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DERMATOLOGY > Infectious/Fungal > Flashcards

Infectious/Fungal Flashcards

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1
Q

farcy buds

A

Glanders

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2
Q

infection caused by contact with infected horses

A

Glanders

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3
Q

Burkholderia mallei

A

Glanders

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4
Q

Ulcerated nodule at inoculated site with regional lymphadenopathy, plus little nodules along the lymph nodes
-nasal septal perforation

A

Glanders (*and those little buds along side the lypmh nodes are called farcy buds)

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5
Q

Undulant fever

A

Brucellosis

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6
Q

Malta fever

A

Brucellosis

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7
Q

infection cause by direct contact with infected animal or ingestion of dairy (unpasterized) infected meat

A

Brucellosis

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8
Q
  • infection seen in butchers, farmers, vets
  • cyclic fevers, arthralgias, hepatosplenomegaly with sometimes a papulonodular eruption
  • direct contact with meat or dairy unpasterized milk
A

Brucellosis

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9
Q

The plaque is transmitted by what animal

A

flea bites

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10
Q

inflammatory skin plaque in the urinary tract which turns into a weeping or polypoid mass

A

Malakoplakia

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11
Q

Michaelis-Guptmann bodies (von-Hansemann cells)

A

Malakoplakia

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12
Q

fistulous tract in the groin plus von hansemann cells and michaelis-gutmann bodies

A

Malakoplakia

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13
Q

Hebra nose

A

Rhinoscleroma

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14
Q

Infectious granulomas in nasal mucosa and respiratory tracat, epistaxis, destruction of nasal cartilage

A

Rhinoscleroma

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15
Q

Mikulicz cell, Russel bodies

A

Rhinoscleroma

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16
Q

Haverhill fever

A

rate bite fever

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17
Q

Streptobacillus moniliformis

A

Rat-Bite fever

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18
Q

Pasteurella multocida

A

Cat bite

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19
Q

Capnoctytophaga canimorsus
Pasteurella canis
Pasturpella multocida

A

Dog bite

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20
Q

Eikenella corrodens

A

Human bite

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21
Q

Gram negative intracellular bacteria
Transmitted by insects
Adheres to and invades erythrocytes

A

Bartonella

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22
Q

Bacteria causing Oroya fever

A

Bartonella bacilliformis

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23
Q

other name for Carrions disease

A

Oroya Fever

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24
Q

another name for Peruvian wart

A

Oroya Fever

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25
Q

What is the vector for Oroya fever?

A

sandfly (Lutzomyia verrucarum)

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26
Q

What is the name of the vector for Oroya fever?

A

Lutzomyia verrucarum (sandfly)

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27
Q

Lutzomyia verrucarum

A

sandlfl\y that is the vector for Oroya fever

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28
Q

first, a fever and a hemolytic anemia

then, erythematous papules and nodules which resol\ve spontaneously

A

Oroya fever

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29
Q

Verruga paruana

A

The chronic stage of Oroya fever

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30
Q

What do you treat Oroya fever with?

A

Chloramphenicol

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31
Q

Bartonella infection associated with fever in Peru

A

Oroya fever

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32
Q

Term for infection of raw seafood eating

A

Vibrio

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33
Q

Bartonella henselae causes what disease?

A

Cat scratch disease

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34
Q

Vector for cat scratch disease?

A

cat flea (Ctenocephalides felis)

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35
Q

Ctenocephalides felis

A

the cat flea, vector in cat scratch disease

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36
Q

Cat scratch disease is caused by what bacteria?>

A

Bartonella henselae

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37
Q

Cat scratch disease can also cause what syndrome in common with sarcoid?

A

Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome : unilateral conjunctivitis and regional lymphadenitis

*sidenote tularemia can cause this too!!

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38
Q

What syndrome can be caused by cat scratch disease, tularemia, and sarcoid?

A

Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome (ipsilateral conjuncitivis and regional lymphadenopathy)

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39
Q

what infectious disease do hunters get?

A

Tularemia

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40
Q

Erythematous tender papules and nodules resembling multiple PGs, seen mainly in HIV patients

A

Bacillary angiomatosis

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41
Q

Bacteria that causes bacillary angiomatosis

A

Bartonella quintana

Bartonella henselae

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42
Q

Bartonella quintana

A

Bacillary angiomatosis

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43
Q

Vector for Bacillary angiomatosis

A

lice, ticks, fleas

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44
Q

Shinebone fever also called

A

Trench fever

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45
Q

Bacteria causing Trench fever

A

Bartonella quintana

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46
Q

Name the four conditions associated with Bartonella infection

A
  1. Ororya fever (fever, hemolytic anemia)
  2. Cat scratch disease (lymphadenitis after cat scratch)
  3. Bacillary Angiomatosis (lots of PGs, in HIV pts)
  4. Trench fever (relapsing fever, sore shins, back pain, transient rash)
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47
Q

A patient has sore shins, relapsing fever, back pain, transient rash

A

Trench fever

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48
Q

Vector for trench fever

A

body louse (Pediculus humanus var. corporis)

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49
Q

What does the body louse Pediculus humanus also cause besides Trench fever?

A

Epidemic typhus

Relapsing fever

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50
Q

Name two diseases that the body louse (Pediculus humanus) is a vector for:

A

Trench fever
&
Endemic typhus

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51
Q

What two bacteria is the body louse (Pediculus humanus) a vector for?

A 
Bartonella quintana (Trench fever)
&
Rickettsiae prowazekii (Endemic Typhus)
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52
Q

Name the bacteria and vectors for all of the bartonella causing diseases:

A
  1. Oroya fever - bartonella bacilliformis - sandfly(Lutzomyia verrucarum)
  2. Cat scratch disease - bartonella henselae - cat flea(ctenocejphalidis felis)
  3. Bacillary angiomatosis - bartonella henselae, quintana - ticks, lice, fle
  4. Trench fever - bartonella quintana - body louse (pediculus humanas)
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53
Q

What bacteria causes syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

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54
Q

what stage of syphilis is the chancre?

