Infectious Disease/Sexual Health Flashcards

1
Q

Which test for syphillus remains positive after treatment

A

Treponema pallidum HaemAgglutination test

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2
Q

which type of viral menigitis is associated with low CSF glucose

A

mumps

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3
Q

What is given as prophylaxis for people who have been exposed to menigicoccal menigitis

A

ciprofloxacin

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4
Q

name some live attenuated vaccines

A
BCG
measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
influenza (intranasal)
oral rotavirus
oral polio
yellow fever
oral typhoid
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5
Q

bacterial vaginosis is caused by which organism

A

Gardnerella vaginalis
raised pH
clue cells

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6
Q

what is the mechanism of action of tamiflu (Oseltamivir)

A

a neuraminidase inhibitor which prevents new viral particles from being released by infected cells

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7
Q

human bites should be treated with

A

co-amox

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8
Q

how is falciarum malaria usually treated

A

intravenous artesunate

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9
Q

what is the most common cause of viral meningitis

A

Cocksackie B (enteroviruses)

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10
Q

most common organisim in animal bites

A

Pasteurella multocida.

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11
Q

if treating shigella with antibiotics what is uses

A

cipro

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12
Q

what bacteria commonly results in reactivation of HSV causing cold sores

A

strep pneumoniae

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13
Q

what is the treatment of tetanus

A

tetanus immunoglobulin and metronidazole

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14
Q

how is mycobacterium avium complex treated

A

rifampicin + ethambutol + clarithromycin

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15
Q

forieng travel severe joint pain + fever

A

Chikungunya

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16
Q

how is amaebosis treated

A

The trophozoite stage is responsive to metronidazole and tinidazole; however, once treated a dormant cystic stage remains and has the potential to cause further disease. This stage is resistant to both metronidazole and tinidazole but can be eradicated with ten days of diloxanide furoate.

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17
Q

what is the treatment of hyatid disease

A

albendazole

18
Q

what are the chances of vertical transmission of chronic hep c

A

less than 10 percent.

19
Q

what can result in false positive syphillus test (cardiolipin test)

A
pregnancy
SLE, anti-phospholipid syndrome
TB
leprosy
malaria
HIV
20
Q

lemierries syndrome is

A

thombophlebitis of the IJV

21
Q

What are people with lemierries syndrome at risk of

A

septic pulmonary emboli

22
Q

sore throat then develops rash after given amoxicillin

A

EBV

23
Q

cause of granuloma inguinale

A

klebsiella

24
Q

what percentag eof people with develop chronic hep c

A

50-85 percent

25
Q

antibiotic for severe camplylobacter

A

clary

26
Q

if someone with menigitis grows listeria add what abx

A

amox and gent

27
Q

what is the best imaging modality to differentiate between toxoplasmosis and CNS lymphoma in a patient with HIV

A

thallium SPECT

28
Q

rabbit bite

A

Tularaemia

29
Q

mycoplasma treatment

A

doxy or macrolide (clary)

30
Q

what are the features of severe malaria

A
schizonts on a blood film
parasitaemia > 2%
hypoglycaemia
acidosis
temperature > 39 °C
severe anaemia
complications as below
31
Q

when shoudl exchange transfusion be done in malaria

A

if parasite count > 10% then exchange transfusion should be considered

32
Q

severe acute hepatitis in pregnant woman who has been travelling

A

hep E

33
Q

antibiotic for cholera

A

doxy

34
Q

borrellia

A

lyme disease

35
Q

central line infetions - most common cause

A

staph epidermidis

36
Q

antibiotics which inhibit celll wall formation

A

penicillins: binds transpeptidase blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls
cephalosporins

37
Q

antibiotics which Inhibit protein synthesis (bacteriostatic)

A
aminoglycosides (cause misreading of mRNA)
chloramphenicol
macrolides (e.g. erythromycin)
tetracyclines
fusidic acid
38
Q

antibiotics which Inhibit DNA synthesis

A

quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin)
metronidazole
sulphonamides
trimethoprim

39
Q

antibiotic that works by Inhibiting RNA synthesis

A

rifampicin

40
Q

what can you give for primary syphillus if they have a penicillin allergy

A

azithromycin