Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A. AMC - MCQ MATEO 2024 > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

measles

A

Notify department of health
– Take blood for measles serology-in Australia measles vaccine is given at the age of 12 months.
– Discuss the nasal swab PCR for measles with the department of health.
– Isolate her in the community from other contacts.
– There is no need to send the patient to the emergency department as it would risk the spread of measles to other susceptible patients in the hospital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Zostavax

A

vaccine used to prevent herpes zoster infection
live attenuated vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Zostavax contraindications

A

– Severely immunocompromised patients such as this patient who is on long term
steroids for his rheumatoid arthritis.

– Hematological malignancy.

– Recipients of haemopoietic stem cell transplantation.

-HIV infection and immunosuppression (below 15% CD4 lymphocytes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Genital chlamydial infection

A

sexually transmitted
is commonly asymptomatic until severe salpingitis or urethritis occurs
common cause of infertility due to
tubal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cat scratch disease

A
  • B.henselae from cats to humans through a contaminated
    cat scratch wound or across a mucosal surface
  • Symptoms occurs 3 to 10 days after initial injury.
  • papulopustular lesions at the bite site
  • enlarged tender regional lymph nodes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Axillary vein thrombosis

A

sportsmen
after strenuous exercise like wrestling.
oedema and redness
No tender lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

JE vaccination for shorter-term travellers, particularly if:

A

travel is during the wet season
travel may be repeated
the person will spend a lot of time outdoors
the person’s accommodation has no air-conditioning, screens or bed nets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Typhoid vaccine may be recommended for travellers ≥2 years of age travelling to
endemic regions, including:

A

the Indian subcontinent
most Southeast Asian countries
several South Pacific nations, including Papua New Guinea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cholera vaccine

A

Most travellers do not need
not officially recommended by WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

if the traveller has never received a dose of traveller has never received a dose of dTpa.

A

offer dTpa vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

if the last dose was more than 10 years ago

A

Adults are recommended to receive a booster dose of tetanus-containing vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fever with rigors and chills

A

Biliary sepsis, lymphoma, pyelonephritis and pneumococcal pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Thailand + fever + rash + joint pain + low platelets + low WBC

A

Dengue fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dengue fever treatment

A

Suppurative treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Zika virus

A

microcephaly
- SEEN IN BABIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

shingles (herpes zoster infection)

A
  • within 72 hours= famciclovir or acyclovir for
    7-10 days after taking the viral swab.

after 72 hours since the onset of rash= no
benefit with antiviral treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

key serological feature of hepatitis D

A

Anti-LKM3 (liver, kidney microsomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

autoimmune hepatitis.

A

anti-LKM1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

outcome of liver transplantation

A

chronic hepatitis D is better than that for
chronic hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chronic hepatitis D infection

A

increases the severity and progression of chronic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

if HDV infection occurs in acute hepatitis B

A

Chronic hepatitis D infection is unlikely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

malaria incubation period

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

malaria prevention

A
  • Doxycycline 100mg daily one day before the trip and continuing for four
    weeks after leaving malaria zone.
  • Atovaquone/proguanil 250mg/100mg tablet started 1-2 days before travel and continued for
    seven days after leaving malaria area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

clinical diagnosis of herpes zoster infection

A
  • maxillary nerve of the trigeminal nerve in this patient with a rash without an eruption.
    Severe unilateral facial pain may be the first symptom of acute herpes zoster (shingles) and precedes the skin rash by a few days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

sudden, brief and very severe paroxysms of
pain on one side of the face, in the distribution of one or more branches of the
trigeminal) nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Definitive diagnosis of N. gonorrhoea infection

A

nucleic-acid amplification testing of a urethral or urine sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Appropriate therapy for gonococcal urethritis

A

single dose of ceftriaxone 250 mg
intramuscularly plus a single dose of azithromycin 1 gram orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia

A
  • Single dose of 1-gram Azithromycin or Doxycycline for
    seven days.
  • Should not have sex until at least a week has passed after the treatment.
  • notifiable disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis B (hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulins)
recommended

A

– The exposed person has been vaccinated in the past and the post-vaccination antiHBs level is below 10 mIU/ml.

– Un-vaccinated exposed individuals.

– Unknown vaccination status of the exposed person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

previously vaccinated persons exposed + response to previous vaccination is unknown

A

the anti-HBs level should be
determined as quickly as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

previously vaccinated persons exposed+
protective response anti-HBs level =10
mIU/mL at any time after previous vaccination

A

post-exposure prophylaxis is
not necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Live attenuated zoster vaccine is contraindicated in persons

A

– Chemotherapy.
– Radiation therapy.
– Oral corticosteroids (asthma, COPD, etc)
– Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs).
– Malignant conditions of the reticuloendothelial system (such as lymphoma, leukaemia, Hodgkin’s disease).
– AIDS or symptomatic HIV infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

positive HBsAg
positive HBcAb (IgM)

A

Acute infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

HBeAg positive

A

high infectivity in recent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

influenza vaccine

A
  • Protection for the mother and the
    newborn baby for the first six months after birth
  • free to all pregnant woman in Australia.
  • recommended for all pregnant women regardless of
    gestation.
  • recommended for a woman planning a pregnancy.
  • An unvaccinated pregnant woman should be immunised at any time during influenza season
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

unsafe sex + for HIV checkup

A

wait for 12 weeks before a test can
reliably confirm or rule out HIV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Contraindications for administering
pertussis-containing vaccinations

A
  • severe allergic reaction to the vaccine (or
    to one of its components)
  • encephalopathy not due to any other cause within 7
    days of a prior vaccination.
  • Uncontrolled neurological disorders should prompt a
    delay of the vaccination until the condition has been sufficiently assessed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Post sexual assault victim + STI prophylaxis

A

ceftriaxone 250 mg intramuscular as a single dose,
azithromycin 1 gram as a single dose and metronidazole 2 gram as a single
dose

to cover gonorrhoea, chlamydia species
and trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

most commonly seen symptom in botulism

A

Dysarthria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

needle stick injury + exposure to an HIV positive person

A

PEP is recommended. ASAP
PEP should not be offered more than 72
hours after exposure.

health care worker should have
follow-up HIV-antibody testing at baseline, 6 weeks,
3months up to 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

medication of choice for prophylaxis
of malaria

A

Doxycyclin and atovaquone-proguanil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Current recommendations about chlamydia infection of urogenital tract

A

– Treat the patient with oral antibiotics.
– Do contact tracing and treat the patient’s all sexual contacts in last six months.
– Notify health department (GP responsibility).
– Repeat testing for chlamydia in 3-12 months for reinfection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common pneumonia with HIV/AIDS

A

Pneumocystis Jiroveci (PJP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

dry cough + slow onset of pneumonia symptoms + CD4 < 200

A

Pneumocystis Jiroveci (PJP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HIV + rapid onset acute pneumonia symptoms + lung consolidation

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

hospital-acquired
pneumonia (HAP

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

community-acquired pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

high grade fever + chills after recovering from pneumonia

A

IV cannula bacteraemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

copious yellow-green sputum + underlying condition (pneumonia)

A

Bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Bronchiectasis management

A

Ticarcillin-clavulanate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

foul-smelling productive cough + Fever + Weight loss + Malaise

A

lung abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

high fever + respiratory symptoms precipitated from pneumonia treatment

A

Superinfection by a different type of bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

fever + arthralgia/arthritis + skin rash precipitated by pneumonia treatment

A

Serum sickness (hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

lung abscess management protocol

A
  1. chest X-ray
  2. sputum stains and
    cultures
  3. Chest CT
    Uncomplicated: IV antibiotics
    Complicated: Transpleural drainage/lobectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

eyebrow and eyelash loss with no loss of scalp hair; skin changes +
history of paresthesias

A

Hansens disease/ leprosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Standard treatment for lepromatous leprosy

A

dapsone, rifampin, and clofazimine administered for 12 to 24 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Gonorrhea infection management

A

– Ceftriaxone 500mg IM in 2ml of 1% lignocaine Plus Azithromycin 1000mg stat
orally.
– Advise no sex even with condoms for 7 days and no sex with recent or previous
partners until they have been tested and treated.
– Contact tracing for gonorrhoea is recommended for the previous 2 months.
– Offer test of cure in 4 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

patient on high-dose corticosteroids +
positive CSF India ink stain

A

Cryptococcal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

patient with hemolytic uremic syndrome,

A

stool culture on sorbitol MacConkey will
help diagnose E coli O157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Primary syphilis

A

-10-90 days after contact
- glans penis/vulva-cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Secondary syphilis

A

2-10 weeks
- headache, anorexia, vomiting, fever, neck stiffness
- non-pruritic bilateral maculopapular rash
- generalised non-tender lymphadenopathy
patchy alopecia/condylomata lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Latent syphilis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Syphilis tests

A

dark field microscopy
rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test
fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) tes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

erythema nodosum + weight loss + productive cough/blood

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Tuberculosis steps in investigation

A
  1. QuantiFERON-TB/Tuberculin test
  2. Chest X-ray
  3. 3 sputum (AFB)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

history of pulmonary tuberculosis +
MRI shows a right frontal lesion +
biopsied which shows

A

Caseating granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

patients with HIV + CD4 below 50 cells/μ
prophylaxis?

A

prophylaxis against Mycobacterium Avium
Complex (MAC) should also be commenced, after exclusion of active MAC Complex (MAC) should also be commenced, after exclusion of active MAC
or Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (TB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

opportunistic infections in HIV infected patients

A
  • Pneumocystis jiroveci: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
  • Toxoplasmosis: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
  • Mycobacterium avium: Azithromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

80-year-old + 3-day history of a painful rash +
forehead and down to his left eyelid + weeping vesicular lesions

A

Herpes zoster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Giardia lamblia

A

CLAMPS, bloating, loose stools or explosive watery foul diarrea smeling.
weight loss and steatorrea

INCUBATION 7-14 DAYS

dx: ELISA
PCR
STOOL MICROSCOPY

ssymptomatic or inmuno :
METRONIDAZOLE 2G X 3 DAYS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

mainstay of Vibrio cholerae therapy

A

Oral glucoseelectrolyte solution rehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

First-line treatment of PHN (Postherpetic neuralgia)

A

(TCAs)

73
Q

Investigations for Men who have sex with Men (MSM)

A

– Pharyngeal swab for gonorrhoea
– Anal swab gonorrhoea and chlamydia PCR
– Urine PCR for chlamydia
– Serology for HIV, Syphilis, Hepatitis B and C.
– Vaccinate for hepatitis B if not immune
– Repeat test for HIV in 12 weeks (window period).

74
Q

peripheral blood film in infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

A

lymphocytosis with >10% atypical/reactive
lymphocytes (Downey cells).

75
Q

Elevated
aminotransferases + pharyngitis

A

possibility of IM.

76
Q

Resuming activity in IM

A

resume non-contact sports after >3
weeks and contact sports >4 weeks after illness onset to prevent splenic rupture.

77
Q

high grade fever+ swollen tonsils with exudate + rash precipitated by penicillin

A

Epstein-Barr infectious mononucleosis (EBV IM)

78
Q

Epstein-Barr infectious mononucleosis (EBV IM) investigation

A
  • Most appropriate: FBC to see lymphocytosis (>50% lymphocytes)
  • Diagnostic: Paul-Bunnell test / Monospot test
79
Q

EBV associated cancers

A

Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal CA.

80
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

tick bite
fever, headache, malaise, myalgia, nausea, vomiting,
and anorexia as the most common symptoms
Involvement of the palms and
soles is considered important for diagnosis of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

81
Q

Lyme
disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi
erythema chronicum migrans, a target-shaped lesion
chronic
meningitis preceded by an arthralgia
Facial weakness may be the only neurologic sign of Lyme disease.
Optic neuritis

82
Q

significantly decreased CSF glucose + high protein level + elevated CSF opening pressure

A

bacterial, TB, fungal and carcinomatosis meningitis,

83
Q

bacterial meningitis treatment

A
  1. IV antibiotics
  2. Corticosteroids (dexamethasone)
  3. analgesics
84
Q

bacterial meningitis + Listeria
monocytogenes

A

ampicillin plus gentamicin.