A

primary stage

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55
Q

how many weeks after primary stage of syphilis does secondary stage happen?

A

9 weeks

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56
Q

what stage syphilis is the maculopapular rash?

A

second

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57
Q

stage of syphilis: mucous patches

A

second

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58
Q

stage of syphilus: lues maligna

A

second

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59
Q

stage of syphilus: alopecia

A

second

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60
Q

stage of syphilus: condyloma lata

A

second

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61
Q

Name the findings of the second stage of syphilus

A 
Maculopapular rash
Condyloma lata
Lues maligna
alopecia
mucous patches
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62
Q

Lues maligna

A

crusted necrotic papulopustular lesions in second stage of syphilus

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63
Q

stage of syphilus:gumma

A

tertiary

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64
Q

how long after initial infection does the tertiary stage of syphilis happen

A

3-5 years

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65
Q

stage of syphilis: cardiovascular

A

tertiary

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66
Q

stage of syphilis: neurosyphilus

A

tertiary

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67
Q

Argyll Robertson pupil

A

Tertiary syphilius

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68
Q

tabes dorsalis

A

tertiary syphilis

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69
Q

Name the findings in the tertiary stage of syphilis

A

Gumma (syphilitic granulomas)
cardiovascular syphilis
Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis, Argyll Robertson pupil)

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70
Q

Jarish-Herxheimer reaction

A

febrile systemic reaction after the inital dose of antisyphilitic treatment, occurs in abt 75% of patients
-mediated by TNF-alpha

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71
Q

What cytokine is the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction mediated by?

A

TNF-alpha

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72
Q

A patient treated for syphilis with IM benzathine PCN, and then gets an intense febrile reaction - what happened?

A

Jarish-Herxheimer reaction

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73
Q

what is the most sensitive test for primary syphilis?

A

FTA-ABS

fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test

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74
Q

which syphilis test remains positive even after treatment?

and which one doesnt?

A

remains positive after treatment: FTA-ABS

doesnt: RPR,VDRL

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75
Q

how long after infection with primary syphilis will the FTA-ABS test become positive?

A

3 weeks

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76
Q

Which syphilis tests become nonreactive over time, and especially after treatment?

A

The non-treponemal test (RPR, VDRL)

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77
Q

which syphilis tests can you get false positive results with? (i.e. are also positive in many other diseases)

A

RPR/VDRL

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78
Q

In what diseases can you get a positive RPR/VDRL?

A 
syphilis
lupus
pregnancty
malaria
old age
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79
Q

RPR and VDRL are not positive until how long?

A

Not until at least one week after chancre appears (as opposed to 3 weeks after infection in the FTA-ABS test)

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80
Q

This syphilis test detects IgM/IgG to a “reagin” which is a mixture of cardiolipin, l\ecithin, and cholesterol

A

RPR AND VDRL

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81
Q

which syphilis test would you choose to tract the progress of treatment, and is expressed in a titer form?

A

RPR/VDRL

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82
Q

culture medium used to diagnose leishmaniasis

A

Novy-McNeal-Nicolle

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83
Q

treatment for leishmaniasis

A

pentavalent antimonial (sodium stibogluconate)

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84
Q

pentavalent antimonial is used to treat which disease

A

cutaneous leishmaniasis

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85
Q

treatment for visceral leishmaniasis

A

amphotericin B

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86
Q

What do you use to treat RMSF in pregnant ladies?

A

Chloramphenicol (usually treat with Doxy)

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87
Q

Tick that carries RMSF

A 
Dermacentor andersoni (wood tick western US)
Dermacentor variabilis (dog tick in eastern US)
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88
Q

Rickettsiae Rickettsii

A

RMSF

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89
Q

Fever, HA, myalgias, rash that spreads from hands and feet onto the body

A

RMSF

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90
Q

Another name for Boutonneuse fever

A

Mediterranean spotted fever

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91
Q

What does R. conorri cause?

A

Mediterranean spotted fever (Boutonneuse fever)

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92
Q

Tick vector for Boutonneuse fever

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

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93
Q

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

A

Tick vector for Mediterranean spotted fever (Boutonneuse fever)

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94
Q

formal name of the BROWN DOG TICK

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

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95
Q

Tache noir

A

indurated papule at the site of a tick bite which leads to a necrotic ulcer (seen in Meditteranean Spotted fever)

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96
Q

What disease is Tache noir associated with?

A

Boutonnese fever (Meditteranean spotted fever)

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97
Q

Name the bacteria and vector of Boutonnesuese fever

A 
R. conorii
Rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog tick)
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98
Q

Riettsialpox: bacteria and vector

A

R. akari
&
vector: mouse mite (Liponyssodies sanguineus)

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99
Q

What disease is caused by a mouse mite bite?

A

Rickettsial pox

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100
Q

Liponyssoides sanguineus

A

Mouse Mite (causes Rickettsialpox)

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101
Q

R. akari

A

Rickettsialpox

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102
Q

People with HLA-DQ1 are more likely to form which type of leprosy?

A

Lepromatous (TH2 response)

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103
Q

People with HLA-DR2, HLA-DR3 are more prone to form which type of leprosy?

A

Tuberculoid (TH1 response)

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104
Q

IL-2, TNF-alpha, IFN-beta are all cytokines seen in what kind of response?

A

Cell-mediated immune response (TH1)

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105
Q

IL-4, IL-10 represent which type of immune response?

A

Humoral/antibody mediated (TH2)

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106
Q

A person being treated for lepromatous leprosy has a severe reaction during treatment and develops vasculitis (E nodosum leprosum). What to treat with?

A

Thalidomide

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107
Q

What do you treat a Type II leprosy reaction state with?

A

Thalidomide

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108
Q

What do you treat a Type I leprosy reaction state with?

A

Steroid (treat type II with Thalidomide)

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109
Q

What is the Lucio reaction?

A

It is the Type 3 leprosy reaction state in which the patient with lepromatous leprosy develops extensive severe vasculitis

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110
Q

Virchow cells

A

Foamy histiocytes containing M. Leprae in lepromatous leprosy

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111
Q

When is a leprosy patient considered no longer infectious during her treatment?

A

AFTER THE FIRST DOSE OF RIFAMPIN AND DAPSONE

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112
Q

What is the BCG vaccine?

A

Live attenuated TB vaccine with bacteria M. Bovis

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113
Q

How long after exposure to TB will your PPD become positive?

A

2-10 weeks

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114
Q

Tender nodule on guy who cleans out fish tanks

A

Mycobacterium marinum

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115
Q

R. Prowazekii

A

Epidemic Typhus (Louse born)

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116
Q

Louse born Typhus

A

Epidemic Typhus

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117
Q

Vector of Epidemic Typhus

A

Body louse (Pediculosis humanus var. corporis)

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118
Q

Someone has a pet flying squirrel and they get a rash - what did they get?

A

Epidemic Typhus (R. Prowazekii), reservoir is the flying squirrel, vector is the body louse

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119
Q

Flea borne Typhus

A

Endemic Typhus

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120
Q

R. Typhi

A

Endemic Typhus

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121
Q

Vector for Endemic Typhus

A

Rat flea (Xenopsylla Cheops) * Everything is bigger EN teXas)

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122
Q

Mite borne Typhus

A

Scrub Typhus

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123
Q

R. Tsutsugamushi

A

Scrub Typhus

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124
Q

Vector for Scrub Typhus

A

Chiggar mites (Trombiculid)

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125
Q

Thrombiculid

A

Chiggar mite which is a vector for Scrub Typhus

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126
Q

Which ticks cause Human Erlichosis?

A

Amblyomma and Ixodes scapularis

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127
Q

Coxiella Burnetii

A

Q fever

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128
Q

Which bacteria causes Q fever?

A

Coxiella Burnett I

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129
Q

Trichphytan concentricum causes:

A

Tinea Imbricata

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130
Q

Tinea imbricata cause by:

A

T. Concentricum

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131
Q

What do you use to culture Leichmeniasis?

A

NNN culture (Novy-mcNeal-Nicole)

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132
Q

Culture medium for Leichmeniasis

A

NNN

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133
Q

Novy-mcNeal-Nicole culture medium

A

Leichmeniasis

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134
Q

What causes MRSA to be resistant?

A

(PBP2a) Altered penicillin binding protein. Resulting from the mecA gene

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135
Q

What gene encodes the PCP2a protein (causing MRSA resistance)

A

MecA gene

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136
Q

What is the Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL)

A

Associated with increased virulence in CA-MRSA infections

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137
Q

What part of the body is strep a normal flora?

A

Vagina and aerodigestive tract

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138
Q

What is the most pathogenic form of strep?

A

Group A beta-hemolytic strep

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139
Q

What do you treat erysipelas with?

A

Penicillin

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140
Q

Pastias lines

A

Linear petechiael streaks along body folds in Scarlett fever

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141
Q

Fever, erythema, then bullae and desquamation in the body folds

A

Staph Scalded Skin Syndrome

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142
Q

Name four diseases caused by Corynebacterium

A

Erythrasma
Trichomycosis Axillaris
Pitted Keratolysis
Cutaneous Diptheria

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143
Q

Meat handlers/fish handlers get this gram positive disease

A

Erysipeloid (painful red purple patches on the hands)

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144
Q

What is the most common gram negative infection that we deal with in dermatology in the US?

A

Pseudomonas

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145
Q

What chemical in a pseudomonas infection produces the green-blue pigment?

A

Pyocyanin

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146
Q

What chemical in pseudomonas produces the green-yellow pigment?

A

Fluorescein

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147
Q

What pigment producing chemical in psuedomonas produces the brown black pigment in pseudomonas?

A

Pyomelanin

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148
Q

You can get Parinaud-oculoglandular syndrome from what three conditions?

A

Sarcoidosis
Tularemia
Cat Scratch Disease (bartonella)

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149
Q

Which rickettsial borne illness has a negative Weil-Felix test?

A

Rickettsialpox

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150
Q

Warthin-Starry stain

A

Bacillary Angiomatosis

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151
Q

What stain do you use to identify bacillary angiomatosus?

A

Warthin-Starry

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152
Q

What an atomic structure does Ramsey Hunt syndrome involve?

A

HSV of the geniculate ganglion

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153
Q

What do you treat treatment resistant HSV with?

A

foscarnet

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154
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki

A

Crash and Burn

Fever (burn)

C-conjunctivitis
R-rash
A-adenopathy
S-strawberry tongue
H-hands and feet
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155
Q

Which can flouresce, endothrix or ectothrix fungi?

A

Some of ectothrix can

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156
Q

What wavelength does ectothrix fungi flouresce at?

A

365nm

(365nm - earth, on a mercury (mercury) lamp made of nickel chromium oxide (planets) filter

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157
Q

What wavelength, material, and filter is a Woods lamp?

A

365nm mercury lamp with a nickel chromium oxide filter

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158
Q

What is the pneumonic for endothrix?

A 
Ringo (t. Rubrum)
Gave (t. Gourvilli)
Yoko (t. Yaoundé)
Two (t. Tonsurans)
Squeaky (t. Soudanese)
Violins (t. Violaceum)
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159
Q

Most common cause of tinea capitis

A

T. Tonsurans

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160
Q

Which fungus is endothrix and ectothrix

A

T. Rubrum

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161
Q

What is the second most (and most inflammatory) cause of tinea capitis?

A

M. Canus

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162
Q

Which organism causes Favus?

A

T. Schoenleinii

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163
Q

What chemical causes ectothrix to flouresce?

A

Pteridine

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164
Q

What chemical causes corynebacterium to flouresce?

A

Copoporphyrin III

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165
Q

What chemical causes pseudomonas to flouresce?

