Infectious Diseases of Lymphatic & Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

Most common causative agent of infectious mononucleosis

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

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2
Q

Acute viral infection resulting to leukocytosis and glandular enlargement

A

Infectious Mononucleosis

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3
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis is also known as:

A
  • Kissing Disease
  • Glandular Fever
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4
Q

Mode of Transmission

A

Contact (Kissing, Fomites)

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5
Q

Assessment of Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Fever, Pharyngitis, Lymphadenopathy

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6
Q

Complications of Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Splenomegaly, Hepatomegaly, Thrombocytopenia

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7
Q

Diagnosis of Infectious Mononucleosis

A
  • PA Clinical Triad
  • WBC Differential
  • Heterophile Agglutination Test
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8
Q

Treatment of Infectious Mononucleosis
(Bright Stars Paint Nighttime Skies)

A
  • Bed rest
  • Saline gargle
  • Paracetamol
  • NSAIDs
  • Steroids
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9
Q

Contact Precautions for Infectious Mononucleosis:
(1) Do not ____ eating utensils,
(2) Do not ____ infected persons, and
(3) Practice _____

A

(1) Do not SHARE eating utensils,
(2) Do not KISS infected persons, and
(3) Practice GOOD HYGIENE

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10
Q

Meaning of AIDS

A

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

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11
Q

Causative agent of AIDS

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

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12
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: There is currently no effective cure. Once people get HIV, they have it for life.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Proper medical care can control the virus

A

TRUE

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14
Q

Mode of Transmission for AIDS

A

Contact (Unprotected sex, sharing of needles)

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15
Q

Assessment of AIDS
(Frogs Near Water Find Lily Pads)

A
  • Fever
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
  • Fatigue
  • Lymphadenopathy
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16
Q

AIDS Complication

A

Opportunistic infections

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17
Q

Opportunistic infections
(Paul’s Pet Cat Chased A Kangaroo Briefly)

A
  • PCP (Pneumocytis Pneumonia)
  • PTB (Pulmonary Tuberculosis)
  • Candidiasis
  • C. diff Diarrhea
  • AIDS Dementia Complex
  • Kaposi’s Sarcoma
  • Burkitt’s Lymphoma
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18
Q

HIV: Diagnosis
- With a ____, usually done with ____ from a finger stick or with ____, results are ready in ____. This includes HIV self-tests used ____ or ____.

A

With a rapid antibody test, usually done with blood from a finger stick or with oral fluid, results are ready in 30 minutes or less. This includes HIV self-tests used at home or in a private location.

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19
Q

Nucleic Acid Test NAT) Window Period

A

10-33 days

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20
Q

Antigen/Antbody Lab Test Window Period

A

18-45 days

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21
Q

Rapid Antigen/Antibody Test Window Period

A

18-90 days

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22
Q

Antibody Test Window Period

A

23-90 days

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23
Q

Can usually detect HIV 23-90 days after exposure; mostly rapid tests and self-tests

A

Antibody tests

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24
Q

Done with blood from a finger stick; can usually detect HIV 18-90 days after exposure