85
Q

infant + drowsiness + fever + petechial rash

A

meningococcaemia (life threatening)

86
Q

meningococcaemia treatment

A

IV fluids + supplemental oxygen

87
Q

sleeping sickness + tsetse flies

A

Human African trypanosomiasis
Pentamidine is used in the treatment

88
Q

investigations in female sexual health workers

A

– HPV test 5-yearly (unless abnormal)
– HIV screening (if negative, proceed with HIV serology), then perform serology test annually
– First-catch urine for chlamydia and gonorrhoea PCR
– Syphilis serology and 12-monthly
– Endocervical swabs for Chlamydia and gonorrhoea 3 monthly (if 100% condom
use, more frequently if <100% condom use)
-Hepatitis A and B serology, (if hep A and B status unknown and patient has not
completed a course of hep A and B vaccination, offer testing and if no serological
evidence of immunity (i.e., anti-HA negative and/or anti-HBs negative, offer
appropriate immunisation) –> only perform annual serology test for hepatitis A and
B if not immunised)
– Hepatitis C serology and 12-monthly
If there is a history of oral sex without condoms, consider doing throat swab for
gonorrhoea and chlamydia.

89
Q

immunity status is unknown in measles

A

recommended that all
immunocompetent. non-pregnant patient receive MMR of vaccine with in 72 hours
of exposure. A second dose should then follow at least 4 weeks later.

90
Q

head injury to the left temporal region + unresponsive after a lucid interval + progressive right-sided weakness

A

epidural hematoma

features Rapid expansion expansion of
the EH:
Increase intracranial pressure (eg, Cushing triad of hypertension, bradycardia, and bradypnea),
compress compress the temporal lobe leads to uncal herniation

91
Q

(in epidural hematoma)uncal herniation in temporal lobe causes:

A
  • Ipsilateral fixed and dilated pupil from compression of the ipsilateral
    oculomotor nerve (CN III)
  • Contralateral hemiparesis Contralateral hemiparesis (compression of the ipsilateral cerebral peduncle)

-Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing from
compression of the ipsilateral posterior cerebral artery

worsening herniation = psilateral hemiparesis, a false localizing sign known as Kernohan phenomenon

92
Q

Local tenderness + erythema + IV drug abuse

A

osteomyelitis

93
Q

osteomyelitis investigation

A

MRI

94
Q

acute dacryocystitis treatment

A

oral di/flucloxacillin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, or cephalexin
-IV if severe cellulitis,
orbital involvement (orbital cellulitis) or severe adjacent facial/periseptal cellulitis.

95
Q

UTI treatment in renal impairment

A

Trimethoprim

96
Q

HACEK

A

H Hemophilus,
A Aggregatibacter actinomycetmcomitans,
C Cardiobacterium hominis,
E Eikenella corrodens
K Kingella kingae.

97
Q

HACEK in infective endocarditis complications

A

mycotic (infective) aneurysms

98
Q

HACEK investigation

A

CT angiography

99
Q

most common cause of epididymoorchitis

A

<35: Chlamydia
>35: E.coli

100
Q

inflammation of meibomian glands

A

Internal hordeolum (meibomian
abscess).

101
Q

Internal hordeolum infection pathogen

A

Staphylococcus aureus)

102
Q

entamoeba histolytica
clinica
dx
tx

A

Amoebic dysentery and extraintestinal disease

Amoebic liver abscess Pleuropulmonary infectionBrain abscessPerinephric or splenic abscess*Cardiac disease (e.g pericarditis

DX
Stool microscopy :The demonstration of cysts or trophozoites in the stool suggests intestinal amebiasis.Antigen testingMolecular methods: PCR

TX
1. **Asymptomatic carriage **of Entamoeba histolytica: luminal agent: Paromomycin 500 mg orally, 8-hourly for 7 days

  1. Invasive amoebiasis :For acute amoebic colitis (dysentery), use:
    1 Tinidazole 2 orally, daily for 3 days OR 2 Metronidazole 600 mg orally, 8-hourly for 7 days

3.For severe amoebic colitis (eg frequent blood-stained stools, perforation, peritonitis or toxic megacolon), use:
1 Tinidazole 2 g orally, daily for 5 days OR
2 Metronidazole 800 mg (orally, 8-hourly for 7 days

103
Q

entamoeba histolytica
AMOEBIC LIVER ABSCESS
clinic
dx
tx

A

*(A)
Sonogram shows a round mass consisting of a** band of peripheral solid part (arrows), and central liquefied part showing low-level internalechoes.**

(B)
A contrast-enhanced computed tomography scan shows a peripheral solid and central liquefied part.

  • Upon surgical intervention, the central portion was liquefied and contained “anchovy paste.”
104
Q

Amoebic Vs Pyogenic Liver Abscess

A
105
Q

SCHISTOSOMIASIS

genitourinary disease ?

A

It targets the vasculature of the GIT or genitourinary tract.
Egypt, other parts of Africa, South America, some parts of Southeast Asia, and China.
** highest insub-Saharan Africa**

Freshwater snails are the carriers (vectors).

Schistosoma haematobium=genitourinary disease . Hematuria and obstructive uropathy; associated with squamous cell bladder cancer

clinical:
local skin reaction
Within a week or so there is a generalized allergic response
A gastroenteritis-like syndrome
lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly.

Neurologic complications: Spinal cord neuroschistosomiasis (transverse myelitis), cerebral or cerebellar neuroschistosomiasis (increased ICP, focal CNS signs, seizures)
*Pulmonary complications: Granulomatous pulmonary endarteritis, pulmonary HTN, cor pulmonale; especially in patients with hepatosplenic involvement

dx:
Serology (high sensitivity and specificity), CBC (eosinophilia, anemia, thrombocytopenia)

S. Mansoni, S. Japonicum: eggs in stool, liver U/S shows fibrosis, rectal biopsy
*S. Hematobium: bladder biopsy, eggs in urine and occasionally stool, kidney, and bladder USG

tX :
Praziquantel (may need retreatment)Add glucocorticoid if acute schistosomiasis or neurologic complications develop

106
Q

HYDATID DISEASE

A

usually form hydatid cysts in the liver and lungs
dog parasite Echinococcus granulosus

Clinical manifestations:——————————–
Mostly asymptomatic
*If the liver is involved (2/3 of the time) nausea, vomiting, and right upper quadrant pain
*If the lung is involved (25% of the time)cough, chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis
*Rupture of a cyst (usually hepatic) can cause severe anaphylaxis with possible death.
*Hepatosplenomegaly

DIAGNOSIS :—————————–
Complete blood count:
*Mild eosinophilia + Mild elevation in liver function
labs Serologic and antigen assays:
*Enzyme-linked immunosorbentassay (ELISA)»Can be used for primarydiagnosis and follow-up after treatment
*A negative serologic test does not rule out echinococcosis.

Cyst aspiration/biopsy:If serologic test indeterminate/negative.Caution: There is a risk of anaphylaxis andsecondary spread of infection.

TX——————————-
First-line Albendazole Single cyst < 5 cm

Second-lineImage-guided percutaneous drainageFor Cysts 5-10 cmMust be done in combination with medical therapy
Adverse effect:Risk of seeding*Risk of anaphylaxis

Third-line:Resection:Cysts > 10 cm Complicated cysts*Associated with rupture, infection, Compression/mass effect, biliary fistulae, hemorrhage, multiple daughter cysts, or extrahepatic cysts
Adverse effect:The risk of seeding and anaphylaxis is less than percutaneous drainage as the attempt is to resect the whole cyst.

107
Q

FILARIASIS

A
107
Q

MALARIA

A

-infected mosquitoes (Female Anopheles mosquitos)
-Disproportionately high burden of malaria inSub-Saharan Africa.
*Incubation period: P. falciparum 7–14 days; others 12–40 days

FEVER+ CHILLS + HEADACHE = MALARIA
PAROXYSMAL FEVER

DX
febrile illness who have visited a malarious area, particularly within the preceding year.
While malaria usually occurs within a few weeks of infection, the disease can occasionally be delayed for many months
CBCPERIPHERAL BLOOD SMEAR- THICK AND THIN FILMS Thick smear allows detection of parasites (some laboratories are poorly skilled with thick films).Thin smear helps diagnose malaria type.If the index of suspicion is high, repeat the smear (‘No evidence of malaria’ = 3 negative daily thick films).*OTHERS» Newer tests (e.g. the malaria rapid diagnostic test, polymerase chain reaction [PCR] tests, and immune chromatographic test [ICT] card tests for PFM.

108
Q

*Uncomplicated malaria TX

A
108
Q

complicated malaria TX

A
109
Q

ANTIMALARIAL PROPHYLAXIS

A

Malaria in pregnant women or patients with asplenia or hyposplenism is potentially serious, so itis strongly recommended that these individuals do not travel to malarious areas

MALARIA PROPHYLAXIS IN PREGNANCY For pregnant patients who cannot defer travel to regions where chloroquine-sensitive malaria is present, mosquito avoidance measures should be used in conjunction with chemoprophylaxis with chloroquine. Mefloquine is also acceptable.For pregnant patients who cannot defer travel to regions where** chloroquine-resistant** malaria is present, mosquito avoidance measures should be used in conjunction with chemoprophylaxis using mefloquine.

110
Q

**TREATMENT OF MALARIA IN PREGNANT FEMALES **

A
111
Q

MALARIA PROFILAXIS

A
112
Q

DENGUE FEVER
CLINIC

A

Mosquito-borne (Aedes aegypti) viralinfection.

* Incubation period 5–6 days

Virus replicates in and destroys the bone marrow

**FEVER + SEVER HEADACHE + RASH **

113
Q

DENGUE FEVER
DX

A
114
Q

ZIKA VIRUS

SYMPTOMS

A

** SEXUAL EXPOSURE TO OTHER WHO WENT TO ENDEMIC AREAS**

115
Q

ZIKA VIRUS
DX
TX

A

If the husband came from zika affected area they should avoid unprotected sex for 3 months.If the lady who wants to conceive comes from Zika-affected areas avoid unprotected sex for at least 8 weeks.

*And if they both came from zika affected area and are worried then doserology at 4 weeks, Or one sample at 2 weeks and the other at 8 weeks.

116
Q

YELLOW FEVER

A

fever + bradicardia + jaundice

117
Q

JAPANESE B ENCEPHALITIS
vector
area of risk
triad

A

FEBRILE + VOMITING + STUPOR
japanese b encephalitis

118
Q

JAPANESE B ENCEPHALITIS *VACCINATION:

A
119
Q

MURRAY VALLEY ENCEPHALITIS

where:
dx:
tx:

A

mosquito-borne virus that is found across Australia, Papua New Guinea, and Irian Jaya.

*MVEV is endemic to Northern Australia and causes occasional outbreaks across south-eastern Australia.

HIGH GRADE FEVER + NEUROLOGICAL COMPROMISE + TRAVEL TO NOTHERN AUSTRALIA)

120
Q

ROSS RIVER FEVER
clinic:

A
121
Q

ROSS RIVER FEVER
DX
TX

A
122
Q

TRAVELLER’S DIARRHEA
when antibiotics?

CLINICAL FEATURES

It occurs about 6–12 hours after taking infected food or water.
*The illness is usually mild and lasts only 2 or 3 days

A

Very severe diarrhoea, especially if associated with the passing of blood or mucus, may be a feature of Shigella sp. or Campylobacter sp. infections and amoebiasis.*

Traveller’s diarrhoea is caused by a wide variety of organisms but mainly enterotoxigenic E. coli(ETEC), Campylobacter sp., Shigella sp. and Salmonella sp.*

Chemoprophylaxis is not recommended in healthy travellers.

123
Q

TRAVELLER’S DIARRHEA
mild
moderate

A
124
Q

PERSISTENT DIARRHEA:

Giardiasis tx:
Amoebiasis tx:

A
125
Q

CHOLERA

A
126
Q

SHIGELLA INFECTION

A

TREATMENT

*SUPPORTIVE TREATMENT» Correct dehydration

Antibiotics
*Ciprofloxacin
*Ceftriaxone
*Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

127
Q
A

:)

128
Q

CLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICLE
CLINICAL
RISK FACTORS

A

Anaerobic gram +ve rod
Produces 2 toxins that bind to intestinal mucosal cells
Risk factors
*Recent antibiotics use(clindamycin, ampicillin, cephalosporins,fluoroquinolones)Proton-pump inhibitorsRecent hospitalization*Advanced age

*Causes pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea
*Characterized by yellow-white plaques in the intestinal mucos

129
Q

CLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICLE
DX

A
130
Q

CLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICLE
TX

A
131
Q

TYPHOID FEVER (Enteric fever)

SYMPTOMS

A
132
Q

TYPHOID FEVER (Enteric fever)

INVESTIGATIONS : GOLD STANDAR?
MOST ACCURATE?
MNEMONIC BASU

A
133
Q

TYPHOID FEVER (Enteric fever)
TX

A
134
Q

TYPHOID FEVER (Enteric fever)
vaccination

A
135
Q

recall salmonella -

A
136
Q

CAMPYLOBACTER JEJUNI
late onset complications:

dx ?
tx?