A

Pyocyanine

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166
Q

Most common type of tinea pedis

A

T. Rubrum, T. Floccasum

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167
Q

Cause of bullous tinea pedis

A

T. Mentagrophytes

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168
Q

Most common cause of onychomycosis

A

T. Rubrum

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169
Q

Most common type of white superficial spreading onychomycosis

A

T. Mentag. (But in HIV patients, T rubrum is the most common for white superficial spreading)

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170
Q

What two conditions does t. Mentag cause

A

Bullous tinea and white superficial spreading onychomycosis

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171
Q

What causes tinea imbricata?

A

T. Concentricum

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172
Q

What stain outlines fungi black?

A

GMS

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173
Q

What stain outlines fungi magenta with green background?

A

PAS

174
Q

Which stain stains dematiaceous (pigment producing) fungi? Like Tinea Nigra

A

Fontana-Masson

175
Q

Which stain stains the capsule of cyrptococcus?

A

Mucicarmine

176
Q

What is the chemical that tinea versicolor produces which causes hypopigmentation?

A

Azelaic acid

177
Q

What organism causes black Piedra?

A

Piedraia hortae

178
Q

What organism causes white piedra?

A

Trichosporon cutaneum

*cute little white spores!

179
Q

Tinea corporis aquired from the soil - what organism?

A

T. Gypsum

180
Q

Most common organism causing Majocchis granuloma

A

T. Rubrum

181
Q

Ketoconazole - fungistatic or fungicidal?>

A

Fungistatic

182
Q

Treatment for Tinea Capitis

A

Griseofulvin 25mg

183
Q

Name the pneumonic for fluorescent ectothrix

A 
Cats (M. Canus)
And (M. Audouninii)
Dogs (M. Distortum)
Fight (M. Ferrugineum)
&
Growl (M. Gypsum)
Sometimes (T. Schoenleinii)
184
Q

What kind of fungus (endothrix ectothrix fluorescent, nonfluorescent) is T. Schoenleinii

A

Ectothrix flourescent

185
Q

Which is the only flourescent Trichophyton ectothrix

A

T. Schoenleinii (the rest of them are M. Canus)

186
Q

What is the candidal infection in between the third and fourth webspace of the finger called?

A

Erosio interdigitalis blastomycetica

187
Q

Black widow spider releases what toxin?

A

Alpha-latrotoxin (Depolarizes neurons)

188
Q

Surgical abdomen after a spider bite -which spider?

A

Black widow (lactodectus mactans).

189
Q

This spider’s toxin is spingomyelinase D

A

Brown recluse (Loxoseles reclusa)

190
Q

Brown recluse spider’s toxin

A

Spingomyelinase D

191
Q

What does the hobo spider look like?

A

Herringbone striped pattern on the abdomen

192
Q

Jumping spider has what kind of toxin

A

Hyaluronidase (“jump high”

193
Q

Wolf spider has what kind of toxin?

A

Histamine

194
Q

Which spider’s web is funnel shaped?

A

Hobo spider

195
Q

Old world Leichmaniasis vector

New world Leichmaniasis vector

A

(Both sandfly)
Old world:Phlebotomus
New world: Lutzomyia

196
Q

Tapir face

A

Perforation of the nasal septum in Mucocutaneous Leichmaniasis (predominantly New World L. Brazilinesis

197
Q

Mexican who is harvesting chicle gum in the forest gets a ulceration on his ear.

A

Chiclets ulcer - caused by new world Leichmaniasis

198
Q

“Black-fever”

A

“Kala-azar” visceral systemic Leichmaniasis - caused by L. Donovani

199
Q

White islands in a sea of red

A

Dengue fever

200
Q

What type of virus is Orf caused by?

A

Parapox

201
Q

Name all of the conditions caused by a pox virus?

A 
Molluscum 
Orf
Miller's nodule
Vaccinia 
Smallpox
Cowpox
202
Q

Solitary red purple nodule on the finger or multiple cherry red nodules at site of inoculation
-working with cows and baby calves

A

Milkers nodule - Parapox

203
Q

Vaccinia caused by what kind of virus?

A

Orthopox, leading tot he vaccinia virus

204
Q

What is the live virus used for the smallpox vaccine called?

A

Vaccinia

205
Q

What is eczema vaccinatum?

A

Diffuse infection at the site of inoculation of a vaccine in atopic patients

206
Q

What significant clinically about smallpox?

A

Vesicles all in the same stage of development

207
Q

Name two diseases that present similarly to anthrax?

A

Cowpox

208
Q

Name the ONLY single stranded virus

A

Parvovirus. *leutinant parvin from cedarville

209
Q

What does togavirus give you?

A

Rubella

210
Q

What kind of virus is rubella?

A

Togavirus

211
Q

What kind of virus is HCV, and what other diseases are caused by it?

A

Flavivirus -also causes Dengue fever and Yellow fever (RNA virus)

212
Q

Dengue fever is caused by what kind of virus?

A

Flavivirus (RNA)

213
Q

Yellow fever is caused by what kind of virus?

A

Flavivirus (RNA)

214
Q

Influenza is caused by what kind of virus?

A

Orthomyxovirus (RNA)

215
Q

Rabies caused by which kind of virus

A

Rhabdovirus

216
Q

RSV is what kind of virus

A

Paramyxovirus

217
Q

Measles and mumps are what kind of virus?

A

Paramyxovirus

218
Q

Name some paramyxovirus

A

Measles, mumps, RSV

219
Q

HIV and HTLV are what kind of viruses?

A

Retrovirus

220
Q

Name the dsDNA viruses

A 
Herpesvirus
Hepadenovirus (HBV)
Adenovirus
Poxvirus
Papilloma virus
Parvovirus (the only ssDNA)
221
Q

Name the live attenuated viruses

A 
Influenza nasal spray
Measles
Mumps
Rubella
BCG
Yellow fever
Polio oral
Typhoid oral
222
Q

Treat furuncle on the face near the midline with antibiotics because of the risk of what

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

223
Q

What three antibodies become positive after infection with Group A Strep?

A

Antistreptolysin O (ASO), anti-hyaluronidase, anti-DNAse B

224
Q

What type of bacteria is corynebacteria?

A

Gram positive rod

225
Q

Name two examples of gram positive rods

A

Corynebacteria and Anthrax

226
Q

What to treat erythrasma with? And what is it caused by

A

Caused by corynebacterium minutissimum and you treat with topical clindamycin

227
Q

Pitted keratolysis caused by what bacteria?

A

Corynebacterium or kytococcus sedentarius

228
Q

Name the two exotoxins formed by anthrax and name what they each do

A

Edema toxin - increases cAMP levels
&
Lethal toxin - increases TNFalpha and IL1b

229
Q

What are the
Conventional treatment of anthrax?
Bioterrorism treatment of anthrax?

A

Conventional is - PCN

Bioterrorism is cipro or doxy

230
Q

Madura foot (Actinomycetoma) with grain color: white

A

Nocardia

231
Q

Madura foot (Actinomycetoma) with grain color:Pink/cream

A

Actinomadura Madurai

232
Q

Madura foot (Actinomycetoma) with grain color: Yellow or brown

A

Streptomyces

233
Q

Madura foot (Actinomycetoma) with grain color: Red

A

Actinomadura pelletieri

234
Q

Recurrent meningitis in patients with what type of complement deficiency?

A

C5-9

235
Q

Streptobacillus moniliformis causes what disease?

A

Ratbite fever/Haverhill fever

236
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Lyme disease

237
Q

Acrodermatitis chronic atrophic and

A

Loss of subcutaneous fat w/thin atrophic skin associated with Lyme disease

238
Q

Finding in Lyme disease: loss of subcutaneous fate with thin atrophic skin

A

Acrodermatitis chronic atrophicans

239
Q

What nerve is commonly affected in early disseminated Lyme disease

A

Facial nerve

240
Q

Tick causing Lyme disease in the eastern US

A

Ixodes dammini (Ixodes scapularis)

241
Q

Tick causing Lyme disease in the wester US

A

Ixodes pacificus

242
Q

Tick causing Lyme disease in Europe

A

Ixodes ricinus

243
Q

What do you give to pregnant women to treat Lyme disease?

A

Amoxicillin (doxycycline in normal folks)

244
Q

Firm bluish tumor or plaque appearing on the ear lobes of children or the nipples of adults

A

Borrelial lymphocytoma (lymphocytoma cutis). Caused by b. Afzelli or borriela garinii both only present in Europe

245
Q

What three diseases are caused by pediculus humanus var. coporis

A

Louse born relapsing fever
Epidemic typhus
Trench fever

246
Q

Tick borne relapsing fever caused by what vector

A

Soft ticks - ornithodoros

247
Q

Soft ticks - ornithodoros are the vector for what disease?

A

Tick-born relapsing fever

248
Q

Name a few other names for Leptospriosis

A

For Bragg fever
Pretibial fever
Weil disease

249
Q

Leptospira interrogans

A

Leptospirosis

250
Q

Painful pretibial plaques, conjunctivitis, jaundice, diffuse extanthum

A

Leptospirosis

251
Q

Painful pretibial plaques

A

Leptospirosis

252
Q

Organism which causes Yaws

A

Treponemum pallidum (subspecies pertunue)

253
Q

Another name for Frambesia

A

Yaws

254
Q

One to few erythematous papules at inoculation site which disappears, then new smaller lesions spread symmetrically over the body, finally can get gum at a, keratoderma, midfacial distruction

A

Yaws

255
Q

Treatment for general and non-general treponematoses

A

Benzathine PCN

256
Q

Organism causing endemic syphilis (Bejel disease)

A

Treponema pallidum (endemicum subtype)

257
Q

Organism causing Pinta (carate)

A

Treponema carateum

258
Q

What organism causes Chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

259
Q

Name the disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi

A

Chancroid

260
Q

Gram stain “school of fish”

A

Haemophilus ducreyi (Chancroid)

261
Q

Treatment of Chancroid

A

Azithromycin 1g or Ceftriaxone IM

262
Q

Bacteria causing Granuloma inguinale

A

Calymmatobacterium granulomatosis (related to Klebsiella)

263
Q

Another name for Donovanosis

A

Granuloma inguinale

264
Q

Painless subcutaneous papule which ulcerates with painful, beefy, red granulation tissue

A

Granuloma inguinale

265
Q

Which venereal disease has Donovan bodies and russel bodies on path?

A

Granuloma inguinale

266
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by which bacteria

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

267
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

268
Q

Gamma-Favre bodies

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (Chlamydia trachomatis)

269
Q

PPD positive how many days after exposure?

A

2-10 weeks

270
Q

Patient with TB gets a deep nodule over the cervical lymph node

A

Scrofuloderma (seen in a sensitized host with low immunity)

*route is contiguous spread from underlying lymphadenitis

271
Q

Direct inoculation of TB presenting as a painless red-brown papule at the inoculation site

A

Tuberculous chancre (seen in non-sensitized host with no prior immunity)

272
Q

What is the most common cutaneous manifestation of TB?

A

Tuberculosis verrucousa cutis (Warty TB)

  • presents as a small indurated hyperkeratotic papule or warty plaque with serpiginous border
  • route is exogenous - reinfection with direct inoculation at the site of trauma
273
Q

Apple jelly red-brown nodules involving the face or neck in a patient with TB

A

Lupus vulgaris *associated with the highest immunity

274
Q

Painful erythematous papule ulcerated in the oral cavity with TB

A

Tuberculosis cutis orificialis

275
Q

Tiny blue-red papules which become crusted, seen mainly in infants or immunosuppressed patients, associated with TB

A

Military tuberculosis

276
Q

What route is military tuberculosis spread?

