Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE > Infectious disease and infection control > Flashcards

Infectious disease and infection control Flashcards

1
Q

What is an infection?

A

Infection is a process of tissue invasion by microorganisms, characterized by multiplication of these microorganisms in the body of the host to produce disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is cross-infection?

A

Cross infection implies transmission of infection between patients as well as patients and health care professionals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is community acquired infections?

A

That may be present at the time of admission or a visit to a hospital or incubating at that time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is a Health-Care-Associated Infections?

A

That could be induced from a source outside the patient’s body (exogenous) or from within the patient’s own body (autogenous) after a visit or admission to a hospital or health care centre.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how is Herpes simplex type 1 contracted?

A

Herpes simplex type 1 spread by infected saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the incubation period for Herpes simplex type 1?

A

2-12 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the clinical features of herpes simplex type 1?

A
  • Orolabialis infection
  • sore throat
  • fever
  • vesicles on pharynx
  • buccal mucosa, gingiva & tongue which spreads to lips and face
  • lymphadenopathy
  • recurrence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is herpes simplex types 2?

A

Herpes simplex type 2 spread by sexual contact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does herpes simplex affect the skin?

A
  • hsv-1 or hsv-2
  • herpetic whitlow
  • primary infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how does herpes simplex affect the eye?

A
  • usually hsv-1
  • corneal involvement is serious since it may cause blindness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is complications of herpes simplex?

A
  • encephalitis - affects temporal lobes
  • neonatal - serious since mortality is 60 % due to transfer of HSV-2 during parturition
  • indication for a caesarian section
  • erythema multiforme
  • eczema herpeticum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the treatment for herpes simplex?

A

Acyclovir, Valacylcovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the clinical features of varicella zoster virus?

A
  • preceded by radicular pain and hyperaesthesia of overlying skin
  • rash - unilateral, dermatomal
  • intense erythema which rapidly become vesicles whichcrust
  • oral, palatal or pharyngeal involvement if Trigeminal nerve affected
  • ocular involvement causes keratitis or uveitis which may result in blindness
  • Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome – reactivation of VZV in the geniculate ganglion of the VII cranial nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the complication of herpes zoster?

A
  • post-herpetic neuralgia
  • neurological e.g. Meningitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the treatment for herpes zoster?

A

Acyclovir - reduces pain / accelerates healing (no effect on post-herpetic neuralgia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the incubation period Epstein-Barr virus?

A

4-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is clinical features of Epstein-Barr virus?

A
  • anorexia, malaise, fever
  • sore throat
  • cervical lymphadenopathy
  • macular rash n.b. Ampicillin
  • tonsillitis with white exudate
  • palatal petechiae
  • palpable spleen
  • jaundice (10%)
  • Infectious mononucleosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the complication of Epstein-Barr virus?

A
  • hepatitis
  • respiratory obstruction
  • ruptured spleen (rare - told to avoid contact sports)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the diagnosis for Epstein-Barr virus?

A

Monospot test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the incubation period of Varicella zoster virus?

A

14-16 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the clinical features of Varicella zoster virus?

A
  • rash - appears in crops and progresses from macule to papule to vesicle
  • starts on trunk or scalp
  • spreads to limbs and face
  • vesicles dry and crust
  • pruritis
  • shallow ulcers on mm’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the complications Varicella zoster virus?

A
  • cellulitis or impetigo
  • pneumonia
  • neurological e.g. Acute cerebellar ataxia, Reye’s syndrome
  • congenital abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the treatments for varicella zoster virus?

A
  • Antihistamines
  • Acyclovir (severe cases/complications)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the incubation period for mumps?

A

16-21 day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how is mumps spreaded?

A

Spread by droplets from saliva and nasopharyngeal secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the clinical features of mumps?

A
  • asymptomatic in 40%
  • fever, malaise, “angle pain”
  • enlargement of one or both parotids
  • earache and displacement of earlobe
  • parotid papillae inflamed
  • difficulty in swallowing
  • submandibular glands may be affected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the complications of mumps?

A
  • neurological - aseptic meningitis, encephalitis
  • orchitis - 20-25% in post pubertal
  • non-parotid mumps - ovaries, thyroid, pancreas, breasts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the treatment for mumps?

A
  • good oral hygiene
  • scrotal support
  • bed rest in meningitis
29
Q

what is the incubation period for measles?

A

10 days

30
Q

what is the clinical features of measles?

A
  • conjunctivitis (res eyes),
  • lymphadenopathy
  • Koplik’s spots on buccal mucosa
  • florid maculopapular rash which begins behind the ears and spreads to the face and trunk – brownish discolouration remains after
31
Q

what is the complications of measles?

A

gingivostomatitis

32
Q

what is the treatment of measles?

A

Treatment is supportive while any complications are treated as appropriate

33
Q

what is the incubation period for rubella?

A

14-21 days

34
Q

what is the clinical features of rubella?

A
  • fever, malaise, catarrhal
  • lymphadenopathy
  • rash - starts face → trunk/limbs
  • pink maculopapular, non-confluent
  • Conjunctivitis
35
Q

what is the diagnosis for rubella?

A

essential in pregnant women

36
Q

what is the complications of rubella?

A

congeniatial rubella

37
Q

what is four catergories of transmission of Corona virus disease (covid-19)?

A
  1. symptomatic transmission (direct transmission from a COVID-19 patient)
  2. presymptomatic transmission (direct transmission from a SARS-CoV-2 positive person without symptoms yet)
  3. Asymptomatic transmission (direct transmission from a SARS-CoV-2 positive person who never developed symptoms)
  4. environmental transmission (indirect transmission which is not traceable to an index patient)
38
Q

how did dentist treatment during covid 19?

A

Aerosols generated during dental health care treatment in these individuals can also contain SARS-CoV-2.

Aerosol dispersion should be minimised by adjusting dental treatment procedures, for example by using hand instruments instead of water cooled instruments or ultrasonic cleaning devices.

39
Q

what are 4 types of active immunity?

A

Live attenuated vaccines
Inactivated organisms
Immunising components of organism
Toxoid

40
Q

what are 2 types of passive immunity?

A

Natural transmission from mother to foetus
Artificial

41
Q

what is the incubation period for Hepatitis B?

A

45 to 180 days.

42
Q

what is the mode of transmission for Hepatitis B?

A

Direct contact with infected blood.

43
Q

what is the prevention for Hepatitis B?

A

all members of dental team should be vaccinated against hepatitis B.

44
Q

what kind virus is Hepatitis B?

A
  • DNA virus.
45
Q

what kind of virus is hepatitis C?

A
  • It is a RNA virus.
46
Q

what are the dental clinical features of hepatitis C?

A

Lichenoid reaction; Xerostomia

47
Q

what are the dental clinical features of HIV?

A
  • HIV seropositive periodontal conditions, candidiasis
  • Clinical signs of viral infections as early indicators of conversion to AIDS
  • Increased frequency of minor oral infections.
48
Q

what Diseases strongly associated with HIV infection

A

Candidiasis
Hairy Leukoplakia
Kaposi’s Sarcoma
Non-Hodgkin’sLymphoma

49
Q

what virus causes Erythema infectiosum?

A

Parvovirus B19

50
Q

what are the clinical features of erythema infectiosum?

A
  • constitutional symptoms uncommon
  • rash - livid erythema of cheeks (slapped cheeks)
  • then maculo-papular on extremities and trunk
  • as second fades it assumes a lacy reticular appearance
51
Q

Is there treatment for erythema infectiosum?

A

Diagnosis is made clinically and there is no specific treatment

52
Q

what is scarlet fever caused by?

A

Group a beta-haemolytic streptococci which produces erythrogenic toxin.

53
Q

what are the clinical features of scarlet fever?

A
  • follows a pharyngeal infection
  • rash - diffuse erythema which blanches on pressure
  • skin folds are dark
  • circumoral pallor
  • strawberry tongue
54
Q

how to treat scarlet fever?

A

Treatment is penicillin

55
Q

what causes whooping cough?

A

Bordetella pertussis (gram negative bacillus)

56
Q

what is the incubation period of the whopping cough?

A

Incubation period is 7 days and is followed by the “catarrhal” phase which lasts 1-2 weeks

Spasmodic phase occupies next 4-6 weeks & consists of :
* severe paroxysmal cough with an inspiratory “whoop“
* vomiting
* cyanosis or apnea

57
Q

what are the complications of whooping cough.

A
  • bronchopneumonia - secondary to inhalation of secretions during whoops
  • convulsions
  • pressure effects - subconjunctival haemorrhage
  • facial petechiae during spasm
  • cerebral haemorrhage
  • prolapse of hernias
  • laceration of lingual fraenum against the lower incisors
58
Q

how is whooping cough investigated?

A

paranasal swabs and culture on bordet-gengou medium immunofluorescent antibody test.

59
Q

is there treatment for a whopping cough?

A

Treatment is symptomatic.

60
Q

What is tuberculosis caused by ?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

61
Q

How is tuberculosis prevented?

A

Immunization with BCG vaccine.

Gloves and mask should be worn.

62
Q

Give an example of a fungal infection?

A

Oral candidiasis. Common opportunistic infection from yeast-like organism Candida albicans.

63
Q

where are fungal infections typically seen in?

A
  • elderly patients
  • Infants
  • Medically compromised individuals
64
Q

what are the signs of fungal infections?

A
  • Pseudomembranous
  • Erythematous
  • Hyperplastic
  • Angular cheilitis
  • Median rhomboid glossitis
65
Q

what are the two types of parasitic infectious agents?

A
  • Local infections
  • Systemic infections with indirect effects
66
Q

give an example of a Systemic parasitic infection.

A

Protozoan flagellate Leishmania can affect the oral cavity.
Disfigurations/mucocutaneous form of the infection, resulting in granulomatous growth involving the mouth and the nose.

67
Q

Give an example of Local parasitic infections.

A

The two protozoa commonly in the oral cavity: T.tenax and E.gingivalis
Associated with poor oral hygiene.

68
Q

What is the diagnosis of local parasitic infections?

A

needle aspiration; biopsy

69
Q

What is the treatment of local parasitic infections?

A

Treatment:
* Metronidazole
* Leishmaniasis treatment complex: Antimonial, pentamidine and amphotericine B

HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE (58 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions