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FINALS: Passmed > infectious diseases > Flashcards

infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, thrombocytopenia in returning traveller →

A

?dengue

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2
Q

Patients with an uncertain tetanus vaccination history should be given ____

A

for tetanus prone and high-risk wounds: reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin

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3
Q

Pneumonia, peripheral blood smear showing red blood cell agglutination →

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

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4
Q

prophlyactic abx for animL BITE?

A

co-amoxiclav

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5
Q

travel Hx, prolonged fever, abdominal pain, constipation, ‘rose’ spots, bradycardia →

A

?typhoid fever

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6
Q

Abx recommended for pyelonephritis?

A

cephalosporin
quinolone

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7
Q

Resp Abx
1. CAP
2. Atypical pneumonia
3. HAP

A
  1. CAP: amoxicillin
  2. Atypical pneumonia: clarithromycin
  3. HAP: co-amoxiclav if within 5 days of admission, piperacillin with tazobactam if after 5 days
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8
Q

UTIs Abx
1. LUTI
2. Pyelonephritis
3. Prostatitis

A
  1. LUTI: trimethoprim/nitrofurantoin/amoxicillin
  2. Pyelonephritis: ceftazidime/ciprofloxacin
  3. Prostatitis: quinolone/trimethoprim
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9
Q

Abx for cellulitis near eyes or nose?

A

Co-amoxiclav

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10
Q

Otitis media vs otitis externa - Abx?

A

media: amoxicillin
externa: flucloxacillin

erythromycin for both if penicillin allergic

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11
Q

Abx for throat infections/sinusitis

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin (PenV) (erythromycin if allergic to penicllin)

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12
Q

STI Abx
1. Gonorrhea
2. Chlamydia
3. PID
4. Syphilis
5. BV

A
  1. Gonorrhea: ceftriaxone
  2. Chlamydia: doxycycline
  3. PID: doxycycline + ceftriaxone + metronidazole
  4. Syphilis: benathine benzylpenicillin (doxy/erythromycin if allergic)
  5. BV: metronidazole
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13
Q

Campylobacter enteritis Tx?

A

clarithromycin

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14
Q

___________ is a mass-like fungal vall that colonises an existing lung cavity (like TB, lung cancer, cystic fibrosis). _____ sign on Xray.

A

aspergilloma
crescent sign

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15
Q

undercooked or reheated rice is most associated with ___________.

A

bacillus cereus

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16
Q

most common causative organism in cellulitis

A

strep pyogenes

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17
Q

classification system used for cellulitis

A

Eron system

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18
Q

painful genital ulcers with sharply defined, ragged borders + unilateral painful inguinal lymph node =

A

chancroid
tropical disease caused by haemophilus ducreyi

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19
Q

classifying bacteria

A
  1. Gram-positive cocci: all strep, staph
  2. Gram-negative cocci: neisseria meningitidis, gonorrhoeae
  3. Gram-positive rods: ABCDL
    Acintomyces
    Bacillus anthracis
    Clostridium
    Diptheria
    Listeria
  4. Everything else is gram-negative rod:
    E.Coli
    H.influenzae
    Pseudomonas
    Salmonella
    Shigella
    Campylobacter
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20
Q

‘ground glass’ hepatocytes on light microscopy is associated with

A

chronic hepatitis (secondary to hep B infection)

21
Q

__________is the second line choice antibiotic for MRSA, after vancomycin or teicoplanin

A

Linezolid

22
Q

Latent tuberculosis treatment options:

A

3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin, or
6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

23
Q

Pt tests positive for MRSA before elective surgery - Tx?

A

Nasal mupirocin + chlorhexidine for the skin

24
Q

Positive non-treponemal test + negative treponemal test is consistent with a

A

false-positive syphilis result

25
Q

HIV, neuro symptoms, single brain lesions with homogenous enhancement -

A

CNS lymphoma

26
Q

Fever, rash, chills and headache occurs following antibiotic administration for syphilis - Tx?

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

JHR generally requires supportive management with antipyretics and resolves within 24 hours.

27
Q

____________ - stains with India ink

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

Streptococcus pneumoniae would have a gram-positive stain while Neisseria meningitidis would have a gram-negative stain. Mycobacterium tuberculosis would have a Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast) stain. In toxoplasmosis, the head CT usually shows single or multiple ring enhancing lesions, and mass effect may be seen.

28
Q

______________ is an alternative to metronidazole for patients with bacterial vaginosis

A

Topical clindamycin

29
Q

If a combined HIV test is positive

A

it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis

30
Q

HIV testing

A
  1. HIV antibodies
    - people develop HIV ab 4-6 week after expsoure
    - comprises ELISA + confirmatory Western Blot assay
  2. p24 Antigen
    - poitive from 1-4 weeks after exposure
  3. Combined test (p24 and HIV ab)
    - gold standard
    - if positive, repeat test
    - you can test HIV RNA levels at the same time

Test for HIV in asymptomatic Pts 4 weeks after possible exposure.

If negative, repeat in 12 weeks.

Start post-exposure prophylaxis within 72h of exposure.

31
Q

Disseminated gonococcal infection triad -

A

tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, dermatitis

Neisseria gonorrhoea

32
Q

HIV seroconversion occurs when?

A

from 3-12 weeks

33
Q

Which abx is C/I in long QR syndrome?

A

Clarithryomycin

34
Q

what can cause false positive syphillis VDRL/RPR?

A

‘SomeTimes Mistakes Happen’ (SLE, TB, malaria, HIV)

35
Q

Tx for typhoid fever?

A

Ceftriaxone

36
Q

Which Abx is ecoli sensitive to extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL)-producing Escherichia coli

A

meropenem

ESBLs exhibit hydrolytic activity against both penicillins and cephalosporins.

37
Q

HIV, neuro symptoms, widespread demyelination –>

A

progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

38
Q

neuro complictions of HIV:

  1. behavioural changes and speech, motor and visual impairment. MRI is the imaging modality of choice, identifying multifocal non-enhancing lesions, which represent widespread demyelination.

2.cognitive decline, behavioural changes and motor impairment. CT shows cortical and subcortical atrophy.

  1. meningism, nausea/vomiting, seizures and focal neurological deficits. Lumbar puncture often shows a high opening pressure and cerebral oedema may be seen on CT.
  2. This is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus and presents with various symptoms depending on lesion location. CT often shows a single brain lesion with homogenous enhancement.
  3. This accounts for around 50% of cerebral lesions in patients with HIV and often presents with constitutional symptoms, headache and confusion. CT commonly shows multiple ring-enhancing lesions.
A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

AIDS dementia

Cryptococcus infection

Primary CNS lymphoma

Toxoplasmosis

39
Q

Mx of primary CNS lymphoma
Mx of toxoplasmosis

A

Treatment generally involves steroids (may reduce tumour size), chemotherapy (e.g. methotrexate) and whole-brain irradiation. Surgical may be considered for lower grade tumours.

Management is with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine.

40
Q

swimmers itch + eosinophilia

A

schistosomiasis

41
Q

Immunocompromised patients with toxoplasmosis are treated with

A

pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine

42
Q

Cause of false negative Mantoux tests include and are not limited to:

A

TB
AIDS
Long-term steroid use
Lymphoma
Sarcoidosis
Extremes of age
Fever
Hypoalbuminaemia
Anaemia

43
Q

If a patient has had 5 doses of tetanus vaccine, with the last dose < 10 years ago,

A

they don’t require a booster vaccine nor immunoglobulins, regardless of how severe the wound is

44
Q

which abx lowers seizure threshold

A

Ciprofloxacin lowers the seizure threshold

45
Q

Epstein-Barr virus may result in which blood test abnormality

A

neutropaenia

46
Q

most common reason for recurrent tonsilitis in a young person

A

glandular fever

47
Q

Ciclosporin side-effects:

A

everything is increased - fluid, BP, K+, hair, gums, glucose

48
Q
A

FINALS: Passmed (40 decks)

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