A

Hematogenous

277
Q

Subcutaneous inflammatory nodule with ulceration on posterior calves

A

Erythema induratum (Bazin)

278
Q

Ridged wart HPV type

A

HPV 60

279
Q

Best site for biopsy of rabies

A

The neck

280
Q

Guarneri bodies

A

Smallpox

281
Q

Which increases the risk of transmitting HSV infection from mom to fetus more:
-primary infx of the mom vs secondary infx of the mom

A

PRIMARY infection has a MUCH higher risk of transmission (25-50%)
VS
Secondary infection (2-5%)

282
Q

What bacteria causes Rhinoscleroma

A

Klebsiella Pneumonia

283
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum is caused by what bacteria

A

Pseudomonas

284
Q

What do you treat erythema nodosum leprosum with?

A

Thalidomide

285
Q

Name one disease you treat with Thalidomide?

A

Erythema nodosum leprosum

286
Q

Culture medium for atypical mycobacteria

A

Ziehl-Nelson stain; Lowenstein Jensen culture medium

287
Q

What do you treat a fish tank granuloma with?

A

Minocycline

288
Q

Buruli ulcer (bacteria that causes)

A

M. Ulcerans (this is an atypical mycobacterium

*ulcer on the hand after minor trauma - associated with agricultural activities

289
Q

Which atypical mycobacterium are photochromagens? (Pigmentation on exposure to light)

A

M. Kansasii
M. Mariunum
M. Simiae
*monkey swim in kansas in the summer

290
Q

What three diseases does the Ixodes Scapularis tick cause?

A

Lyme disease
Babesiosis
Erlichiosis (human granulocytic)

291
Q

What disease does the Dermacenter tick (American dog tick) cause?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

292
Q

Ambylomma Americanum tick causes what disease

A

RMSF, Ehrlichiosis

293
Q

Which types of Leichmaniasis cause Visceral (Kala-azar)?

A

L. Donovani
L. Infantry
L. Changasi

294
Q

Stewart Treves syndrome

A

Development of angiosarc in the setting of chronic lymphedema

295
Q

What do you treat the plaque with?

A

Streptomycin

296
Q

Treatment for Brucellosis

A

Doxycycline

297
Q

Treatment for Glanders

A

Streptomycin, or doxycycline

298
Q

Treatment for vibrio

A

Doxycycline

299
Q

Treatment for Malakoplakia

A

Cipro

300
Q

Treatment for Rhinoscleroma

A

Cipro

301
Q

Treatment for Haverhill/rat bite fever

A

Penicillin

302
Q

Streptobacillus moniliformis

A

Rat-bite/Haverhill fever

303
Q

Fever, arthritis, ulceration of the site of the bite, associated with rash, acral distribution

A

Ratbite/Haverhill fever (streptobacillus moniliformis)

304
Q

What percent of cases is RMSF “spotless”

A

10-20%

305
Q

B. Garinii

B. Afzelli cause what condition?

A

Borrelial lymphocytoma (firm bluish tumor or plaque on the earlobes of children, nipples of adults)

306
Q

Non-venereal treponemal infection with white vitiligo-like lesions on the face, hands, wrists

A

Pinta (carate) caused by treponema carateum

307
Q

Gamma Favre bodies

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

308
Q

“The groove sign”

A

Pathopneumonic in Lymphogranuloma venerem - which is the enlargement of the femoral lymph nodes, separated by Poupart ligament

309
Q

What is the culture medium to grow leprosy?

A

None! There is no culture medium trick question. It can only be grown in mouse foot pad or non-banded armadillo

310
Q

Which two cutaneous manifestations of TB are from an exogenous route, and what is the difference between the two?

A

Tuberous chancre - in a nonsensitized person

Tuberculosis verrucousa cutis - re-inoculation of a previously sensitized person

311
Q

Which cutaneous manifestation of TB occurs in a person with the highest immunity?

A

Lupus vulgaris

312
Q

Which type of leprosy is cell mediated vs not?

A

Cell mediated - Tuberculid (CD4 cell prominence :/)

Non cell mediated - Lepromatous (CD8 cell prominence :/)

313
Q

Describe the three leprosy reaction states and what you treat each with

A

Type 1 - reversal reaction (upgrading downgrading) - Steroids
Type 2- E. Nodosum leprosum -Thalidomide
Type 3 - Lucio reaction - vasculitis - Steroids

314
Q

Which is the only leprosy reactional state that you dont treat with steroids?

A

Type 2 E Nodosum leprosum - treat with Thalidomide!!!!

315
Q

Buruli ulcer

A

M. Ulcerans (atypical mycobacteria) presents as a growing ulcer on the abdomen of a child in Africa. Treatment is excision

316
Q

Treatment for Burulli ulcer

A

Excision

317
Q

Quickly name the atypical mycobacteria

A 
M. Marinum - fishtank granuloma
M. Ulcerans - Buruli ulcer
M. Fortuitum - fast growing
M. Adium complex - lung, immunosuppressed
M. Kansasii - photochromagens
318
Q

Name the three photochromagen atypical mycobacteria

A

M. Kansasii
M. Marinum
M. Simiae
*monkey swim in kansas in the sun

319
Q

On what part of the hand do you usually find erosio interdigitalis blastomycosis?

A

Fingers - 3rd webspace

Toes - 4th webspace

320
Q

What is scytalidium dimidatium and what do you treat it with?

A

The black nail! A dematiaceous (pigmented) fungus, treat with itraconazole

321
Q

Treatment for scytalidium dimidatum

A

Itraconazole

322
Q

Most common new-world species of Leichmaniasis

A

L. Braziliensis

323
Q

Name the causes of mucocutaneous Leichmaniasis

A

Old world - L. Aethipica

New world - L. Brazillensis, L. Peruviana

324
Q

What two conditions do you treat with Streptomycin?

A

Tularemia and the Plague

325
Q

Name some infections (besides syphilis) that you use penicillin to treat with?

A

Haverhill fever/Rat bite fever

Leptospirosis

326
Q

Treatment for amebiasis

A

Oral metronidazole

327
Q

Treatment for Chagas’ disease

A

Nitrofurtimox/benznidazole

328
Q

First stage -indurated chancre, resolves, fevers, anular erythematous patches, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, then second stage of daytime somnolence

A

Sleeping sickness (African Trypanosomiasis)

329
Q

Another name for African Trypanosomiasis

A

Sleeping sickness

330
Q

Vector for African Trypanosomiasis (Sleeping sickness)

A

Tsetse fly (glossina spp.)

