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Pharmacy Practice V > Infectious Disease Final Exam Material > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Final Exam Material Flashcards

1
Q

Veetids

A

Penicillin V Potassium
1. Pharyngitis
2. SSTIs
3. Endocarditis Prophylaxis
4. TAKE with empty stomach

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2
Q

Dicloxacillin

A
  1. SSTIs
  2. TAKE with empty stomach
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3
Q

Nafcillin

A
  1. SSTIs
  2. Eliminated by the liver, no renal adjustment
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4
Q

Pfizerpen-G

A

Penicillin G
1. Endocarditis
2. Neurosyphilis

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5
Q

Amoxil

A

Amoxicillin
1. Pharyngitis
2. Otitis Media

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6
Q

Principen

A

Ampicillin
1. Respiratory Tract Infections
2. Meningitis

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7
Q

Augmentin

A

Amoxicillin/Clavulanate
1. Suspension = otitis media
2. Tablets = sinusitis/CAP
3. DIARRHEA = TAKE WITH food
4. CI with CrCl <30

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8
Q

Unasyn

A

Ampicillin/Sulbactam
1. SSTI

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9
Q

Zosyn

A

Piperacillin/Tazobactam

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10
Q

Keflex

A

Cephalexin
1. Pharyngitis
2. SSTIs
3. Endocarditis Prophylaxis
4. TAKE on empty stomach

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11
Q

Ancef

A

Cefazolin
1. SSTIs
2. Endocarditis Treatment
3. Surgical Prophylaxis
4. INCREASED INR

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12
Q

Ceftin

A

Cefuroxime
1. Otitis Media
2. CAP
3. Suspension = WITH FOOD
3. Tablet = without regard to food

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13
Q

Omnicef

A

Cefdinir
1. Pharyngitis
2. Otitis Media
3. CAP
4. DISCOLORED stools

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14
Q

Rocephin

A

Ceftriaxone
1. UTIs
2. Gonococcal Infections
3. Meningitis
4. CAP
5. BILIARY elimination, no renal dose adjustment

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15
Q

Maxipime

A

Cefepime
1. Febrile neutropenia
2. HAP/VAP
3. Noscomial Infections

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16
Q

Teflaro

A

Ceftaroline
1. Severe CAP
2. SSTIs

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17
Q

Primazin

A

Imipenem/Cilastatin
1. Renal Adjust CrCl <90

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18
Q

Invanz

A

Ertapenem
1. Renal Adjust CrCl <30
2. NOT active against: Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, or Enterococcus

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19
Q

Merrem

A

Meropenem
1. Renal Adjust CrCl <50

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20
Q

Ery-Tab

A

Erthromycin
1. HIGHEST risk of QT prolongation of the macrolides
2. Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
3. Base and Salt forms are NOT interchangeable

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21
Q

Biaxin

A

Clarithromycin
1. COPD Exacerbation
2. CAP
3. H. pylori

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22
Q

Zithromax

A

Azithromycin
1. Otitis Media
2. CAP
3. COPD Exacerbation
4. BILIARY excretion

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23
Q

Cipro

A

Ciprofloxacin
1. Complicated UTIs
2. Gram Neg Pneumonia
3. RENAL dose adjust

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24
Q

Levaquin

A

Levofloxacin
1. HAP/VAP
2. CAP
3. Complicated UTI
4. RENAL dose adjust

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25
Q

Avelox

A

Moxifloxacin
1. CAP
2. NO renal adjustment

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26
Q

Sumycin

A

Tetracycline
1. RENAL adjust
2. Atypical and Mycoplasma pneumonia
3. Chlamydia

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27
Q

Vibramycin

A

Doxcycline
1. NO renal adjustment
2. CAP
3. Chlamydia

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28
Q

Minocin

A

Minocycline
1. RENAL adjust
2. Atypical and Mycoplasma Pneumonia
3. Chalmydia
4. Can cause vertigo

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29
Q

Bactrim

A

Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim
AE: Photosensitivity and Rash
CI: Sulfa Allergy
PC: Take with EMPTY stomach and ample water

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30
Q

Macrobid/Macrodantin

A

Nitrofurantoin
1. Uncomplicated UTIs
2. AE: Nausea
3. Take with Food
4. Avoid in >65 yrs w/CrCl <30

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31
Q

Monurol

A

Fosfomycind
1. UTIs
2. Oral powder for solution

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32
Q

Flagyl

A

Metronidazole
1. Anaerobic Infections
2. AE: Nausea and Metallic Taste
3. Take with FOOD

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33
Q

Metrogel-Vaginal

A

Metronidazole
1. Topical Gel
2. Candida Superinfection

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34
Q

Dificid

A

Fidaxomicin
1. C.diff colitis

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35
Q

Rifampin

A
  1. Always used in combination with other agents
  2. Red/Orange discoloration
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36
Q

Vancocin

A

Vancomycin
1. ORAL = C. diff
2. IV = MRSA
2. AE: Nephrotoxicity

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37
Q

Dalvance

A

Dalbavancin
1. MRSA
2. Complicated SSTI
3. HALF LIFE 346 HOURS

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38
Q

Cubicin

A

Daptomycin
1. SSTI
2. MRSA
3. Endocarditis
AE: Myopathy/rhabdomyolysis

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39
Q

Cleocin

A

Clindamycin
1. Anaerobic infections
2. Can cause Risk of C.diff
AE: diarrhea

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40
Q

Zyvox

A

Linezolid
1. SSTI
2. HAP/VAP

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41
Q

Diflucan

A

Fluconazole
1. Oropharyngeal/Esophageal Candidiasis
DDI: Warfarin

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42
Q

Sporanox

A

Itraconazole
1. Systemic Candidasis
DDI: Antacids and Acid Suppressants
AE: Hepatotoxicity and QT Prolongation
CI: Dofetilide

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43
Q

Nizoral

A

Ketoconazole Topical
1. Seborrheic Dermatitis
AE: Skin irritation

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44
Q

Nystatin Topical

A
  1. Topical powder, cream, ointment
  2. Cutaneous fungal infections
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45
Q

Griseofulvin

A
  1. Ringworm infections
    DDI: Warfarin and Oral Contraceptives
    PC: Take with a FATTY MEAL
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46
Q

Lamisil

A

Terbinafine
1. Oncyhomycosis
AE: RASH or Local Irritation
PC: Take with FOOD

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47
Q

Zovirax

A

Acyclovir
1. Genital Herpes
2. Acute Herpes Zoster
AE: Nephrotoxicity, CNS Toxicity
PC: Drink ample fluids

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48
Q

Valtrex

A

Valacyclovir
1. Genital Herpes
2. Acute Herpes Zoster
PRODRUG

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49
Q

Tamiflu

A

Oseltamivir
1. Influenza with symptoms <48 hrs
2. Prophylaxis of influenza
Start within 2 days of symptom onset if used for treatment

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50
Q

Paxlovid

A

Nirmatrelvir/Ritonavir
CYP3A4 inhibitor
Hepatoxicity

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51
Q

Permethrin

A
  1. Head Lice
  2. Scabies
    CI: Do not use on infants <2 months of age
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52
Q

Peridex

A

Chlorhexidine
1. Antibacterial Oral Hygiene Rinse
AE: Staining oral surfaces
PC: Rinse and spit do not swallow
AVOID food of water immediately after the rinse

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53
Q

Bactroban

A

Mupirocin
1. Impetigo
Topical Cream or Ointment

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54
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia CAPs Outpatient

A

Causative Organisms: s. pneumo, h. flu, m. catarr
Empiric Treatment: amoxicillin with no co-morb but with co-morbid just AUGMENTIN or Cephalosporin + Macrolide or Doxycycline
Duration of Treatment: 5 days minimum

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55
Q

Community Acquired Pneumonia CAPs Hospitalized

A

Causative Organisms: Strep pneumo, H. flu, and M. catarr
Empiric Treatment: IV Beta Lactam + Macrolide or Resp FQ
Duration of Treatment: 5 days minimum
If MRSA Duration of Treatment: 7 days

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56
Q

HAP/VAP

A

Causative Organisms: Klebsiella, E. coli, Pseudomonas
Empiric Treatment:
Duration of Treatment: 7 days minimum

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57
Q

Acute Exacerbation of Chronic Bronchitis/COPD Exacerbation

A

Causative Organisms: Mycoplasma pneumo, strep pneumo, and h. flu
Empiric Treatment:
Duration of Treatment: 5-7 days

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58
Q

Acute Sinusitis

A

Causative Organisms: strep pneumo, h flu, m catarr
Empiric Treatment: AUGMENTIN
Duration of Treatment: 5-10 days

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59
Q

Acute UTI Cystitis

A

Causative Organisms:
Empiric Treatment:
Duration of Treatment: 3-5 days

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60
Q

Skin and Soft Tissue Infection Purulent

A

Causative Organisms:
Empiric Treatment:
Duration of Treatment:

61
Q

Skin and Soft Tissue Infection Non-Purulent

A

Causative Organisms:
Empiric Treatment:
Duration of Treatment:

62
Q

Drugs with Contraindicated CrCl Cutoffs

A

Augmentin: CrCl <30 CI
Macrobid: >65 yrs w/ CrCl <30 CI

63
Q

CAP vs HAP

A

Timing of Onset of Symptoms

64
Q

1st Generation Cephalosporins

A
  1. Cefazolin
  2. Cephalexin
  3. Cefadroxil
65
Q

2nd Generation Cephalosporins

A
  1. Cefoxitin
  2. Cefuroxime
  3. Cefaclor
66
Q

3rd Generation Cephalosporins

A
  1. Cefotaxime
  2. Ceftriaxone
  3. Ceftazidime
  4. Cefdinir
  5. Cefpodoxime
67
Q

4th Generation Cephalosporins

A
  1. Cefepime
68
Q

5th Generation Cephalosporins

A
  1. Ceftaroline
  2. Ceftolozane/Tazobactam
69
Q

What drugs are preferred for the treatment for Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamase ESBL?

A

Carbapenems

70
Q

Which drug is the only one in the penicillin class that does NOT need renal adjustment?

A

Nafcillin

71
Q

Penicillin and Cephalosporin DDIs

A
  1. Oral Contraceptives: potential to alter gut flora and absorption
  2. Probenecid: decreases renal excretion of penicillin agents
72
Q

Are penicillins bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal

73
Q

What is the dosing strategy for Zosyn in most indications and for HAP/VAP?

A
  1. 3.375 g Q6hr for most indications
  2. 4.5 g Q6hr for HAP/VAP
74
Q

What is the dosing strategy for Zosyn in extended interval dosing?

A

3.375 g or 4.5 g q8 hrs INFUSED OVER 5 HOURS

75
Q

Which cephalosporin does NOT need renal adjustment while the rest do?

A

Ceftriaxone

76
Q

Ancef is a good alternative to anti-staphylococci penicillins except in what type of infections?

A

CNS infections

77
Q

Which cephalosporin has DDIs with aluminum, magnesium, iron and is recommended to avoid antacids/iron within 2 hours?

A

Omnicef

78
Q

Which cephalosporin has AEs of biliary slugging that can lead to hyperbilirubinemia in infants and neonates?

A

Rocephin

79
Q

Which cephalosporin is used as an alternative to Zosyn in cases if mild penicillin allergy when anti-pseduomonal activity is needed and has a MAJOR warning of neurotoxicity: AMS/seizures?

A

Maxipime

80
Q

Which carbapenem has the highest risk of GI, Rash, and SEIZURES (class AE)?

A

Imipenem

81
Q

What are the DDIs of Carbapenems?

A
  1. Lower serum concentration of valproic acid (increases seizure risk)
  2. Probenecid decreases renal excretion
82
Q

Macrolide: Clarithromycin and Erythromycin INCREASE serum levels of what?

A
  1. Carbamazepine: avoid
  2. Lovastatin/Simvastatin: avoid
  3. Triazolam: avoid
  4. Theophylline: avoid
  5. Warfarin: MONITOR INR, recommend azithromycin
83
Q

Macrolide: Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, and Erythromycin INCREASE serum levels of what?

A
  1. Digoxin: MONITOR
84
Q

What are the concerns of AEs in Macrolides?

A
  1. GI Upset = recommend to take with food for all of them
  2. Hepatotoxicity
  3. QT PROLONGATION
85
Q

What are the MAJOR warnings of fluoroquinolones?

A
  1. Tendonitis and Tendon Rupture
  2. CNS Effects: SEIZURES
  3. Hypo-Hyperglycemia
  4. OT PROLONGATION
86
Q

When are fluoroquinolones contraindicated?

A
  1. Children <18 yr old
  2. Pregnant women
87
Q

Fluoroquinolones can cause sun photosensitivity AEs, which one has the least likelihood of causing sun photosensitivity but the higher risk of QT prolongation?

A

Moxifloxacin

88
Q

Fluoroquinolone DDIs

A
  1. INCREASED Warfarin and Theophylline levels
  2. Antacids, Iron, and Sucralfate DECREASES absorption (chelation)
89
Q

Tetracyclines should be avoided in children ___ years of age due to tooth discoloration and be avoided in what other population?

A

<8 years of age and pregnant women

90
Q

What are the DDIs of tetracyclines?

A
  1. Oral Contraceptives
  2. Aluminum, bismuth, calcium, magnesium, zinc, and iron salts
91
Q

Photosensitivity is a major AE of tetracyclines except for which one?

A

Minocycline

92
Q

When counseling patients on tetracyclines what are 2 points to mention?

A
  1. Take on EMPTY stomach
  2. No antacids, iron, or dairy, within 2 hours
93
Q

What are the DDIs of Flagyl?

A
  1. Warfarin
  2. Alcohol - Disulfiram Like Reactions
94
Q

For non-severe infections, what is the trough monitoring for Vancomycin?

A

Trough Concentration 30 minutes before 4th dose

95
Q

For severe infections, what is the AUC/MIC target goal for Vancomycin?

A

400-600 mg*hr/L

96
Q

Linezolid is contraindication with SSRIs, however what are 3 AEs possible?

A
  1. Bome Marrow Suppression
  2. Peripheral and Optic Neuropathy
  3. Serotonin Syndrome
97
Q

What is the recommended administration for Sporanox Capsules vs Solution?

A

Capsule: WITH FOOD
Solution: EMPTY STOMACH

98
Q

What is the duration of therapy for gram positive bacteremia?

A

14 days

99
Q

What is the duration of therapy for gram negative bacteremia?

A

7-14 days

100
Q

Macrolide antibiotics are most commonly used for what type of infections?

A

Respiratory Infections

101
Q

Which macrolide is the least likely to interact with other drugs?

A

Azithromycin

102
Q

Which fluoroquinolone does NOT require renal adjustment?

A

Moxifloxacin

103
Q

Veetids and Dicloxacllin have this dosing pearl but not Pfizerpen-G…

A

Take on an EMPTY stomach

104
Q

What is the dosing for Amoxil?

A

500 mg Q6h OR
875 mg Q12h
on an EMPTY STOMACH

105
Q

What is the high dose for Amoxil Suspension?

A

90 mg/kg divided Q8-12h

106
Q

What is the MEDIUM dose for Augmentin?

A

500 mg Q8-12h
Take at START of meal

107
Q

What is the HIGH dose for Augmentin?

A

875 mg Q12h
Take at START of meal

108
Q

What is the high does of Augmentin ES-600?

A

90 mg/kg divided q12h
Take at START of meal

109
Q

What is the dose of AugmentinXR 1000 mg?

A

2 tablets q12h
Take at START of meal

110
Q

What is the dosing for Zosyn in most indications with traditional dosing protocol?

A

3.375 g q6h
Infused over 30 mins

111
Q

What is the dosing for Zosyn in HAP/VAP with traditional dosing protocol?

A

4.5 g q6h
Infused over 30 mins

112
Q

What is the dosing for Zosyn in with extended interval dosing?

A

3.375 g q8h or 4.5q q8h
Infused over 4 HOURS

113
Q

What is the dosing of Keflex?

A

500 mg q8-12h
Take on an EMPTY stomach

114
Q

What is the dosing of Ceftin?

A

Take with FOOD

115
Q

What is the dosing of Omnicef Capsules?

A

300 mg q12h
AVOID antacids within 2 hrs

116
Q

What is the dosing of Omnicef Suspension?

A

14 mg/kg/day in 1 or 2 doses
AVOID antacids within 2 hrs

117
Q

Does Rocephin need renal adjustment?

A

NO, high biliary elimination

118
Q

Does Primaxin need renal adjustment?

A

YES, adjust for CrCl <90

119
Q

What is the dosing for Dilfucan in vaginal candidiasis?

A

150 mg PO QD one time dose

120
Q

What is the dosing for Diflucan in oropharyngeal candidiasis?

A

200 mg IV/PO one time dose then 100-200 mg QD

121
Q

What is the duration of treatment when using Lamisil tablets?

A

Fingernails = 6 weeks
Toenails = 12 weeks

122
Q

What is the duration of treatment when using Lamisil topical?

A

Tinea Pedis = 7-28 days

123
Q

What is the dosing for Zovirax Treatment?

A

400 mg TID x 7-10 days

124
Q

What is the dosing for Zovirax Suppression?

A

400 mg BID x 1 year

125
Q

What is the dosing for Zovirax Zoster?

A

800 mg 5times/day x 7-10 days

126
Q

What is the dosing of Valtrex Treatment?

A

1 gram BID x 10 days

127
Q

What is the dosing of Valtrex Suppression?

A

500-1000 mg QD

128
Q

What is the dosing of Valtrex Zoster?

A

1 gram TID x 7 days

129
Q

What is the dosing of Tamiflu outpatient adult?

A

75 mg BID x 5 days

130
Q

What is the dosing of Tamiflu prophylaxis >13 yrs?

A

75 mg QD x 10 days

131
Q

What is the dosing of Paxlovid?

A

Nirmatrelvir 300 gm with Ritonavir 100 mg BID x 5 days
Must initiate within 5 days of symptom onset

132
Q

What is the dosing for Erythromycin?

A

Take with food

133
Q

What is the dosing for Biaxin?

A

XR = With FOOD
Norm = without regard to food

134
Q

What is the dosing for Zithromax CAP outpatient?

A

500 mg x 1 day
250 mg x 4 days

135
Q

What is Cipro abdominal dosing?

A

500 mg PO q12h

136
Q

What is Cipro respiratory dosing?

A

750 mg PO q12h

137
Q

What is Levaquin respiratory dosing?

A

750 mg PO QD

138
Q

Sunmycin dosing prefers what?

A

EMPTY stomach but food can be given if needed

139
Q

What is the dosing of Vibramycin respiratory?

A

100 mg BID
EMPTY stomach, take with food if needed

140
Q

Minocin dosing prefers what?

A

EMPTY stomach, take with food if needed

141
Q

What is the dosing of Bactrim for Acute UTI?

A

1 DS tablet BID x 3 days, take on EMPTY stomach

142
Q

What is the dosing of Bactrim for CA-MRSA/SSTI treatment?

A

1-2 DS tablets BID

143
Q

What is the dosing of Macrobid for Acute UTI?

A

100 mg q12h x 5 days and take with FOOD

144
Q

What is the dosing for Monurol?

A

3 grams PO ONCE

145
Q

What is the dosing for Flagyl in intra-abdminonal infections?

A

500 mg IV/PO q8h + Cipro

146
Q

What is the dosing for Mupirocin?

A

TID to affected areas, for impetigo

147
Q

What is the counseling for Peridex?

A
  1. Spit, do not swallow
  2. After brushing
  3. Wait 60 mins before eating or drinking
148
Q

What is the dosing of Vancocin for C.diff?

A

PO x 10 days

149
Q

What is the dosing of Cleocin for serious gram + infections?

A

150-450 mg q6h

Pharmacy Practice V (19 decks)

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