Haematology/Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

When does neutropenic sepsis most commonly occur

A

7-14 days after chemotherapy

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2
Q

How is G6PD deficiency inherited

A

x link recessive pattern

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3
Q

what drugs can precipitate haemolysis in G6PD deficiency

A

anti-malarials: primaquine
ciprofloxacin
sulph- group drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, sulfonylureas

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4
Q

what side effects is cisplatin commonly associated with

A

Ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia

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5
Q

what is often given prior to chemo in Burkittss lymphoma to prevent tumour lysis syndrome

A

Rasburicase (a recombinant version of urate oxidase, an enzyme which catalyses the conversion of uric acid to allantoin*) is often given before the chemotherapy to reduce the risk of this occurring

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6
Q

what is wiskott aldrich syndrome

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome causes primary immunodeficiency due to a combined B- and T-cell dysfunction. It is inherited in a X-linked recessive fashion and is thought to be caused by mutation in the WASP gene.

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7
Q

what is the most common inherited thrombophilia

A

factor V leiden

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8
Q

how is von willebrnd inheritied

A

autosomal dominant

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9
Q

translocation in Burkitts

A

T8:14

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10
Q

what virus is associated with burkitss lymphoma

A

EBV

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11
Q

what is the best screening test for hereditary angioedema

A

use C4 between attacks (low)

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12
Q

how does desmopressin help in von willebrand disease

A

raises levels of vWF by inducing release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cells

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13
Q

what is a thymoma associated with

A

myasthenia gravis (30-40% of patients with thymoma)
red cell aplasia
dermatomyositis
also : SLE, SIADH

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14
Q

give causes of intravascular haemolysis

A

G6PD
cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
mismatched bloods transfusion
PNH

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15
Q

what is the most common type of lymphoma

A

nodular sclerosing

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16
Q

how is hereditary spherocytosis diagnosed

A

the British Journal of Haematology (BJH) guidelines state that ‘patients with a family history of HS, typical clinical features and laboratory investigations (spherocytes, raised mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration[MCHC], increase in reticulocytes) do not require any additional tests
if the diagnosis is equivocal the BJH recommend the cryohaemolysis test and EMA binding

17
Q

what is the most common microorganism causign neutropenic sepsis

A

usually gram positve cocci

staph epidermidis most commonly

18
Q

what is the diagnostic test for PNH

A

flow cytometry of blood to detect low levels of CD59 and CD55

19
Q

what are ppeopl with PNH more at risk of

A

thrombosis

they should be anticoagulated

20
Q

what is the pathogenesis of TTP

A

in TTP there is a deficiency of ADAMTS13 (a metalloprotease enzyme) which breakdowns (‘cleaves’) large multimers of von Willebrand’s factor

21
Q

what is the pentad of symptoms in TTP

A

fever, neurological dysfunction, evidence of haemolysis (blood film), renal injury and thrombocytopenia.

22
Q

what is filgrastin

A

G-CSF

can be used to trreat neutropenia

23
Q

what is bombesin a tumour marker for

A

small cell lung cancers

24
Q

recurrent bacterial infections (e.g. Chest)
eczema
thrombocytopaenia
low IgM levels

whats the diagnosis

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

25
Q

what treatment is given for CLL

A

some patients can just be monitord with regular FBCs but if treatment given
fludarabine, cyclophosphamide and rituximab (FCR) has now emerged as the initial treatment of choice for the majority of patients

26
Q

what is a prognostic marker in myeloma

A

B2-microglobulin is a useful marker of prognosis - raised levels imply poor prognosis. Low levels of albumin are also associated with a poor prognosis

27
Q

reed sternberg cells

A

hodgkins lymphoma

28
Q

which type of hodgkins lymphoma carries the best prognosis

A

lymphocyte predominant

29
Q

what inhertied thrombophilia classically causes skin necrosis on commencing warfarin

A

protein c deficiency

30
Q

what can be given to try reduce the likelihood of developing haemorhhagic cystitis from cyclophosphamide

31
Q

what can polycythaemia rubra vera progress to

A

CML

myelofibrosis

32
Q

tear drop poikolocytes

A

myelofibrosis

33
Q

basophilic stippling

A

lead poisoning

34
Q

aflatoxin increases risk of which cancer

A

hepatocellular

35
Q

tumour marker for primary peritoneal cancer

36
Q

give acquired causes of sideroblastic anaemia

A

myelodysplasia
alcohol
lead
anti-TB medications

37
Q

what is li-fraumeni

A

Autosomal dominant
Consists of germline mutations to p53 tumour suppressor gene
High incidence of malignancies particularly sarcomas and leukaemias

38
Q

how does cyclophosphamide work

A

inhibition of IL2