331
Q

Glossina spp.

A

Tsetse fly - vector in sleeping sickness (African trypanosomiasis)

332
Q

Winter bottoms sign associated with what tropical disease?

A

African sleeping sickness(African trypanosomiasis) caused by the tstste fly glossina spp

333
Q

Treatment for African sleeping sickness

A

Suramin
Or
Pentamidine

334
Q

Pentamidine and suramin are treatments for what tropical disease?

A

African sleeping sickness (African Trypanosomiasis, caused by tsetse fly)

335
Q

Treatment for toxoplasmosis

A

Sulfadiazine with pyrimethamine

336
Q

Organism causing cutaneous larva migrans

A

Ancylostoma braziliense

337
Q

Anclostoma braziliense

A

Cutaneous larva migrans

338
Q

Treatment for cutaneous larva migrans

A

Topical thiabendazole OR oral ivermectin

339
Q

Calabar swelling

A

Another name for Loiasis

340
Q

Another name for Loasis

A

Calabar swelling

341
Q

Subcutaneous swelling and conjunctivitis of the eye with a parasite

A

Loiasis

342
Q

Vector in Loiasis

A

Deer or mango fly (Chrysops) *because Loiasis makes you a cyclops after it gets in one eye

343
Q

What do you treat Loiasis with?

A

DEC

344
Q

Treatment for filariasis

A

DEC

345
Q

What three protozoan infections do you treat with DEC?

A

Onchocerciasis
Loiasis
Filariasis

346
Q

Wuchereria bancrofti

A

Organism causing filariasis

347
Q

Another name for Guinea worm disease

A

Dracunculiasis

348
Q

Vector for Dracunculiasis

A

Infected water crustaceans (cyclops)

*remember though that Chrysops which is a deer or mango fly causes Loiasis bc you turn into a cyclops bc it gets in your eye

349
Q

In which parasitic infection do you get wheezing puritis and urticaria as the worm migrates from the GI tract to lower leg skin?

A

Draculinosis

350
Q

Treatment of Dracuculiasis

A

Thiabendazole

351
Q

Treatment for onchocerciasis

A

Ivermectin or

DEC (which causes the Mazzoti reaction)

352
Q

Treatment for schistosomiasis

A

Praziquantel

353
Q

What is the acute form of schistosomiasis called

A

Katayama fever

354
Q

Katayama fever

A

Acute form of schistosomiasis

*Treatment with praziquantel

355
Q

River blindness

A

Onchocerciasis

356
Q

Sub cutaneous nodules containing worms, depigmentation on lower legs, vision loss

A

Onchocerciasis (river blindness)

357
Q

What is the rate of movement of the larva migrans in strongyloides (larva currens?)

A

5-10cm/h

358
Q

Larva currens

A

Strongyloides

359
Q

Treatment for strongyloides (larva currens)

A

Albendazole, thiabendazole, ivermectin

360
Q

What is different about the clinical presentation of scabies in kids vs adults?

A

Can see it on the scalp and face in kids

361
Q

How do you treat crabs?

A

Same as head lice (it is lice of the pubic hair)

362
Q

Maculae Caerulea

A

Slate gray or blue macules on the pubis of people with pubic lice (phthirus pubis)

363
Q

How often does the head louse:
Feed?
Lay eggs?

A

Feeds every 4-6 hours

Lays eggs every 5-10 days

364
Q

What is a risk in using Malathion as a lice treatment?

A

Flammable

365
Q

Old school lice treatment Lindane, and organochloride, no longer first line because of what potential complication

A

Neural toxicity (seizures, confusion)

366
Q

A child comes home from school after being treated for a lice breakout in his school and he has a seizure. What was the drug he was most likely treated with?

A

Lindane

367
Q

Which lice remedy should you not give if treating someone with allergy to ragweed or crysanthemums?

A

Pyrethrin

368
Q

Potential side effect of Pyrethrin lice treatment?

A

Allergy in person who is allergic to ragweed or cysanthemum (bc pryrethrin is made from crysanathemum)

369
Q

Which lice treatment is derived from crysanthemums?

A

Pryrethrin

370
Q

Name the 4 lice treatments and their side effects

A
  1. Malathion - flammable
  2. Lindaine - neural toxicity
  3. Pyrmetherin - none. High resistance
  4. Pyrethrin - cross reaction with crysanthemums/ragweed
371
Q

At what temperature is histo a yeast and at what temp does it have septae

A

25 degrees it has hyphae and septae (when you are 25 you get high*)

37 degrees it is a yeast (think has a bun in the oven)

372
Q

What antibiotic is good to use if pt allergic to PCN?

A

Erythromycin

373
Q

What drugs used to treat Gpositives

A

PCN
Erythromycin
Kephlex

374
Q 
What is the antigen that mediates TSS caused by:
Staph
Vs
Strep
Choices: ET-A/ET-B vs SPE-A
A

Staph - ET-A/ET-B

Strep - SPE-A

375
Q

C. Minutissimum causes what condition

A

Erythrasma

376
Q

C. Tenuis VS C. Minutissimum - which one causes erythrasma and which one causes trichomycosis axillaris?

A

C. Minutissimum causes erythrasma

C. Tenuis causes trichomycosis axillaris

377
Q

Treatment for Erysipeloid?

A

*fish handlers disease, seen in butchers, meat-handlers, red in the third webspace of fingers

Treat with PCN or Erythromycin if PCN allergy

378
Q

Difference between Ecthyma and Ecthyma Gangrenosum

A

Ecthyma is a strep infection - treat with dicloxacillin

Ecthyma gangrenosum is a pseudomonal infection - treat with IV amminoglycoside

379
Q

What do you treat psuedomonal folliculitis with? (Hot tub folliculitis)

A

NOTHING. It is self limited

380
Q

Recurrent meningitis patients may have a defect in what cellular pathway component

A

C5-9

381
Q

Treatment for meningococcemia

A

High dose IV PCN or third gen cephalosporin

382
Q

Treatment for Brucellosis

A

Streptomycin

or Doxy with Rifampin

383
Q

Treatment for Glanders

A

Streptomycin

384
Q

Treatment for Tularemia

A

Streptomycin

385
Q

Treatment for Vibrio

A

Tetracycline

386
Q

Treatment for the plague

A

Streptomycin

387
Q

Treatment for Malakoplakia

A

Cipro and surgical removal

388
Q

Treatment for Rhinoscleroma

A

Cipro

389
Q

Treatment for Rat-bite/Haverhill fever

A

Streptomycin

390
Q

What is the aminoglycoside used to treat glanders, brucellosis, plague, ratbite fever, tularemia

A

Streptomycin

391
Q

What cutaneous infectious diseases does Streptomycin treat?

A 
Glanders
Brucellosis
Plague
Tularemia
Rat-bite Fever

*basically all of the weird gram negative ones. Streptomycin is an amminoglycoside!

392
Q

Treatment for fish tank granuloma (m. Marinum)

A

Minocycline!

393
Q

Treatment for Buruli Ulcer

A

Excision! (Drug therapy is disappointing)

394
Q

Treatment for fast growing mycobacterial infection (FAC)

A

Clarithromycin

395
Q

Treatment for Lobomycosis

A

Surgical excision (antifungals are ineffective)

396
Q

Treatment for mycetoma

A

Oral antifungal (itraconazole, ketoconazole, griseofulvin) and debridement

397
Q

Treatment for chromobrlastomycosis

A

Surgery and/or itraconazole

398
Q

Treatment for sporotrichosis

A

Itraconazole or supersaturated potassium iodide (for lypmhocutaneous form)

399
Q

What do you treat the lymphocutaneous form of sporotrichosis with?

A

SSKI (super-saturated potassium iodide)

400
Q

A gardener gets a subcutaneous nodule, which ulcerates and then begins spreading up his leg.
What is this?
What does it look like on path?
What is the treatment?

A

Lymphocutaneous Sporotrichosis
Sporothirx asteroid body (yeast cell with surrounding eosinophilic fringe
Treat with SSKI (supersaturated potassium iodide)
*side note: the treatment for non lymphocutaneous sporotrichosis is just itraconazole

401
Q

What is a favorable sign in pulmonary coccidiomycosis?

A

Erythema nodosum

402
Q

What other condition do coccidomycosis lesions in an HIV patient resemble?

A

Molluscum

403
Q

Which deep fungal infection resembles molluscum in an HIV patient?

A

Coccidiomycosis

404
Q

Treatment for severe cases of histoplasmosis, less severe cases?

A

Severe cases - amphotericin B

Nonsevere cases - Ketoconazole

405
Q

Treatment for blastomycosis and also paracoccidio (South American blastomycosis)

A

Oral antifungal like itraconazole/ketoconazole

406
Q

Treatment for Cryptococcus?

A

Amphotericin B +/- flucytosine

407
Q

What do you add to amphotericin B to help treat crypto?

A

Flucytosine

408
Q

Which antifungal can cause drug induced LE?

A

Terbinafine and Griseofulvin

409
Q

Name the two types of treponemal tests for syphilis

A

FTA-ABS
MHA-TP

*RPR and VDRL are NONtreponemal serologic tests

410
Q

What are the two most sensitive and specific tests for syphilis

Also

Which is the first serologic test to become positive in syphilis?

A
  1. Most sensitive/specific = treponemal tests (FTA-ABS and MHA-TP)
  2. Quickest to become positive: nontreponemal (RPR/VDRL)
411
Q

What stain identifies spirochetes of syphilis?

A

Warthin Starry stain

412
Q

What does the Warthin Starry stain detecT?

A

Syphilis spirochetes

413
Q

What is OVERALL (serologic, treponemal, nontreponemal, path stains ect) most sensitive and specific test to detect PRIMARY syphilis?

A

Darkfield microscropy

*treponemal tests (FTA-ABS and MHA-TP) are the most sensitive and specific SEROLOGIC tests
And the *nontreponemal tests (VDRL AND RPR) are the serologic tests used to track progress of treatment

414
Q

What is a stain you can use to determine Kaposis?

A

HHV -8 (or another name for it is the LANA-1 stain)

415
Q

What else can tularemia be caused by besides rabbits?

A

Deer Fly (its actually called deer fly fever sometimes)

416
Q

Test for Sarcoidosis (old school, not done anymore)

A

Kevin-siltzback rest ( where they inject ansarcoid granuloma from the spleen into the skin and see if it reacts - yuck)

417
Q

Kveim-Siltzback test

A

Test for Sarcoidosis

418
Q

Two viruses implicated in Gianotti-Crosti syndrome

A

HBV, EBV (HHV4)

419
Q

Gianotti Crosti Syndrome - viruses implicated

A

EBV (HHV4), HBV

420
Q

Virus implicated in Hand foot and mouth disease

A

Cocksackie (an enterovirus)

421
Q

If you see a bite with TWO PUNCTURE WOUNDS what organism could it be

A

CENTIPEDE

422
Q

What is the venoumous substance in honey bee venom?

A

Phospholipase

423
Q

HPV type EDV (cancerous types)

A

HPV 5,8

424
Q

HPV type plantar wart

A

HPV type 1

425
Q

HPV type verrucous carcinoma

A

HPV 6,11

426
Q

HPV type Heck’s disease

A

HPV 13, 32

427
Q

HPV type Butchers wart

A

HPV 2, 7

428
Q

HPV ridged wart

A

HPV 60

429
Q

HPV Bowenoid papulosis

A

HPV 16, 18

430
Q

HPV type flat wart

A

HPV type 3,10

DERMATOLOGY (16 decks)

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