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MICROPARA FINALS > Infectious Diseases of Lymphatic & Immune System > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases of Lymphatic & Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

Most common causative agent of infectious mononucleosis

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

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2
Q

Acute viral infection resulting to leukocytosis and glandular enlargement

A

Infectious Mononucleosis

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3
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis is also known as:

A
  • Kissing Disease
  • Glandular Fever
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4
Q

Mode of Transmission

A

Contact (Kissing, Fomites)

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5
Q

Assessment of Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Fever, Pharyngitis, Lymphadenopathy

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6
Q

Complications of Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Splenomegaly, Hepatomegaly, Thrombocytopenia

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7
Q

Diagnosis of Infectious Mononucleosis

A
  • PA Clinical Triad
  • WBC Differential
  • Heterophile Agglutination Test
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8
Q

Treatment of Infectious Mononucleosis
(Bright Stars Paint Nighttime Skies)

A
  • Bed rest
  • Saline gargle
  • Paracetamol
  • NSAIDs
  • Steroids
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9
Q

Contact Precautions for Infectious Mononucleosis:
(1) Do not ____ eating utensils,
(2) Do not ____ infected persons, and
(3) Practice _____

A

(1) Do not SHARE eating utensils,
(2) Do not KISS infected persons, and
(3) Practice GOOD HYGIENE

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10
Q

Meaning of AIDS

A

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

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11
Q

Causative agent of AIDS

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

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12
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: There is currently no effective cure. Once people get HIV, they have it for life.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Proper medical care can control the virus

A

TRUE

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14
Q

Mode of Transmission for AIDS

A

Contact (Unprotected sex, sharing of needles)

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15
Q

Assessment of AIDS
(Frogs Near Water Find Lily Pads)

A
  • Fever
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
  • Fatigue
  • Lymphadenopathy
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16
Q

AIDS Complication

A

Opportunistic infections

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17
Q

Opportunistic infections
(Paul’s Pet Cat Chased A Kangaroo Briefly)

A
  • PCP (Pneumocytis Pneumonia)
  • PTB (Pulmonary Tuberculosis)
  • Candidiasis
  • C. diff Diarrhea
  • AIDS Dementia Complex
  • Kaposi’s Sarcoma
  • Burkitt’s Lymphoma
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18
Q

HIV: Diagnosis
- With a ____, usually done with ____ from a finger stick or with ____, results are ready in ____. This includes HIV self-tests used ____ or ____.

A

With a rapid antibody test, usually done with blood from a finger stick or with oral fluid, results are ready in 30 minutes or less. This includes HIV self-tests used at home or in a private location.

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19
Q

Nucleic Acid Test NAT) Window Period

A

10-33 days

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20
Q

Antigen/Antbody Lab Test Window Period

A

18-45 days

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21
Q

Rapid Antigen/Antibody Test Window Period

A

18-90 days

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22
Q

Antibody Test Window Period

A

23-90 days

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23
Q

Can usually detect HIV 23-90 days after exposure; mostly rapid tests and self-tests

A

Antibody tests

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24
Q

Done with blood from a finger stick; can usually detect HIV 18-90 days after exposure

A

Rapid Antigen/Antibody Test

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25
Q

Uses blood from a vein; can detect HIV 18-45 days after exposure

A

Antigen/Antibody Lab Test

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26
Q

HIV Tests after diagnosis

A
  • CD4 T-Cell count
  • Viral Load/HIV RNA
  • Medicine Resistance
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27
Q

These are WBCs that HIV target and destroys

A

CD4 T-Cells

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28
Q

HIV infection becomes AIDS when the CD4 T-Cell count dips below _____

A

Below 200

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29
Q

This test measures the amount of virus in your blood

A

Viral Load/HIV RNA

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30
Q

After starting HIV treatment, the goal is to have a viral load so low that it doesn’t show up on the test, called _____.

A

After starting HIV treatment, the goal is to have a viral load so low that it doesn’t show up on the test, called UNDETECTABLE.

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31
Q

This guides treatment decisions and helps your healthcare professional know if your form of the virus has resistance

A

Medicine Resistance

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32
Q

AIDS Treatment

A
  • HAART
  • Trizivir
  • Abacavir + Lamivudine + Zidovudine
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33
Q

Contact Precautions form AIDS

(1) Careful handling and disposal of ____
(2) Use of ____ as substitute
(3) ____; use of condoms
(4) ____ as prophylaxis

A

(1) Careful handling and disposal of SHARPS
(2) Use of MILK FORMULA as substitute
(3) ABSTINENCE; use of condoms
(4) TENOFOVIR as prophylaxis

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34
Q

This is an acute, self-limiting, contagious, viral infection affecting the nasopharynx of the upper respiratory tract

A

Common Colds

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35
Q

Common colds is also known as:

A
  • Viral Rhinitis
  • Coryza
  • Nasopharyngitis
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36
Q

Etiologic agent of Common Colds

A
  • Coronavirus
  • Adenovirus
  • Rhinovirus
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37
Q

Mode of Transmission of Common Colds

A
  • Airborne
  • Contact
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38
Q

Risk Factors of Common Colds

A
  • Poor hygiene
  • Cold and Rainy Weather
  • Sleep Deprivation
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39
Q

Assessment of Common Colds
(Rabbits Never Stop Hopping For Miles)

A
  • Rhinorrhea
  • Nasal Congestion
  • Sneezing
  • Headache
  • Fever
  • Malaise
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40
Q

Complications of Common Colds
(Silly Owls Love Bright Autumns)

A
  • Sinusitis
  • Otitis Media
  • Laryngitis
  • Bronchitis
  • Asthma
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41
Q

Diagnosis of Common Colds

A

PA Clinical S/Sx

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42
Q

Treatment of Common Colds
(Birds Silently Dart In Serene Meadows)

A
  • Bed rest
  • Saline gargle
  • Decongestants
  • Increased oral fluids
  • Steam ihalation
  • Mucus aspiration
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43
Q

This is a contagious, systemic, viral infection primarily affecting the respiratory tract

A

Influenza

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44
Q

Influenza is also known as:

A

Flu

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45
Q

Etiologic Agent of Influenza

A

Myxovirus - Influenza Virus A, B, or C

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46
Q

Mode of Transmission of Influenza

A
  • Airborne
  • Contact
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47
Q

Risk Factors of Influenza

A
  • Smoking
  • Extremes of Age
  • Immunosuppression
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48
Q

Assessment of Influenza

A
  • Fever
  • Chills
  • Headache
  • Malaise
  • Myalgia
  • Arthralgia
  • Nonproductive Cough
  • Pharyngitis
  • Nasal Congestion
  • Rhinorrhea
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49
Q

Complication of Influenza

A

Pneumonia

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50
Q

Diagnosis of Influenza

A
  • P.A.
  • Throat Culture
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51
Q

Prevention of Influenza:

(1) ____ Precaution
(2) ____ Precaution
(3) Maintain ____
(4) Avoid ____

A

(1) Contact Precaution
(2) Airborne Precaution
(3) Maintain adequate rest, nutrition, and exercise
(4) Avoid close contact with infected patient

52
Q

This is an antiviral drug that is given to both adults and children ages 12 years and older. This is to start as soon as possible and must begin within 5 days of when symptoms starts. This is also to be taken orally

A

Nirmatrelvir with Ritonavir (Paxlovid)

53
Q

This is an antiviral drug that is given to both adults and children. This is to start as soon as possible and must begin within 7 days of when symptoms starts. This is also to be taken via IV infusions at a healthcare facility for 3 consecutive days

A

Remdesivir (Veklury)

54
Q

This is an antiviral drug that is given to both adults and children. This is to start as soon as possible and must begin within 5 days of when symptoms starts. This is also to be taken orally

A

Molnupiravir (Lagevrio)

55
Q

This is a contagious disease that affects the salivary glands

56
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Mumps is still a common disease, so it is important to get vaccinated to protect yourself.

57
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Most people with mumps recover completely within 2 weeks.

58
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: People who are infected with mumps do not get sick right away.

59
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: It can take 1-2 weeks for them to show signs of infection.

A

FALSE (2-4 weeks)

60
Q

Common signs of Mumps

A
  • Puffy cheeks
  • Tender, swollen jaw caused by swollen salivary glands under one or both ears
61
Q

Most serious complication of Mumps

A

Brain inflammation

62
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Some people who have been vaccinated against can still get the disease. However, they usually have more severe symptoms and complications are more frequent.

A

FALSE

Milder symptoms, complications are less frequent

63
Q

Mumps spread through ____ from the ____

A

Mumps spread through the direct contact with saliva or respiratory droplets from the mouth, nose, or throat

64
Q

You can get mumps and spread the virus by:

A
  • Coughing, sneezing, or talking
  • Sharing items that may have saliva on them
  • Participating in close-contact activities with others
65
Q

When are people contagious?

A
  • Beginning a few days before their salivary glands begin to swell
  • Up until 5 days after the swelling begins
66
Q

Getting ____ doses of mumps vaccine is the best protection against mumps

A

Getting 2 doses of mumps vaccine is the best protection against mumps

67
Q

It is usually given as a combination vaccine called ____, which protects agains all three diseases

A

It is usually given as a combination vaccine called measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine which protects agains all three diseases

68
Q

An acute viral respiratory illness characterized by a prodome of fever, malaise, three C’s; a pathognomic enanthema followed by maculopapular rash

69
Q

Three C’s of Measles

A
  • Cough
  • Coryza (inflammation of nasal mucous membranes)
  • Conjuctivitis
70
Q

The pathognomic enathema of Measles

A

Koplik spots

71
Q

The rash usually appears about ____ days after a person is exposed

A

The rash usually appears about 14 days after a person is exposed

72
Q

The rash spreads from _ to _ to _.

A

The rash spreads from the head to the trunk to the lower extremities.

73
Q

Patients are considered to be contagious from _ to _.

A

Patients are considered to be contagious from 4 days before to 4 days after the rash appears.

74
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Sometimes, immunocompromised patients do not develop the rash.

75
Q

Measles is caused by a ____, enveloped ____ virus with ____.

A

Measles is caused by a single-stranded, enveloped RNA virus with 1 stereotype.

76
Q

It is classified as a member of the genus ____ in the ____ family.

A

Morbillivirus; Paramyxoviridae

77
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Humans are the only artificial hosts of measles virus.

A

FALSE

Humans are the only natural hosts of measles virus.

78
Q

The measles virus can be transmitted by:

A
  • Direct contact with infectious droplets
  • Airborne spread when an infected person breathes, coughs, or sneezes
79
Q

Measles virus can remain infectious in the air for up to ____ after an infected person leaves an area.

A

Measles virus can remain infectious in the air for up to 2 hours after an infected person leaves an area.

80
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: There is no specific antiviral therapy for measles for medical care is only supportive and helps relieve symptoms and address complications

81
Q

Management for severe measles

82
Q

Severe measles cases among children, such as those who are hospitalized, should be treated with ____, which is to be administered immediately on diagnosis and repeated the next day

83
Q

Age-Specific Daily Dose of Vitamin A for infants younger than 6 months

84
Q

Age-Specific Daily Dose of Vitamin A for infants 6-11 months

A

100,000 IU

85
Q

Age-Specific Daily Dose of Vitamin A for children 12 months of age and older

A

200,000 IU

86
Q

The preferred placement for patients who require airbone precautions

A

Single-patient airborne infection isolation room (AIIR)

87
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Regardless of presumptive immunity status, all healthcare staff entering the room should use respiratory protection consistent with airborne infection control precautions, which includes the usage of an N95 respirator.

88
Q

This is an acute infectious disease caused by varicella-zoster virus

A

Varicella/Chicken Pox

89
Q

Common Complications of Chickenpox

A
  • bacterial infections of the skin and soft tissues in children
  • pneumonia in adults
90
Q

Most effective prevention for Varicella

A

Chickenpox vaccination

91
Q

Reactivation of latent infection

A

Herpes Zoster (shingles)

92
Q

This is where the VZV stays after the primary infection in the body

A

Sensory Nerve Ganglia

93
Q

Average incubation period

A

14-16 days

94
Q

It takes ____ after exposure to the virus for someone to develop varicella

A

10-21 days

95
Q

Mode of transmission of varicella
1. ______

  1. Inhalation of ______ from ______ of skin lesions of acute varicella or zoster
  2. Through infected ______ that may also be aerosolized
A

(1) Direct contact
(2) aerosols; vesicular fluid
(3) respiratory secretions

96
Q

A person with varicella is considered contagious beginning ____ before rash onset until all the chickenpox lesions have crusted

A

A person with varicella is considered contagious beginning 1 to 2 days before rash onset until all the chickenpox lesions have crusted

97
Q

Vaccinated people may develop lesions that ____. These people are considered contagious until no new lesions have appeared for ____.

A

Vaccinated people may develop lesions that do not crust. These people are considered contagious until no new lesions have appeared for 24 hours.

98
Q

A mild prodrome of fever and malaise may occur ____, particularly in adults.

A

A mild prodrome of fever and malaise may occur 1 to 2 days before rash onset, particularly in adults.

99
Q

First sign of chickenpox in children

100
Q

In unvaccinated people, varicella progresses rapidly from ____ before crusting

A

In unvaccinated people, varicella progresses rapidly from macular to papular to vesicular lesions before crusting

101
Q

The most common chicken pox complication in children

A

Bacterial infections of the skin and soft tissues

102
Q

The most common chickenpox complication in adults

103
Q

This occurs less frequently among those who have received 2 doses of vaccine

A

Breakthrough Varicella

104
Q

If negative air-flow rooms are not available, patients with varicella should be isolated in ____

A

Closed rooms

105
Q

This is a viral disease caused by any of the four related viruses: dengue virus 1, 2, 3, and 4

106
Q

The most common dengue symptom is ____

107
Q

Other common dengue symptoms
(A New Violet Rose Arose)

A
  • Aches and pains (eye pain, typically behind the eyes, muscle, joint, or bone pain)
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Rash
  • Any warning sign
108
Q

Symptoms of dengue usually begin ____ after being bitten by an infected mosquito and lasts for ____. Most people recover after ____.

A

Symptoms of dengue usually begin WITHIN 2 WEEKS after being bitten by an infected mosquito and lasts for 2-7 DAYS. Most people recover after ABOUT A WEEK.

109
Q

Dengue viruses are mainly spread to people by the bite of an infected ____.

A

Aedes mosquito

110
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: There is no specific medicine to treat dengue

111
Q

Patient Management for Dengue:

(1) ____ as much as possible
(2) Take ____ to control fever and relieve pain
(3) Drink ____ to stay hydrated
(4) ____ hydration
(5) ____ for severe cases

A

(1) REST as much as possible
(2) Take ACETAMINOPHEN to control fever and relieve pain
(3) Drink PLENTY OF FLUIDS to stay hydrated
(4) IV hydration
(5) PLATELET TRANSFUSION for severe cases

112
Q

This is a serious disease caused by a parasite that infects a certain type of mosquito that can be deadly if not diagnosed and treated quickly

113
Q

Early sypmtoms of malaria include:
(Friendly Cats Happily Meow To Nearby Visitors Downtown)

A
  • Fever and flu-like illness
  • Chills
  • Headache
  • Muscle aches
  • Tiredness
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
114
Q

Severe symptoms of malaria include:
(Kangaroos Swiftly Move)

A
  • Kidney failure
  • Seizures
  • Mental confusion
115
Q

These are types of mosquitoes that transmit malaria from one person to another

A

Anopheles mosquitoes

116
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: All Anopheles mosquitoes have malaria

A

FALSE

Not all Anopheles mosquitoes have malaria, but if they bite a person with malaria, they can become infectious

117
Q

When to see a healthcare provider in malaria:

A
  • You are experiencing any of the symptoms of malaria, and
  • You have traveled in the last year to or from an area where malaria occurs
118
Q

This will confirm malaria

A

A lab test using a small sample of your blood

119
Q

These can treat and cure malaria

A

Prescription drugs

120
Q

The types of drugs and length of treatment of malaria depends on:
1. The type of _____
2. _____ the person was infected
3. _____ they are when treatment starts
4. Other factors: _____ and ______

A

(1) malaria
(2) Where (geographic location)
(3) How sick
(4) age and pregnancy

121
Q

Avoid areas with high mosquito activity especially during ____

A

Late evening and at night

122
Q

Use a bug spray approved by the ____

A

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

123
Q

Wear ____, ____ shirts, pants, and socks

A

Loose-fitting, long-sleeved

124
Q

This is the preferred treatment for any parasite that is sensitive to the drug

A

Chloroquine phosphate

125
Q

This is the combination of two or more drugs that work against the malaria parasite in different ways. This is usually the preferred treatment for chloroquine-resistant malaria

A

Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT)

126
Q

Examples of ACT

A
  • Artemether-Lumefantrine (Coartem)
  • Artesunate-Mefloquine

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