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incorrect deck 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria dx?

A

Flow cytometry for CD59 + 55

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2
Q

Subunits of troponin?
troponin C?: binds to calcium ions
troponin T?: binds to tropomyosin, forming a troponin-tropomyosin complex
troponin I?: binds to actin to hold the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place

A

troponin C: binds to calcium ions
troponin T: binds to tropomyosin, forming a troponin-tropomyosin complex
troponin I: binds to actin to hold the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place

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3
Q

Factor 8 and 9 blood results?

A

8 - raised PT
9 - raised APTT

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4
Q

Pseudogout crystals?

A

Weakly positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

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5
Q

Most common cause of antithrombin C def?

A

CKD

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6
Q

Acoustic neuromas seen in which pathology?

A

NF2

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7
Q

Renal angiomyolipoma seen where?

A

TS

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8
Q

Low leucocyte alk phos score seen where?

A

Pernicious anaemia, PNH, CML, Mono

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9
Q

Young woman develops AKI post ACEi?

A

Fibromusc dysplasia

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10
Q

LOC - rapid interval, long interval?

A

EDH, SDH

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11
Q

Type 1 and 2 HRS?

A

Type 1 - rapid onset
Type 2 - slower onset, more gradual decline in renal function and is generally associated with refractory ascites

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12
Q

Baclofen mechanism?

A

GABA agonist

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13
Q

Linezolid works on which bugs?

A

VRE + MRSA

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14
Q

Osmotic demyelination syndrome develops secondary to?

A

Astrocyte apoptosis

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15
Q

Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome, occurs following occlusion of the? Signs?

A

Post inf cerebellar artery
Cerebellar signs, contralateral sensory loss & ipsilateral Horner’s

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16
Q

Phenomena exhibited by carbamazepine?

A

Autoinduction

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17
Q

What type of receptor does insulin bind to?

A

Tyrosine kinase

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18
Q

What type of receptor does epinephrine bind to?

A

Beta 1

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19
Q

GI Hormones:
Gastrin?
Secretin?
VP?
CCK?
Somatostatin?

A

G cells - stomach
S cells - small intestine
Pancreas and small intestine
I cells - small intestine
D cells - pancreas + stomach

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20
Q

Gilberts syndrome inheritance?

A

Autosomal recessive

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21
Q

Pain worse on resisted wrist extension/suppination whilst elbow extended?

A

Lat epicondylitis

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22
Q

Features of ToF?

A

Defective septum, RVH, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis

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23
Q

Cryoglobulinaemia - type 1 2 3?

A

1 - raynauds
2 - sjogrens
3 - ra

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24
Q

Most common and severe form of renal disease in SLE patients?

A

Diffuse proliferative

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25
Q

Painful and painless genital ulcers?

A

Painful - bechets and herpes
Painless - syphillis LGV donovanosis

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26
Q

FOB +ve pts with colorectal cancer?

A

5-15%

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27
Q

Mycoplasma rx?

A

Macrolide or doxy

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28
Q

DEXA in over 75s with fragility fracture?

A

No

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29
Q

Relationship between fluconazole + ciclosporin?

A

Flucon inhibits ciclo and can increase ciclo toxicity

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30
Q

IV rx for staph aureus endocarditis?

A

Fluclox + rifam + gent

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31
Q

Downward and upward dislocation of lens?

A

Downwards - Homocyst
Upwards - Marfan’s

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32
Q

Complication of acute pancreatitis?

A

ARDS

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33
Q

Anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies association?

A

Idiopathic membranous glomnep

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34
Q

Test of choice in gestational diabetes?

A

OGTT

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35
Q

Necrolytic migratory erythema and?
Erythroderma and?
Acanthosis nigricans and?
Sweet’s syndrome and?
Erythema gyratum repens and?

A

Glucagonoma
Lymphoma
GI cancer
Myelodysplasia
Lung ca

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36
Q
A
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37
Q

Toxic multinodular goitre rx?

A

Radioiodine

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38
Q

Acute and prophylactic rx for migraine?

A

Acute - NSAID triptan PCM
Prop - topmate/propranolol

39
Q

Following the application of a plaster cast patients should wait x hours before short flights (< 2 hours) and x hours before longer flights?

40
Q

Drugs exhibiting FPM?

A

aspirin
isosorbide dinitrate
glyceryl trinitrate
lignocaine
propranolol
verapamil
isoprenaline
testosterone
hydrocortisone

41
Q

Which is least useful in assessing the severity of a patient with liver cirrhosis?

42
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy?

A

Aspirin and LMWH

43
Q

Genital warts - keratinised and non keratinised?

A

Keratinised - cryotherapy
Non keratinised - topical podophyllum

44
Q

When to organise haemodialysis for lithium toxicity?

A

Lithium >2.5

45
Q

When to start warfarin after ischaemic stroke?

46
Q

Most common glomerulonephropathy linked to renal vein thrombosis?

A

Membranous

47
Q

Causes of upper and lower zone fibrosis?

A

Upper - coal worker’s, hypersensi pneumonitis, ank spond, radiation, TB, silicosis/sarcoid
Lower - most conn tissue disease, asbestosis, IPF, drug induced - methotrex, bleomycin, amiodarone

48
Q

Heterophile test for which dx?

A

Infectious Mono

49
Q

First and second line in pregnancy induced HTN?

A

1) labetalol 2) nifedipine

50
Q

Katayama fever caused by which organism and when?

A

Schistosoma - few weeks after exposure

51
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy - vertical or horizontal gaze affected?

A

Vertical gaze

52
Q

Drug classes in breast cancer:
SERM?
HER2?
aromatase inhibitor?

A

tamoxifen, trastuzumab, anastrozole

53
Q

Homo hemianopia defect? L sided?

A

R optic tract

54
Q

Homo hemianopia:
Incongruous defects =
Congruous defects =
Macula sparing =

A

Optic tract lesion
Optic radiation lesion or occipital cortex
Occ cortex

55
Q

Bitemp hemianopia site of lesion?
Upper quad defect?
Lower quad defect?

A

Optic chiasm
Upper quadrant defect > lower quadrant defect = inferior chiasmal compression, commonly a pituitary tumour
Lower quadrant defect > upper quadrant defect = superior chiasmal compression, commonly a craniopharyngioma

56
Q

Complete heart block following inferior/anterior MI?

A

Inferior - observation only
Anterior - temp pacemaker

57
Q

Main cause of hypercalcaemia in malignancy?

A

Parathyroid-hormone-related peptide release

58
Q

First line medication for SIBO?

59
Q

Differentiating between anti phospholipid syndrome and activated protein c resistance?

A

APS - thrombocytopenia - not present in protein c resistance

60
Q

Elevated follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) levels, along with the low oestradiol level, are indicative of?

A

Primary ovarian insufficiency

61
Q

First line medication for preventing TLS?

A

Rasburicase

62
Q

Differentiating between homocystinuria and marfan’s?

A

Homocyst - learning difficulties and downward lens dislocation
Marfans - no learning difficulties and upward lens dislocation

63
Q

Conn’s syndrome features?

A

Hypertension and hypokalemia

64
Q

Phaeochromocytoma features?

A

Hypokalemia and episodic hypertension

65
Q

Which type of rheum conditions is Hep B associated with?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

66
Q

Is hypertension present in minimal change disease?

A

No - only 10%

67
Q

If a patient with ulcerative colitis has had a severe relapse or >=2 exacerbations in the past year they should be given either?

A

Oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine

68
Q

CKD on haemodialysis - most likely cause of death is?

69
Q

STEMI management - if primary PCI cannot be offered within 120 mins of sx onset what should be given?

A

Fibrinolysis

70
Q

Carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joint involvement is characteristic of?

71
Q

Drug causes of SIADH?

A

Carbamazepine, SSRIs, TCAs, sulphonylureas

72
Q

IgM and IgG?

A

IgM - primary immune response
IgG - secondary immune response

73
Q

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia inheritance?

A

Autosomal dominant

74
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis test?

A

EMA binding

75
Q

When to check MCT levels after anaphylaxis?

A

1-2 hours after event + 24 hours

76
Q

First line for delirium tremens?

77
Q

SGLT2 inhibitor works where?

78
Q

TTP features?

A

Fever, anaemia (normocytic), thrombocytosis, renal involvement, neuro + raised LDH

79
Q

ECG findings of a premature ventricular complex arising every other beat - first line rx?

A

Ventricular bigeminy, bisop

80
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the cholera toxin that causes secretary diarrhoea?

A

Increased adenylate cyclase activity within intestinal cells

81
Q

Muscle involved in ankle clonus?

A

Gastrocnemius

82
Q

Type of nystagmus in cerebellar lesion?

83
Q

Pink rod shaped bacteria - UTI in young female?

84
Q

Sparkling on ECHO?

A

Amyloidosis

85
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis rx?

A

Amphotericin B + flucytosine followed by oral fluconazole

86
Q

Pity rosea?

A

Herald patch -> then spread

87
Q

Bechet’s associated with which reaction?

A

Pathergy - ulceration upon skin break

88
Q

Pyloric stenosis acid base?

A

Hypokalemic alkalosis

89
Q

Hemidesmosomes and desmosomes present in which pathology?

A

Hemi - bullous pemphigoid
Desmo - pemp vulgaris

90
Q

Hypotension, raised JVP and clear lung fields make up the classic triad of?

A

RV infarction

91
Q

Differentiating primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary - low PTH
Secondary - raised PTH

92
Q

Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy as well as contralateral hemiparesis?

A

Weber’s syndrome - midbrain lesion

93
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism, bilateral renal artery stenosis and Bartter syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemia and raised aldosterone

mrcp 1 (18 decks)

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