwin’s theory only gradually accepted?

A
  • it challenged creationism
  • there was insufficient evidence when the theory was published to convince many scientists
  • mechanism of inheritance and variation wasn’t known until 50 years after the theory was published
91
Q

why is darwin’s theory now widely accepted?

A
  • fits with recent research (ie watson’s and crick’s work on the structure of DNA)
  • less religious devotion
  • more evidence
92
Q

how does natural selection lead to speciation?

A
  • mutations occur in the population of the common ancestor, producing lots of variation
  • at some point, one population was split in two, by a geographical barrier
  • the two populations then lived in two different habitats, with different conditions
  • within each environment, different adaptations caused by variation suit the new environment
  • animals well-suited to the new environment survive the competition (survival of the fittest), reproduce and pass on their advantageous alleles
  • over generations, these advantageous alleles become more frequent in the gene pool than the disadvantageous ones
  • the populations will continue to evolve until the 2 populations are genetically different and can’t interbreed to produce fertile offspring and have become 2 different species
93
Q

what is speciation?

A

The formation of new and distinct species in the course of evolution.

94
Q

what are 3 ways fossils can be formed?

A
  • no decay due to lack of one or more conditions necessary for decay (oxygen, water/moisture, warmth)
  • when parts of the animal are replaced by minerals as they decay
  • as preserved traces (footprints, faeces, burrows, rootlet traces)
95
Q

why are there very few remains of soft-bodied early life forms?

A

they don’t fossilize properly due to their lack of hard parts/bones - if they don’t have bones then they can’t be replaced by mineral deposits

96
Q

why are there gaps in the fossil record?

A

Due to the incomplete preservation of organisms (if conditions for decay occur, then the dead animal won’t fossilise) and the rarity of fossilization.

97
Q

what is the fossil record?

A

A historical sequence of life indicated by fossils found in layers of the Earth’s crust.

98
Q

how do fossils provide evidence for the theory of evolution?

A

By showing the gradual changes in organisms over time, indicating common ancestry and adaptation to different environments.

99
Q

what is extinction?

A

The complete disappearance of a species from Earth - when there are no remaining individuals of a species still alive

100
Q

what can extinction be caused by?

A
  • Environmental changes (eg woolly mammoths)
  • natural disasters
  • human activities (eg hunting, habitat destruction)
  • competition from other species
  • a lack of mutation and variation causing an inability to adapt, reproduce and survive
101
Q

what are the 3 domains of living animals?

A
  • bacteria
  • archaea
  • eukaryota
102
Q

who devised the 3-domain system?

A

Carl Woese

103
Q

what is a species?

A

a group of organisms with similar characteristics that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring

104
Q

Horses and donkeys are different species; explain why.

A
  • horses and donkeys can interbreed as their chromosomes (64 and 62) are similar enough to produce offspring
  • however that offspring is not fertile as its chromosomes (63) can’t be halved so can’t produce viable sperm and egg cells
105
Q

the Linnaean classification system is hierarchical; what does this mean?

A

larger groups are split into smaller groups, each containing fewer numbers of organisms and no overlap between groups

106
Q

what are the parts of the Linnaean classification system?

A
  • Domain
  • Kingdom
  • Phylum
  • Class
  • Order
  • Family
  • Genus
  • Species
107
Q

what evidence is used to determine evolutionary relationships?

A
  • DNA and genes
  • evidence of internal structures (seen using more advanced microscopes)
  • understanding of biochemical processes
  • fossil evidence
108
Q

what is selective breeding?

A

the process whereby humans breed plants and animals for particular genetic characteristics and create varieties/breeds which have characteristics we value

109
Q

what are some examples of characteristics selected for in selective breeding?

A
  • animals for more milk/meat
  • disease resistance
  • large or unusual flowers
  • domestic dogs with a gentle nature
110
Q

what are the stages in selective breeding?

A
  • decide what desirable characteristics are required in the organism
  • choose parents with the required characteristics
  • breed parents and let offspring mature
  • select, from the offspring produced, those with the desirable characteristics
  • breed selected offspring together
  • repeat over many generations
111
Q

what are some advantages of selective breeding?

A
  • can produce an organism with qualities that are useful
  • customers get the products they want
  • farmers increase profits
112
Q

what are some disadvantages of selective breeding?

A
  • can take multiple generations
  • desired characteristics aren’t guaranteed
  • inbreeding can cause characteristics that cause mutations to be passed on
  • can create a population with very few alleles: genes get lost, less variation - higher chance of extinction if environment changes
  • may all be susceptible to disease - higher risk
113
Q

summarise the process of tissue culture cloning

A

a few plant cells are put in growth medium with hormones and grow into new plants - clones of the parent

114
Q

what are some advantages of tissue culture cloning?

A
  • plants can be made very quickly
  • can be done in very little space
  • can be grown all year
  • used to preserve rare plants and to produce lots of plants quickly by plant nurseries
115
Q

what are some disadvantages of tissue culture cloning?

A
  • need some specialist equipment
  • has to be done in sterile environment
116
Q

summarise the process of plant cutting cloning

A

take cuttings from good parent plants and put them in soil with auxins (to encourage root growth) to produce genetically identical copies of the parent plant

117
Q

what are some advantages of plant cutting cloning?

A
  • plants can be produced quickly
  • plants can be produced cheaply
  • simple
118
Q

what is a disadvantage of plant cutting cloning?

A

small scale

119
Q

describe the process of adult cell cloning

A
  • remove nucleus from unfertilised egg cell
  • remove nucleus from an adult body cell
  • insert nucleus from adult body cell into empty unfertilised egg cell
  • stimulate egg cell with an electric shock, to make it divide
  • when the embryo is a ball of cells, implant into womb of an adult female
  • it will grow into a clone of the original adult body cell
120
Q

what is an advantage of adult cell cloning?

A

guaranteed characteristics

121
Q

what is a disadvantage of adult cell cloning?

A

reduced lifespan of offspring

122
Q

describe the process of embryo transplant cloning

A
  • sperm cells taken from best male animal and egg cells from best female
  • sperm is used to artificially fertilise an egg cell
  • the embryo is split many times to form clones, before any cells become specialised
  • cloned embryos can be implanted into lots of other cows and grow into baby calves which will wall be genetically identical to each other
123
Q

what are some advantages of embryo transplant cloning?

A
  • hundreds of ‘ideal’ offspring can be produced every year
  • guaranteed characteristics
  • produces true young animals
124
Q

what is a disadvantage of embryo transplant cloning?

A

reduced variation leads to health problems

125
Q

what are 3 main issues surrounding cloning?

A
  • produces a reduced gene pool; if a population are all closely related and a new disease appears, they could all be wiped out, as there may be no allele in the population giving resistance to it
  • cloned animals might not be as healthy as normal ones
  • some people worry that humans might be cloned in the future - eugenics and failed attempts causing sever disabilities
126
Q

what does a ‘reduced gene pool’ mean?

A

fewer different alleles in a population

127
Q

what are the 2 main positives surrounding cloning?

A
  • studying animal clones could lead to better understanding of the development of the embryo, ageing, and age-related disorders
  • could help preserve endangered species
128
Q

what are some characteristics that may be considered desirable in genetic engineering of crops?

A

drought-, disease-, and pest-resistant, fast-growing, high yield, strong stem, golden rice has added vitamin A

129
Q

what are some characteristics that may be considered desirable in genetic engineering of bacterial cells?

A

bacterial cells used to produce insulin

130
Q

what are some characteristics that may be considered desirable in genetic engineering of humans?

A

potential treatment for genetic disorders

131
Q

what are the stages of genetic engineering?

A
  • enzymes are used to isolate the required gene
  • the same enzyme is used to cut open a plasmid or virus (the vector) and the gene is inserted into it
  • the vector is used to insert the gene into the required cells
  • genes are transferred to the cells of animals, plants or microorganisms at an early stage in their development so that they develop with required characteristics
132
Q

what are the stages of genetic engineering to make bacteria produce insulin?

A
  • plasmid from bacterium is cut by an enzyme
  • the human gene for insulin production is isolated by the same enzyme
  • insulin production gene inserted into plasmid
  • the engineered plasmid is inserted into a new bacterium
  • the bacterium undergoes binary fission, divides, and begins producing insulin
133
Q

why is the same enzyme used to isolate the gene and cut the plasmid in genetic engineering?

A

it creates complimentary shapes in them both so they can bind using complimentary base pairing

134
Q

what are the advantages of using GM crops?

A
  • higher yields increases food value which could help an expanding population
  • animals and plants grow faster
  • crops can grow in dry, hot, cold, or flooded areas which could help manage the effects of global warming on agriculture
  • crops can produce their own pesticide, be resistant to herbicide or contain specific nutrients
135
Q

what are the disadvantages of using GM crops?

A
  • people aren’t sure of the long-term effects of eating GM food on human health
  • pesticide-producing crops may result in insects developing resistance to pesticides
  • genes from GM crops or animals could spread to species in the wild
136
Q

what are the advantages of using GM to overcome inherited disorders in humans?

A

can mass produce human proteins like insulin

137
Q

what are the disadvantages of using GM to overcome inherited disorders in humans?

A

people worry this may lead to the manipulation of human genes to make ‘designer children’

BIO 2.0 (12 decks)

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