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infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of pneumonia is associated with cold sores?

A

Strep Pneumoniae

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2
Q

Type and name of organism causing bacterial vaginosis?

A

Gardnerella Vaginalis - gram positive coccobacilli

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3
Q

Organism causing acute epiglottitis?

A

H Influenzae

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4
Q

What type of organism is Brucella?

A

Gram negative

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5
Q

Which one of the following organisms causes lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

Chlamydia

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6
Q

Deep ulcer with a ragged border is seen on the shaft of the penis, the lesion is tender with associated inguinal lymphadenopathy - lesion? Caused by which organism?

A

Chancroid caused by Haemophilus ducreyi

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7
Q

Medication to prevent relapse of Plasmodium ?

A

Primaquine

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8
Q

Man returns from trip abroad with maculopapular rash and flu-like illness?

A

HIV seroconversion

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9
Q

Most common cause of travellers’ diarrhoea?

A

E Coli

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10
Q

Salmonella typhi main sx?

A

Constipation, vomiting, abdo pain, fever

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11
Q

What is the treatment of malaria with severe parasitaemia (>10%)?

A

Exchange transfusion + artesunate

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12
Q

Treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Oral metronidazole

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13
Q

What is Monod’s sign characteristic of?

A

Aspergilloma

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14
Q

Immunocompromised patients with toxoplasmosis rx? Presentation on CT?

A

Multiple hypodense, ring-enhancing lesions, rx with pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine

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15
Q

Pruritic rash on the buttocks or soles? Treatment?

A

Strongyloides stercoralis, rx with Ivermectin and Albendazole

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16
Q

Chagas disease most frequent complication?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy - Chagas Cardiomyopathy

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17
Q

Mechanism of macrolides?

A

Macrolides inhibit the 50S subunit of ribosomes

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18
Q

What is Chinese letter pattern typical of? Complication of organism?

A

Diptheria - heart block

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19
Q

First line in hyatid disease?

A

Albendazole

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20
Q

Severe joint pain and high fever on return from Africa?

A

Chikungunya

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21
Q

First line abx for UTI for methotrexate patients?

A

Nitrofurantoin

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22
Q

Flaccid paralysis, diplopia, ataxia - no sensory involvement

A

Clostridium botulinum - affects release of acetylcholine

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23
Q

Hydrophobia, pyrexia, headache, hypersalvation - cluster of sx for which condition?

A

Rabies

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24
Q

Retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, thrombocytopenia in returning traveller?

A

Dengue

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25
Q

Flu like illness → brief remission→ followed by jaundice and haematemesis

A

Yellow fever

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26
Q

Trypanosomiasis rx?

A

Pentamidine

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27
Q

Bacterial meningitis rx?

A

IV cefotaxime + dexamethasone (with dose 1 and every 6 hours)

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28
Q

Prophylaxis for meningococcal meningitis contacts?

A

Oral cipro or rifamp

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29
Q

PEP following HIV exposure?

A

Combination antiretrovirals and repeat HIV test in 12 weeks

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30
Q

First line for HIV illness testing?

A

Rapid HIV antibody ELISA + p24 antigen test

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31
Q

Aspergilloma on scan - next step?

A

Serology

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32
Q

Cyclical fever every 48 hours?

A

Plasmodium vivax/ovale

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33
Q

Cyclical fever every 72 hours?

A

Plasmodium malariae

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34
Q

Genital warts caused by which strains of HPV?

A

6 + 11

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35
Q

Genital warts - first and second line rx?

A

1 - topical podo/cryotherapy
2 - topical imiquimod

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36
Q

Animal bites - common organism?

A

Pasteurella multocida

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37
Q

Human bites - organisms?

A

Strep pneumo, staph aureus, Eikenella
Fusobacterium
Prevotella

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38
Q

BCG vaccine prevents?

A

Disseminated TB/TB meningitis

39
Q

Commonest cause of bladder calcification?

A

Schistosomiasis

40
Q

Low vaccine rates, low CSF glucose?

41
Q

Amantadine mechanism?

A

Inhibits virus uncoating

42
Q

Aciclovir mechanism?

A

Inhibits DNA polymerase

43
Q

Neisseria appearance?

A

Gram neg cocci

44
Q

Most common cause of viral meningitis?

45
Q

Use of thick and thin blood films in malaria?

A

Thick - parasite burden, Thin - speciation

46
Q

Erysipelas organism?

A

Strep pyogenes

47
Q

How is measles spread?

48
Q

Fluctuating temperatures, transient arthralgia and myalgia, hyperhidrosis with a ‘wet hay’ smell? +/- unpasteurised cheese consumption?

49
Q

Cat scratch?

A

Bartonella

50
Q

Hepatitis with reduced GCS, a flapping tremor, and a clotting screen consistent with disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Hep E - 3 week incubation period (think of lines in E)

51
Q

Enhancing lesions on CT?

A

Cerebral abscess, cerebral metastasis and tuberculomas

52
Q

Latent TB?

A

3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin OR 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

53
Q

Normal chest auscultation or crackles in PJP?

54
Q

Stain for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia?

A

Silver stain

55
Q

Listeria type of organism?

A

Gram positive rod

56
Q

Which drug inhibits cell wall synthesis?

A

Cephalosporins

57
Q

Which feature is most characteristic of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia?

A

Normal chest sounds

58
Q

Gram positive rods (bacilli)?

A

Actinomyces, Bacillus Anthrax, Clostridium, Diptheria, Listeria

59
Q

Gram negative cocci?

A

Neisseria meningitidis + Neisseria gonorrhoeae, also Moraxella catarrhalis

60
Q

Latent TB rx?

A

3 months of isoniazid with pyridoxine and rifampicin
6 months of isoniazid with pyridoxine

61
Q

Rx for Chagas/American Tryp?

A

Benznidazole

62
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis treatment?

A

Metronidazole

63
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis following HIV needle stick?

A

Combo antivirals + 12 week blood test

64
Q

Linezolid works against which two pathologies?

A

MRSA and VRE (Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococcus)

65
Q

Presentation of dysentery after a long incubation period?

A

Amoebiasis

66
Q

Rabies exposure?

A

Give immunglobulin + vaccination

67
Q

Post splenectomy?

A

Pneumococcal, Haemophilus type B and meningococcus type C

68
Q

Blisters/bullae - no mucosal involvement (in exams at least*)/mucosal involvement?

A

Mucosal - pemphigus vulgaris
No mucosal - bullous pemphigoid

69
Q

Primary herpes simplex infection can cause which type of rash?

A

Erythema multiforme

70
Q

Terbinafine mechanism of action?

A

Inhibits the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase, causing cellular death

71
Q

Amphotercin B mechanism of action?

A

Binds with ergosterol

72
Q

False positive VDRL/RPR?

A

SLE, TB, malaria, HIV - sometimes mistakes happen

73
Q

How to diagnose cryptosporidum?

74
Q

Types of organisms - strep pneumo, e coli, h influenzae, listeria?

A

Strep pneumo - gram positive diplococci
E coli - gram negative bacilli
H influenzae - gram neg coccobacilli
Listeria - gram positive rod

75
Q

Management of leprosy?

A

Rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine for 12 months >6 lesions
Rifampicin, dapsone for 6 months <6 lesions

76
Q

Amantadine mechanism?

A

Inhibits virus uncoating

77
Q

Bloating, watery diarrhoea, foreign country?

A

Giardiasis

78
Q

Following treatment for syphilis: TPHA remains XXXX, VDRL becomes XXXX?

A

TPHA - positive
VDRL - negative

79
Q

Dark and ashen, weight loss, fever, massive splenomegaly?

A

Leishmaniasis

80
Q

This protozoan infection typically presents with a green, frothy, and malodorous vaginal discharge, accompanied by vulvar itching and dyspareunia (pain during sexual intercourse)? Management?

A

Trichomonas - metronidazole

81
Q

Low CSF glucose?

82
Q

Transmitted by sandflies and usually presents as an erythematous patch or papule which gradually enlarges and becomes an ulcer with a raised indurated border?

A

Cutaneous leishmaniasis

83
Q

Trypansomiasis rx?

A

Pentamidine

84
Q

Cryptosporodiosis in immcompromised?

A

Nitazoxanide

85
Q

Oseltamavir mechanism?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitor

86
Q

Bloating watery diarrhoea non bloody?

A

Giardiasis

87
Q

Nesseria?

A

Gram neg cocci

88
Q

Which element would push you towards systemic treatment of their cutaneous leishmaniasis?

A

Cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America merits treatment due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis whereas disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.

89
Q

Listeria meningitis rx?

A

Amox and gent

90
Q

PID rx?

A

First-line: stat IM ceftriaxone + followed by 14 days of oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole - this now considered first-line due to the desire to avoid systemic fluoroquinolones where possible
Second-line: oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole

91
Q

Which abx can cause MSRA?

92
Q

Cholera rx?

93
Q

Campylobactyr rx?

mrcp 1 (18 decks)

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