A

Rapid Antigen/Antibody Test

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25
Uses blood from a vein; can detect HIV 18-45 days after exposure
Antigen/Antibody Lab Test
26
HIV Tests after diagnosis
* CD4 T-Cell count * Viral Load/HIV RNA * Medicine Resistance
27
These are WBCs that HIV target and destroys
CD4 T-Cells
28
HIV infection becomes AIDS when the CD4 T-Cell count dips below _____
Below 200
29
This test measures the amount of virus in your blood
Viral Load/HIV RNA
30
After starting HIV treatment, the goal is to have a viral load so low that it doesn't show up on the test, called _____.
After starting HIV treatment, the goal is to have a viral load so low that it doesn't show up on the test, called **UNDETECTABLE**.
31
This guides treatment decisions and helps your healthcare professional know if your form of the virus has resistance
Medicine Resistance
32
AIDS Treatment
* HAART * Trizivir * Abacavir + Lamivudine + Zidovudine
33
Contact Precautions form AIDS (1) Careful handling and disposal of ____ (2) Use of ____ as substitute (3) ____; use of condoms (4) ____ as prophylaxis
(1) Careful handling and disposal of **SHARPS** (2) Use of **MILK FORMULA** as substitute (3) **ABSTINENCE**; use of condoms (4) **TENOFOVIR** as prophylaxis
34
This is an acute, self-limiting, contagious, viral infection affecting the nasopharynx of the upper respiratory tract
Common Colds
35
Common colds is also known as:
* Viral Rhinitis * Coryza * Nasopharyngitis
36
Etiologic agent of Common Colds
* Coronavirus * Adenovirus * Rhinovirus
37
Mode of Transmission of Common Colds
* Airborne * Contact
38
Risk Factors of Common Colds
* Poor hygiene * Cold and Rainy Weather * Sleep Deprivation
39
Assessment of Common Colds (Rabbits Never Stop Hopping For Miles)
* Rhinorrhea * Nasal Congestion * Sneezing * Headache * Fever * Malaise
40
Complications of Common Colds (Silly Owls Love Bright Autumns)
* Sinusitis * Otitis Media * Laryngitis * Bronchitis * Asthma
41
Diagnosis of Common Colds
PA Clinical S/Sx
42
Treatment of Common Colds (Birds Silently Dart In Serene Meadows)
* Bed rest * Saline gargle * Decongestants * Increased oral fluids * Steam ihalation * Mucus aspiration
43
This is a contagious, systemic, viral infection primarily affecting the respiratory tract
Influenza
44
Influenza is also known as:
Flu
45
Etiologic Agent of Influenza
Myxovirus - Influenza Virus A, B, or C
46
Mode of Transmission of Influenza
* Airborne * Contact
47
Risk Factors of Influenza
* Smoking * Extremes of Age * Immunosuppression
48
Assessment of Influenza
* Fever * Chills * Headache * Malaise * Myalgia * Arthralgia * Nonproductive Cough * Pharyngitis * Nasal Congestion * Rhinorrhea
49
Complication of Influenza
Pneumonia
50
Diagnosis of Influenza
* P.A. * Throat Culture
51
**Prevention of Influenza**: (1) ____ Precaution (2) ____ Precaution (3) Maintain ____ (4) Avoid ____
(1) **Contact** Precaution (2) **Airborne** Precaution (3) Maintain **adequate rest, nutrition, and exercise** (4) Avoid **close contact with infected patient**
52
This is an antiviral drug that is given to both adults and children **ages 12 years and older**. This is to start as soon as possible and must begin **within 5 days** of when symptoms starts. This is also to be **taken orally**
Nirmatrelvir with Ritonavir (Paxlovid)
53
This is an antiviral drug that is given to both adults and children. This is to start as soon as possible and must begin **within 7 days** of when symptoms starts. This is also to be **taken via IV infusions** at a healthcare facility for 3 consecutive days
Remdesivir (Veklury)
54
This is an antiviral drug that is given to both adults and children. This is to start as soon as possible and must begin **within 5 days** of when symptoms starts. This is also to be **taken orally**
Molnupiravir (Lagevrio)
55
This is a contagious disease that affects the salivary glands
Mumps
56
TRUE OR FALSE: Mumps is still a common disease, so it is important to get vaccinated to protect yourself.
TRUE
57
TRUE OR FALSE: Most people with mumps recover completely within 2 weeks.
TRUE
58
TRUE OR FALSE: People who are infected with mumps do not get sick right away.
TRUE
59
TRUE OR FALSE: It can take 1-2 weeks for them to show signs of infection.
FALSE (2-4 weeks)
60
Common signs of Mumps
* Puffy cheeks * Tender, swollen jaw caused by swollen salivary glands under one or both ears
61
Most serious complication of Mumps
Brain inflammation
62
TRUE OR FALSE: Some people who have been vaccinated against can still get the disease. However, they usually have more severe symptoms and complications are more frequent.
**FALSE** **Milder** symptoms, complications are **less** frequent
63
Mumps spread through ____ from the ____
Mumps spread through the **direct contact with saliva or respiratory droplets** from the **mouth, nose, or throat**
64
You can get mumps and spread the virus by:
* Coughing, sneezing, or talking * Sharing items that may have saliva on them * Participating in close-contact activities with others
65
When are people contagious?
* Beginning a few days before their salivary glands begin to swell * Up until 5 days after the swelling begins
66
Getting ____ doses of mumps vaccine is the best protection against mumps
Getting **2 doses** of mumps vaccine is the best protection against mumps
67
It is usually given as a combination vaccine called ____, which protects agains all three diseases
It is usually given as a combination vaccine called **measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine** which protects agains all three diseases
68
An acute viral respiratory illness characterized by a prodome of fever, malaise, three C's; a pathognomic enanthema followed by maculopapular rash
Measles
69
Three C's of Measles
* Cough * Coryza (inflammation of nasal mucous membranes) * Conjuctivitis
70
The pathognomic enathema of Measles
Koplik spots
71
The rash usually appears about ____ days after a person is exposed
The rash usually appears about **14 days** after a person is exposed
72
The rash spreads from _ to _ to _.
The rash spreads from the **head** to the **trunk** to the **lower extremities**.
73
Patients are considered to be contagious from _ to _.
Patients are considered to be contagious from **4 days before** to **4 days after the rash appears**.
74
TRUE OR FALSE: Sometimes, immunocompromised patients do not develop the rash.
TRUE
75
Measles is caused by a ____, enveloped ____ virus with ____.
Measles is caused by a **single-stranded**, enveloped **RNA** virus with **1 stereotype**.
76
It is classified as a member of the genus ____ in the ____ family.
Morbillivirus; Paramyxoviridae
77
TRUE OR FALSE: Humans are the only artificial hosts of measles virus.
**FALSE** Humans are the only **natural** hosts of measles virus.
78
The measles virus can be transmitted by:
* Direct contact with infectious droplets * Airborne spread when an infected person breathes, coughs, or sneezes
79
Measles virus can remain infectious in the air for up to ____ after an infected person leaves an area.
Measles virus can remain infectious in the air for up to **2 hours** after an infected person leaves an area.
80
TRUE OR FALSE: There is no specific antiviral therapy for measles for medical care is only supportive and helps relieve symptoms and address complications
TRUE
81
Management for severe measles
Isolation
82
Severe measles cases among children, such as those who are hospitalized, should be treated with ____, which is to be administered immediately on diagnosis and repeated the next day
Vitamin A
83
Age-Specific Daily Dose of Vitamin A for infants younger than 6 months
50,000 IU
84
Age-Specific Daily Dose of Vitamin A for infants 6-11 months
100,000 IU
85
Age-Specific Daily Dose of Vitamin A for children 12 months of age and older
200,000 IU
86
The preferred placement for patients who require airbone precautions
Single-patient airborne infection isolation room (AIIR)
87
TRUE OR FALSE: Regardless of presumptive immunity status, all healthcare staff entering the room should use respiratory protection consistent with airborne infection control precautions, which includes the usage of an N95 respirator.
TRUE
88
This is an acute infectious disease caused by varicella-zoster virus
Varicella/Chicken Pox
89
Common Complications of Chickenpox
* bacterial infections of the skin and soft tissues in children * pneumonia in adults
90
Most effective prevention for Varicella
Chickenpox vaccination
91
Reactivation of latent infection
Herpes Zoster (shingles)
92
This is where the VZV stays after the primary infection in the body
Sensory Nerve Ganglia
93
Average incubation period
14-16 days
94
It takes ____ after exposure to the virus for someone to develop varicella
10-21 days
95
Mode of transmission of varicella 1. ______ 2. Inhalation of ______ from ______ of skin lesions of acute varicella or zoster 3. Through infected ______ that may also be aerosolized
(1) Direct contact (2) aerosols; vesicular fluid (3) respiratory secretions
96
A person with varicella is considered contagious beginning ____ before rash onset until all the chickenpox lesions have crusted
A person with varicella is considered contagious beginning **1 to 2 days** before rash onset until all the chickenpox lesions have crusted
97
Vaccinated people may develop lesions that ____. These people are considered contagious until no new lesions have appeared for ____.
Vaccinated people may develop lesions that **do not crust**. These people are considered contagious until no new lesions have appeared for **24 hours**.
98
A mild prodrome of fever and malaise may occur ____, particularly in adults.
A mild prodrome of fever and malaise may occur **1 to 2 days before rash onset**, particularly in adults.
99
First sign of chickenpox in children
Rash
100
In unvaccinated people, varicella progresses rapidly from ____ before crusting
In unvaccinated people, varicella progresses rapidly from **macular to papular to vesicular lesions** before crusting
101
The most common chicken pox complication in children
Bacterial infections of the skin and soft tissues
102
The most common chickenpox complication in adults
Pneumonia
103
This occurs less frequently among those who have received 2 doses of vaccine
Breakthrough Varicella
104
If negative air-flow rooms are not available, patients with varicella should be isolated in ____
Closed rooms
105
This is a viral disease caused by any of the four related viruses: dengue virus 1, 2, 3, and 4
Dengue
106
The most common dengue symptom is ____
Fever
107
Other common dengue symptoms (A New Violet Rose Arose)
* Aches and pains (eye pain, typically behind the eyes, muscle, joint, or bone pain) * Nausea * Vomiting * Rash * Any warning sign
108
Symptoms of dengue usually begin ____ after being bitten by an infected mosquito and lasts for ____. Most people recover after ____.
Symptoms of dengue usually begin **WITHIN 2 WEEKS** after being bitten by an infected mosquito and lasts for **2-7 DAYS**. Most people recover after **ABOUT A WEEK**.
109
Dengue viruses are mainly spread to people by the bite of an infected ____.
Aedes mosquito
110
TRUE OR FALSE: There is no specific medicine to treat dengue
TRUE
111
**Patient Management for Dengue**: (1) ____ as much as possible (2) Take ____ to control fever and relieve pain (3) Drink ____ to stay hydrated (4) ____ hydration (5) ____ for severe cases
(1) **REST** as much as possible (2) Take **ACETAMINOPHEN** to control fever and relieve pain (3) Drink **PLENTY OF FLUIDS** to stay hydrated (4) **IV** hydration (5) **PLATELET TRANSFUSION** for severe cases
112
This is a serious disease caused by a parasite that infects a certain type of mosquito that can be deadly if not diagnosed and treated quickly
Malaria
113
Early sypmtoms of malaria include: (Friendly Cats Happily Meow To Nearby Visitors Downtown)
* Fever and flu-like illness * Chills * Headache * Muscle aches * Tiredness * Nausea * Vomiting * Diarrhea
114
Severe symptoms of malaria include: (Kangaroos Swiftly Move)
* Kidney failure * Seizures * Mental confusion
115
These are types of mosquitoes that transmit malaria from one person to another
Anopheles mosquitoes
116
TRUE OR FALSE: All Anopheles mosquitoes have malaria
**FALSE** Not all Anopheles mosquitoes have malaria, but if they bite a person with malaria, they can become infectious
117
When to see a healthcare provider in malaria:
* You are experiencing any of the symptoms of malaria, and * You have traveled in the last year to or from an area where malaria occurs
118
This will confirm malaria
A lab test using a small sample of your blood
119
These can treat and cure malaria
Prescription drugs
120
The types of drugs and length of treatment of malaria depends on: 1. The type of _____ 2. _____ the person was infected 3. _____ they are when treatment starts 4. Other factors: _____ and ______
(1) malaria (2) Where (geographic location) (3) How sick (4) age and pregnancy
121
Avoid areas with high mosquito activity especially during ____
Late evening and at night
122
Use a bug spray approved by the ____
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
123
Wear ____, ____ shirts, pants, and socks
Loose-fitting, long-sleeved
124
This is the preferred treatment for any parasite that is sensitive to the drug
Chloroquine phosphate
125
This is the combination of two or more drugs that work against the malaria parasite in different ways. This is usually the preferred treatment for chloroquine-resistant malaria
Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT)
126
Examples of ACT
* Artemether-Lumefantrine (Coartem) * Artesunate-Mefloquine