A

reactive arthritis
guillian barre syndrome

137
Q

gullian barre syndrome (GBS)
dx?

A

The diagnosis is largely based on clinical patterns

Diagnostic biomarkers are not available for most variants of the syndrome.

CSF=Elevated protein (only after 5-7 days of disease)
-Lung function tests= If FVC <20 mL/kg transfer to ICU
-Screen for infection:
*viral PCR/ antibodies
*stool culture for Campylobacter
*mycoplasma antibodies and CXR

138
Q

HEPATITIS A

clinic

A

no chronic disease
subclinicla or self limited

139
Q

hepatitis A
investigations

A
140
Q

hepatitis A
managment

A

reassurance and patient education.
Supportive care in symptomatic infection.

*Hospitalization if severe illness or clinical deterioration.
-Follow a fat-free diet.
*Avoid alcohol, smoking, and hepatotoxic drugs (until recovery).
*Advise on hygiene at home to prevent spread to close contacts and family members.
*Hep A can also be spread sexually and by IV drug use.
*Wash hands carefully after using the toilet and disinfect them with antiseptic.
*Do not handle food for others with your fingers.
*Do not share cutlery and crockery during meals.
*Do not use tea towels to dry dishes.
*If there is a risk of occupational transmission of hepatitis A (e.g. food handlers, healthcare workers, child-care workers), then must be excluded from work for at least 1 week after the onset of jaundice.
*Contact tracing.
*Notify the state or territory health department.

141
Q

hepatitis A
prevention

A
142
Q

HEPATITIS B

clinical features:

A
143
Q

hepatitis b
investigations ?

main viral investigation-

A
144
Q

4 phases of chronic infection are:

HEPATITIS B

A
145
Q
A
145
Q

HEPATITIS B
TX

A
146
Q

Hepatitis B - Prevention
vaccination

A
147
Q

recall hepatitis B

A
148
Q

HEPATITIS C
clinic

A
149
Q

HEPATITIS C
Diagnosis and progress

A
150
Q

HEPATITIS C

TX?
MARKERS OF CIRROHOSIS IN INFECTIVE HEPATITIS ?

TREATMENT?

A
151
Q

HEPATITIS D

A
152
Q

HEPATITIS E

A
153
Q

MENINGOCOCCAL DISEASE

A
154
Q

MENINGOCOCCAL DISEASE
INVESTIGATIONS

A
155
Q

MENINGOCOCCAL DISEASE
PROPHYLAXIS

A
156
Q

MENINGOCOCCAL DISEASE
VACCINES

A
157
Q

MENINGOCOCCAL DISEASE
VACCINES WHO SHOULD GET IT ?

A
158
Q
A
159
Q

INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS

A
160
Q

INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
Responsible organisms:

A
161
Q

INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
clinical features

A
162
Q

**INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS **
investigations
DUKE CRITERIA

A
163
Q

INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
TX
empirical tx?

prophylaxis ?

A
164
Q

BRUCELLOSIS
triad:
symptoms:

A

malta fever

165
Q

BRUCELLOSIS
dx
tx

A
166
Q

recall

A

brucellosis

167
Q

clinical features:

A

sudden onset fever, rigors, and myalgia

caused by coxiella burnetii

168
Q

Q FEVER
dx
tx
prevention

A

ANTICUERPOS NO cultivos!

169
Q

INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS

A
170
Q

INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS

RASH:

A
171
Q

INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS
dx?

A
172
Q

COVID 19 - CLINIC

covid 19

A
173
Q

COVID 19
TX

A
174
Q

SUMMARY VACC

A

COMPULSORY VACC

175
Q

VOLUNTARY INMUNIZATIONS

A

A. AMC - MCQ MATEO 2024 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions