Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

rusvm small animal medicine i 2016 > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What type of bacteria is Salmonella?

A

gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is Salmonella transmitted?

A

Raw Chicken
Poultry consumption
Raw pet food diets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the clinical signs of Salmonella?

A 
Mild to severe gastroenteritis
Vomiting 
Diarrhea - watery to mucoid to hematochezia
hypovolemia
septic shock 
Neutropenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hematochezia

A

undigested bloody stool from the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do you diagnose Salmonella?

A

Fecal culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you treat Salmonella?

A

Chloramphenicol
Trimethoprim sulphonamide
amoxicillin
ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Campylobacter

A

gram negative curved slender motile rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the clinical signs for Campylobacter?

A 
Large bowel diarrhea
Mucous 
tenesmus
hematochezia
Elevated temperature
Leukocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tenesmus

A

straining to defecate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you diagnose Campylobacter?

A

Microscopic examinaations: curved gull wing shaped
Culture
PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you treat Campylobacter?

A

Erythromycin
Chloramphenicol
Cephalosporins
enrofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Helicobacter

A

Gram negative curved spiral bacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where are Helicobacter located?

A

Stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the clinical signs of Helicobacter?

A 
Chronic gastritis
Chronic vomiting
weight loss
emaciation 
diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you diagnose Helicobacter?

A

Gastric biopsies
Culture
PCR
EM and Molecular evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you treat Helicobacter?

A

Triple therapy - 2 antibiotics and an antacid
Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole
Amoxicillin, metronidazole and famotidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Brucella Canis

A

gram negative aerobic coccobacillary oragnism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is Brucella transmitted?

A 
aborted fetal material
semen
urine
milk
orally 
conjunctivally 
Penetrates the mucous membranes and enters lymphoreticular system, persists intracellularly.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where do you find the highest concentrations of Brucella?

A

vaginal discharge

Semen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the clinical signs of Brucellosis?

A 
Bacteremia
lymphadenopathy 
transient fevers
seizures
enlarged scrotum 
epididymitis
infertility 
testicular atrophy 
Infertility, abortion and stillborn pups in females
Discospondylitis 
Chorioretinitis
optic neuritis
anterior uveitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you diagnose Brucellosis?

A 
Hematology: Leukocytosis 
Hyperglobulinemia with hypoalbuminema 
CSF: neutrophilic pleocytosis with increased protein levels
Serology 
Rapid Slide agglutination test (RSAT) 
Tube agglutination test (TAT) 
AGID
ELISA
PCR
Culture aborted tissues or blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How long do titers stay positive with Brucellosis?

A

up to 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the treatment for Brucellosis?

A

Sterilize all infected animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Actinomyces and Nocardia spp.

A

Gram positive bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Actinomyces associated with?

A 
Anaerobic infections 
foreign body migrations
pyothorax
peritonitis
bite wounds
draining tracts/wounds with yellow granules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Nocardia associated with?

A

Wounds and pyothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do you diagnose Actinomyces and Nocardia?

A

Cytology and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the treatment for Actinomyces and Nocardia?

A

Surgical drainage and debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What antibiotics are used for Actinomyces?

A

Penicillins for 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What antibiotics are used for Nocardia?

A

Trimethroprim sulphonamides for 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Spirochete, thin elongated spiral shaped bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the host for Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Deer tick

Western Black legged tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How long does the tick have to attached to transmit Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

48-50 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does Borrelia burgdorferi contain?

A

Outer surface protein A

Outer Surface protein C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Outer protein A of Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Help the bacterium adhere to the midgut of infected ticks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Outer protein C of Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Attaches the bacterium to the hosts skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Characteristics of Borrelia burgdorferi

A

can morph from spiral/corkscrew shape to spherical/cystic form
Highly motile due to flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where does Borrelia burgdorferi sequester?

A

Joints
Fibroblasts
astrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Clinical signs of Borrelia burgdorferi

A 
Small red lesions on skin
Fever
Shifting leg lameness
Renal disease
meningitis
rheumatoid arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How long does it take for the clinical signs of Borrelia burgdorferi to appear?

A

2-5 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the most common clinical sign of Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Non-erosive polyarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is used to diagnose non-erosive poly arthritis of Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Joint fluid aspiration cytology - increased neutrophils and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the clinical signs of Borrelia burgdorferi?

A 
V/D
Weight loss
PU/PD
peripheral edema
ascites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What laboratory findings are associated with Borrelia burgdorferi?

A 
Non-reg anemia
stress leukogram 
Thrombocytopenia
Azotemia
low albumin level 
hypercholesterolemia
hyperphosphatemia
Urinanalysis: proteinuria, hematuria, glucosuria, bilirubinuria, and active sediment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What test is used for Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

C6 Antibody test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Do we treat the dog that tests positive on the C6 snap test and has clinical signs?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Do we treat the dog that tests positive on the C6 snap test and has no clinical signs?

A

Controversial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Doxycycline for 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do you prevent Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Proper effective tick prevention medication

Vaccinations - 24 weeks apart starting at 12 weeks of age then an annual booster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the human clinical signs of Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Erythematous rash

Musculoskeletal/ neurological or cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the most common infections in dogs of Leptospirosis?

A

L. canicola
L. icterohaemorrhagiae
L. grippotyphosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How is Leptospirosis transmitted?

A

Direct through infected urine, venereal and placental transfer, bite wounds, or ingestion of infected tissue
Indirect from contaminated water or food or soil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the environment for Leptospirosis?

A

Slow moving warm water
Soil pH neutral or slightly alkaline
Urine with higher pH
Ambient temperatures of 0C to 25C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Leptospirosis?

A

Transmitted through mucosal surface, orally, across placenta, through broken skin or by fomites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the incubation of Leptospirosis?

A

3-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Where does Leptospirosis spread to?

A 
Kidney 
Spleen 
CNS
eyes
genital tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the clinical signs of Leptospirosis?

A 
Fever
Tachypnea
rapid irregular pulse
vascular collapse
Petechiae
Hematemesis
hematochezia
melena
epistaxis
Icterus
Intestinal intussusception 
Oliguria/anuria
Anorexia 
Vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hematemesis

A

vomiting blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Hematochezia

A

bloody stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Melena

A

digested bloody black stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Epistaxis

A

bleeding from the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do you diagnose Leptospirosis?

A 
Hematology 
Thoracic radiographs 
Abdominal Ultrasound
Serology: Microscopic agglutination test (repeat sample 2-4 weeks later for titre)
PCR
Bacterial culture
renal biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What do you see on Thoracic radiographs with Leptospirosis?

A

Nodular opacities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What do you see on Abdominal Ultrasound with Leptospirosis?

A 
kidneys enlarged
medullary band of increased echogenicity 
pyelectasia
increassed cortical echogenicity 
mild perianal fluid accumulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What do you find on hematology for Leptospirosis?

A

decrease in platelets and neutrophils, and RBCs

Hepatic/renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What do you find on Urinanalysis for Leptospirosis?

A 
proteinuria
glucosuria
bilirubinuria
 pyuria
 hematuria
 granular casts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Pyelectasia

A

Enlargement of the pelvis of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the treatment for Leptospirosis?

A 
Supportive Care: 
Urinary catheter
Replacement fluids
Anti emetics
gastric protectants
Plasma/ Fresh whole blood 
Diuresis for acute renal failure
Doxycycline
Penicillin G
Ampicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Gram positive

Straight or slightly curved motile anaerobic rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What causes botulism?

A

ingestion of a preformed toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does botulinal toxin cause?

A

LMN disease/paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Clostridium botulinum?

A

Prevent presynaptic release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the clinical signs of Clostridium botulinum?

A 
Weakness
Flaccid paralysis
Autonomic dysfunction
Progressive symmetrical ascending paralysis 
Mydriasis
decreased gag reflex
excess salivation 
diminished palpebral reflexes
weak vocalisation 
Constipation 
Urinary retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the incubation period of Clostridium botulinum?

A

hours to 6 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How do you diagnose Clostridium botulinum?

A

EMG (electromyography)

toxin in serum, feces, vomitus, or stomach contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How do you treat Clostridium Botulinum?

A

Supportive care
Metronidazole
Penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How do you prevent clostridium botulinum?

A

Heat food

vaccination against toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Gram positive
motile
anaerobic spore producing bacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the two toxins of clostridium tetani?

A

Tetanoleptin

Tetanospasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Tetanoleptin

A

causes hemolysis of erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Tetanospasmin

A

causes neurological dysfunction but inhibiting the motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How does clostridium tetani toxin work?

A

the toxin migrates up the motor nerves, and can enter the spinal cord and ascends into the brain. It also affects the cranial nerves.
The toxin inhibits the release of 1. glycine and 2. gamma-aminobutyric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the clinical signs of clostridium tetani?

A 
Ear drawn back 
Sardonic grin 
Trismus (lock jaw)
Salivation 
Dysphagia
Gait - ambulatory but rigid
Progresses to opisthotonus, convulsions, and respiratory compromise leading to death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with clostridium tetani?

A 
Leukocytosis 
LS neutrophilia
Tachyarrhthmia
Bradyarrhythmia
Megaoesophagus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the treatment for clostridium tetani?

A 
Supportive care
Antitoxin IM
Antibiotics - Metranidazole, Penicillin G, and tetracyclin
Sedatives
Muscle relaxants
Autonomic agents
Surgery and wound management 
Nursing care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What tick transmits Mycoplasma haemocanis?

A

Brown tick - Rhipicephalus sanguineus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How do you diagnose Mycoplasma haemocanis?

A

PCR

organism on blood smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How do you treat Mycoplasma haemocanis?

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is required before clinical signs develop for Mycoplasma haemocanis?

A

Splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How is Canine Bartonella transmitted?

A

Dog bites
fleas
cat scratches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How do you diagnose Canine Bartonella?

A

Serology

Bacterial Isolation - PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the treatment for Canine Bartonella?

A

Doxycycline
Enrofloxacin
Azithromycin
rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Monocytotrophic ehrlichiosis

A

Ehrlichia canis

E. chaffeensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Granulocytotrophic ehrlichiosis

A

E. ewingii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Granulocytotrophic anaplasmosis

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Thrombocytotropic anaplasmosis

A

A. platys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Salmon poisoning

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the pathophysiology for Rickettsia?

A

Rickettsiae enter the blood, replicate in the endothelial cells leading to result in vascular damage and increased vascular permeability and leakage of fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the clinical signs of Rickettsia?

A 
Petechiation 
bleeding internally and externally 
lameness
thrombocytopenia
hypoalbuminemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the vector for E. canis and E. chaffeensis?

A

Rhicephalus spp. Amblyomma americanum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What cells do E. canis and E. chaffeensis infect?

A

Mononuclear cells in phagocytic tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What cells do A. equi or A. ewingii infect?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the vector for A. phagocytophilum?

A

Ixodes spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the clinical signs of A. equi and A. ewingii?

A

Lameness
Fever
Joint swelling
pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the vector for A. platys?

A

Rhicephalus and Dermacentor spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What cells do A. platys infect?

A

Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Dermacenter variabilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How do you diagnose Rickettsial disease?

A

Blood smear/cytology
Serology
PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the Clinical findings for Rickettsial disease?

A 
Hematology: Thrombocytopenia 
Neutropenia 
lymphocytosis
Anemia 
Hypoalbuminemia
hyperglobulinemia 
Proteinuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the CV signs of Rickettsia?

A

AV blocks
tachycardia
arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the CNS signs of Rickettsia?

A

vestibular
cerebellar signs
coma
paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the Ocular signs of Rickettsia?

A

Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the Renal signs of Rickettsia?

A

Azotemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are the Pulmonary signs of Rickettsia?

A

edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are the GI signs of Rickettsia?

A

vomiting
diarrhea
melena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the Integument signs of Rickettsia?

A

petechial bleeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the treatment for Rickettsia?

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the prevention for Rickettsia?

A

Tick control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

How is Neorickettsia helminthoeca transmitted?

A

ingestion of fish with a fluke containing rickettsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Where do you find Neorickettsia?

A

WA
OR
CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What are the clinical signs of Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

A 
Fever
serous to purulent ocular discharge
lymphadenopathy
splenomegaly 
periorbital edema
vomiting
diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How do you diagnose Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

A

Fluke eggs in feces

FNA of lymph nodes with rickettsial inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How do you treat Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

A

Supportive care

Tetracycline/doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Canine Distemper Virus?

A

Water droplets ender the upper respiratory tract epithelium and multiplies in the tissue macrophages which spreads to local lymphatics in tonsils and bronchial lymph nodes.
After 4-6 days virus multiplication occurs in the lymphoid follicles of the spleen and gut associated lymphatic tissue of the lamina propria of the stomach and small intestine, mesenteric lymph nodes and Kupfer cells in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Humoral immune system

A

antibodies produced by B-lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Cell mediated immune system

A

mediated by T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Where does Canine Distemper Virus spread to?

A 
skin
exocrine and endocrine glands
epithelium of the GI tract 
Respiratory tract 
Genitourinary tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the clinical signs of Canine Distemper Virus?

A 
Listlessness
Bilateral serous oculonasal discharge
Biphasic pyrexia
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Diarrhea
Vesicles and pustules of the skin
Nasal and digital hyperkeratosis
Respiratory Signs: Tachypnea
Neurological signs: Seizures, meningeal inflammation, Myoclonus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How do you diagnose Canine Distemper Virus?

A

Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in RBCs
MRI
Serology
CSF tap: Anti-CDV antibody, increase in protein count
PCR
Serum ANTIBODY testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the gold standard test for Canine Distemper Virus?

A

Neutralising antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is the treatment for Canine Distemper Virus?

A

Supportive- antibiotics and steroids to reduce CNS edema

Seizure medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is the prognosis for Canine Distemper Virus?

A

Poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

How do you prevent Canine Distemper Virus?

A

Vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What are the different types of Vaccination of Canine Distemper Virus?

A

Non-living antigen vaccine
Vector vaccine
Modified live vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is the most common vaccine used for Canine Distemper Virus?

A

Modified live vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What vaccine protects naive pups from Canine Distemper Virus?

A

Vector vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What vaccine causes adverse reactions?

A

Canine Distemper Virus vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

How often do you have to vaccinate for Canine Distemper Virus?

A

every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What virus is highly resistant to the environment in dogs?

A

Canine Adenovirus-type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What cleaning methods are effective for Canine Adenovirus-type 1?

A

steam cleaning
iodine
phenol
sodium hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Where is Canine Adenovirus-type 1 found on day 10-14?

A

Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Canine Adenovirus-type 1?

A

Oronasal exposure and multiplication in tonsils spreading to the lymphnodes and lymphatics leading to severe viremia spreading to Hepatic parenchyma cells, vascular endothelium and CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What are the clinical signs of Canine Adenovirus-type 1?

A 
Pyrexia
tachycardia
tonsillar enlargment 
lymphadenopathy 
hemorrhagic diathesis 
Corneal edema
anterior uveitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are the clinical findings for Canine Adenovirus-type 1?

A 
Leukopenia 
lymphopenia 
neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia
Hyperglobulinemia
Increased ALT, AST, and ALP
Coagulopathy abnormalities
Urinanalysis: Proteinuria
146
Q

How do you diagnose Canine Adenovirus-type 1?

A

Abdominal paracenteses
abdominocentesis
Serology: very high titres after infection
Pathology: Swollen liver and mottled, multiple ecchymotic hemorrhages

147
Q

What is the treatment for Canine Adenovirus-type 1?

A

Supportive

148
Q

How do you prevent Canine Adenovirus-type 1?

A

Vaccination - Modified Live Vaccine

149
Q

Where do you find Canine Parvovirus?

A

rapidly dividing cells from replication

150
Q

What is the signalment for Canine Parvovirus?

A

6weeks to 6 months

151
Q

What is the incubation period of Canine Parvovirus?

A

1-5 days

152
Q

What are the clinical signs of Canine Parvovirus?

A 
GI tract
vomiting
diarrhea
anorexia
severe dehydration
Bone marrow
severe leukopenia
153
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with Canine Parvovirus?

A

Leukopenia
Hemorrhagic enteritis
necrosis of the crypt epithelium in SI

154
Q

How do you diagnose Canine Parvovirus?

A

Fecal ELISA
Fecal PCR
Serology
EM of feces

155
Q

What is the only good way to detect immunity in vaccinated animals?

A

Serology

156
Q

What is the treatment for Canine Parvovirus?

A

Restore fluids and electrolytes
Antiemetic agents
FOOD, FOOD, FOOD
gastric protectants

157
Q

How do you prevent Canine Parvovirus?

A

Vaccinations: Modified Live

158
Q

What is the duration of immunity for Canine Parvovirus vaccine?

A

3-7 years

159
Q

How long does Canine Parvovirus persist in the environment?

A

greater than 5 months

160
Q

What is the incubation of Canine Coronavirus?

A

1-4 days

161
Q

What are the clinical signs of Canine Coronavirus?

A 
Enteric: orange colored feces
malodorous and infrequently contain blood 
Loss of appetite 
lethargy
Pantropic: anorexia
vomiting
hemorrhagic diarrhea
leukopenia
neurologic signs
respiratory difficulty
162
Q

What are the two types of Canine Coronavirus?

A

Enteric

Pantropic

163
Q

How do you diagnose Canine Coronavirus?

A

EM of fresh feces
Fecal PCR
Serum VN
ELISA

164
Q

What is the treatment for Canine Coronavirus?

A

Supportive care

Vaccinations: Modified Live vaccines

165
Q

What is the signalment for Canine Rotavirus?

A

younger than 12 weeks

166
Q

What are the clinical signs of Canine Rotavirus?

A

Mild diarrhea

167
Q

How do you diagnose Canine Rotavirus?

A

Fecal ELISA for rotavirus antigen

168
Q

What is the treatment for Canine Rotavirus?

A

Supportive care

169
Q

Cytocidal

A

causing tissue necrosis and localised mucosal or generalized infections in young or immunocompromised animals

170
Q

What is the pathogenesis for Canine Herpes Virus?

A

infected in utero from passage through the birth canal and contact with litter mates from oronasal secretions from dam or through fomites

171
Q

If the animal is infected at less than 1 week of age with Canine Herpes Virus

A

Fatal generalized infection

172
Q

If the animal is infected at greater than 2 weeks of age with Canine Herpes Virus

A

mild or inapparent infection

173
Q

Where does Canine Herpes Virus replicate in older animals?

A 
nasopharynx
genital tract
tonsils
retropharyngeal lymph nodes
bronchial lymph nodes
conjunctival tissue
lungs
174
Q

What are the clinical signs of Canine Herpes Virus?

A

Mild or inapparent upper respiratory infection
petechiae

abortions
stillbirths
multifocal ecchymotic hemorrhagic necrosis
vesicle lesions
DIC
thrombocytopenia
Neonates: Acute death, Dull, weight loss, depressed, loose interest in feeding, pass soft stools, Petechial hemorrhages on mucous membranes

175
Q

How do you diagnose Canine Herpes Virus?

A

Viral isolation
Serology
PCR

176
Q

What is the most reliable test for Canine Herpes Virus?

A

PCR

177
Q

What is the treatment for Canine Herpes Virus in neonates?

A

Noting - rapid and fatal

178
Q

What is the prevention for Canine Herpes Virus?

A

Vaccination

179
Q

How is Rabies virus transmitted?

A

bite from an infected animal carried in the saliva

180
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Rabies?

A

virus enters peripheral nerve and ascends through the sensory or motor fibre

181
Q

What is the time frame for CNS signs of Rabies?

A

3-8 weeks post infection

182
Q

What are the clinical signs of Rabies Virus?

A

Prodromal phase: Apprehension, nervousness, anxiety, solitude
Furious/psychotic type: Increased response, bite at objects, photophobic, hyperesthesia
Paralytic/dumb phase: Cranial nerve paralysis, hypersalivation, inability to swallow, paraperesis, incoordination, Ascending flaccid paralysis

183
Q

How do you diagnose Rabies Virus?

A

FA testing
testing of saliva for virus
Serology
PCR

184
Q

What is the treatment for Rabies Virus?

A

NONE

185
Q

How do you prevent Rabies Virus?

A

Killed vaccines: Parental modified live vaccinations

Vaccinate at 16 weeks, revaccinate at 1 year then every 3 years

186
Q

If animal is exposed unvaccinated what is the outcome?

A

euthanise

187
Q

If an animal is exposed and vaccinated but not current

A

evaluate on case by case

188
Q

If an animal is exposed and vaccinated and current

A

revaccinate immediately and monitor closely for 45 days

189
Q

Pseudorabies

A

Porcine herpesvirus 1

190
Q

What are the common names for Porcine Herpes Virus 1?

A

Pseudorabies
Aujesky’s disease
Mad itch
Infectious bulbar paralysis

191
Q

How is Porcine Herpes Virus 1 transmitted?

A

Contaminated Pork products

192
Q

What is the incubation period for Porcine Herpes Virus 1?

A

3-6 days

193
Q

What are the clinical signs of Porcine Herpes Virus 1?

A 
ALWAYS FATAL
Self mutilation 
Trismus
paresis
paralysis of facial muscles
difficulty in swallowing
Aggressiveness
head pressing 
convulsions
194
Q

How do you diagnose Porcine Herpes Virus 1?

A

CSF - increased proteins
FA testing for antigen or various tissues
PCR

195
Q

How do you treat Porcine Herpes Virus 1?

A

Prevention - keep away from raw pork products, vaccination in endemic areas only

196
Q

What are the two forms of Giardia?

A

Trophozoite

Cyst

197
Q

Trophozoite of Giardia

A

motile, active form

198
Q

Cyst form of Giardia

A

resistant stage contains two incompletely separated trophozoites

199
Q

How is Giardia released from the cyst?

A

excyst with help of gastric acid and pancreatic enzymes

200
Q

What happens when Giardia is released from the cyst?

A

Two trophozoites separate, mature and attach to the brush border of villous epithelium - duodenum to ileum in dogs and jejunum to ileum in cats

201
Q

What are the clinical signs for Giardia?

A

Diarrhea/maldigestion - malabsorption

202
Q

How do you diagnose Giardia?

A

Fecal microscopy
Fecal concentration techniques - identify cysts
Fecal ELISA test - antigen in feces
PCR

203
Q

What is the treatment for Giardia?

A

Fenbendazole
Metronidazole
Nitazoxinide

204
Q

How do you prevent Giardia?

A

Decontaminate environment
Treat affected animals
Clean cysts off coats
Prevent re-introduction of infection

205
Q

How is Cryptosporidium spp transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral route

206
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Cryptosporidum spp?

A

Oocytes excyst and release sporozoites to become trophozoites which proliferate on microvillous surface of enterocytes

207
Q

What are the clinical signs of Cryptosporidum spp?

A

Small bowel diarrhea
weight loss
Chronic cases: tenesmus, hematochezia, abdominal discomfort

208
Q

How do you diagnose Cryptosporidum spp?

A 
Fecal microscopic examination 
Concentration techniques
Cytological and histological staining using the modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain 
Immunostaining
Fecal antigen detection by ELISA
PCR
Intestinal biopsies
209
Q

What is the treatment for Cryptosporidum spp?

A

No specific treatment
Azithromycin
Nitazoxanide

210
Q

What happens with Isospora in immunosuppressed young animals?

A

Leads to intestinal infection

211
Q

What are the clinical signs of Isospora spp.?

A

Diarrhea
Anorexia
vomiting
mental depression

212
Q

How do you diagnose Coccidiosis?

A

Fecal flotation

213
Q

What is the treatment for Coccidiosis?

A

Sulfonamides
Amprolium
Toltrazuril/diclazuril

214
Q

How do you prevent Coccidiosis?

A

Clean kennels

remove feces daily

215
Q

What age is mostly affected by Neospora caninum?

A

Young Puppies

216
Q

What are the clinical signs of Neospora caninum?

A

Neurological deficits
Muscular abnormalities
Hepatic, pulmonary, and myocardial involvement

217
Q

What are the clinical signs of Neosporum caninum in puppies less than 6 months?

A

Muscle atrophy
stiffness
ascending paralysis
scar formation in muscles/myositis

218
Q

What are the clinical signs of Neospora caninum in dogs greater than 6 months of age?

A

Multifocal CNS involvement with or without Polymyositis, myocarditis, dermatitis, pneumonia

219
Q

How do you diagnose Neospora caninum?

A

Biochem: CK, AST increased
Serology: Antibody testing (ELISA, indirect FA, immunoprecipitation)
Check CSF

220
Q

What is the treatment for Neospora caninum?

A

Trimethoprim sulfonamides - 4-8 weeks

Clindamycin - 4-8 weeks

221
Q

How is Leishmania spp. transmitted?

A

Sand fly

in utero transmission

222
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Leishmania?

A

progmastigotes transferred from sand fly saliva into vertebrates skin. Phagocytosed by macrophages in which they undergo multiplication as amastigotes away from immune system, cell is lysed and these are released.

223
Q

What test is the most sensitive for Leishmania?

A

PCR

224
Q

How long does it take for IgG to develop for Leishmania?

A

2-4 weeks

225
Q

What is the therapy for Leishmania?

A 
Difficult 
Meglumine antimoniate
Allopurinol 
Multefosine
Liposomal amphotericin B
226
Q

What transmits Hepatozoon americanum?

A

Transmitted by dog predation on wild rodents and rabbits harboring the tissue cyst stage or a vector

227
Q

What is the vector or Hepatozoon americanum?

A

Amblyomma maculatum

228
Q

What is the vector for Hepatozoon canis?

A

Rhipicephalus tick

Amblyomma tick

229
Q

What animals are usually infected with H. americanum?

A

young immunocompromised animals

230
Q

What are the clinical signs of H. americanum?

A 
pyrexia
cachexia
pain 
lymphadenopathy
diarrhea
paraparesis
lameness
231
Q

What are the clinical findings for H. americanum?

A

Leukocytosis with gametocytes or gamonts inside monocytes
Reduced albumin
increased phosphorus and ALP
decreased glucose

232
Q

How do you diagnose H. americanum?

A

Radiographs

PCR

233
Q

What is the treatment for H. americanum?

A

NSAIDs for the pain

No treatment

234
Q

What Hemoprotozoan infects erythrocytes?

A

Babesiosis

235
Q

What does B. vogeli cause?

A

Hemolytic anemia

Thrombocytopenia

236
Q

What is the treatment for B. vogeli?

A

Imidocarb diproprionate - repeat in 2 weeks

237
Q

How is B. gibsoni transmitted?

A

dog fights

238
Q

What are the clinical signs of B. gibsoni?

A

Hemolytic anemia
thrombocytopenia
vasculitis
fever

239
Q

What is the treatment for B. gibsoni?

A

Clindamycin
diminazene
imidocarb combinations

240
Q

How do you diagnose Babesiosis?

A

Blood smear

PCR

241
Q

What color tube do you use for Babesiosis collection?

A

Purple top

242
Q

What is the most common bacterial infection of cats?

A

B. henselae

243
Q

Bartonella spp.

A

Small curved gram negative hemotropic rods

244
Q

What environment is Bartonella common in?

A

Warm humid areas

245
Q

How is Bartonella transmitted in cats?

A

Fleas

246
Q

What is the vector for Bartonella in cats?

A

Ctenocephalides felis

247
Q

In what cat patients is Bacteremia more severe?

A

Cats coinfected with FeLV, FIV, or FPV

248
Q

What type of bacteria are Bartonella spp.?

A

intracellular

249
Q

In what cells is Bartonella found?

A

Erythrocytes

250
Q

What are the clinical signs of Bartonella in cats?

A

Lymphadenopathy
Transient fever
lethargy
anorexia

251
Q

How do you diagnose Bartonella spp. in cats?

A

Blood culture
Serology
PCR

252
Q

What is a reliable test for definitive diagnosis of Bartonella in cats?

A

Blood culture

253
Q

Where do you take samples for Bartonella samples in cats?

A

3 different places: Jugular, Saphenous, etc

254
Q

What is the treatment for Bartonella spp in cats?

A

Enrofloxacin 14-28 days
Doxycycline 14-28 days
Azithromycin for 14 days

255
Q

How do you prevent Bartonella in Cats?

A

Avoid contact with infected cats and fleas

Avoid blood transfusions from cats with unknown Bartonella status

256
Q

What is the common name for the disease from Bartonella spp in cats?

A

Cat scratch disease

257
Q

Hemotropic mycoplasm

A

wall-less bacterial organisms that attach and grow on the surface of red blood cells
Gran negative bacteria

258
Q

What are the two forms of Mycoplasma spp. in cats?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

Candidatus Mycoplasma haemominutum

259
Q

How is Mycoplasma spp. transmitted in cats?

A

Blood sucking arthropods and fleas
through fighting and saliva
trasnmission from queen to kittens

260
Q

What are the clinical signs Mycoplasma spp. in cats?

A

Immune mediated Hemolytic anemia and Intravascular/extravascular Hemolysis
Cyclic parasitemia
Pale or icteric MM

261
Q

What are the clinical findings of Bartonella in cats?

A

Hyperbilirubinemia
Hyperglobulinemia
Elevated ALT/AST
Hypoglycemia

262
Q

How do you diagnose Mycoplasma spp in cats?

A

PCR

263
Q

What is the treatment for Mycoplasma spp. in cats?

A 
Doxycycline 
Enrofloxacin 
Marbofloxacin
Pradofloxacin
Prednisolone for severely anemia animals
264
Q

What does Feline parvovirus cause?

A

Feline panleukopenia

265
Q

How long should owners with a Feline Parvovirus positive animal wait til they get a new kitten?

A

6 months to a year

266
Q

What kind of cells does Feline Parvovirus require?

A

rapidly dividing cell
Lymphoid tissue
Bone marrow
intestinal mucosa

267
Q

What tissues are targeted by Feline Parvovirus?

A

Intestinal crypts

268
Q

Where does Feline Parvovirus replicate?

A

Neurons

269
Q

What are the clinical signs for Feline Parvovirus?

A

Peracute: septic shock, deH2O, hypothermic and comatosed
Acute form: fever, depression, anorexia, vomiting, dehydration, diarrhea, mesenteric lymphadenopathy, petechiae, and ecchymosis

270
Q

How do you diagnose Feline Parvovirus?

A

Serology
Fecal Viral Antigen test - ELISA
Viral isolation
Genetic detection - PCR

271
Q

What is the treatment for Feline Parvovirus?

A 
Symptomatic and nursing care
Parenteral fluids/electrolyte 
Anti-emetics
Broad spectrum Antibiotics
IFN-omega
Food
272
Q

How do you prevent Feline Parvovirus?

A

Vaccinations- Inactivated or Modified Live vaccines

273
Q

What are some other enteric viruses of cats?

A 
Astrovirus
Feline rotavirus
Norovirus
Torovirus
Reovirus
274
Q

What are the two serotypes of Feline coronavirus?

A

Type 1 - unique feline strain

Type 2 - recombination of feline and canine coronavirus

275
Q

What is the most common type of Feline coronavirus?

A

Type 1

276
Q

What are the changes in Feline Husbandry that have lead to an increase in Feline coronavirus?

A 
Greater number of cats
Indoors
Popularity of pure breeds
Increase number of cats live in shelters
Diet
Age 
Breeds
277
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Feline coronavirus?

A

Virus replicates in small intestine and ileocecocolic junction

278
Q

How long after infection is Feline coronavirus shed in feces?

A

2 days

279
Q

How is Feline coronavirus transmitted?

A

Direct contact with infected feces

280
Q

Where do you find FIV?

A

Monocytes

281
Q

What are the keys to development of FIP?

A

Feline coronavirus in monocytes adheres to blood vessel walls and extravasates

282
Q

FeCoV monocytes release…

A

IL-6
TNF-alpha
IL-1
Metalloproteinase MMP-9

283
Q

IL-6

A

stimulates hepatocytes to release acute phase proteins and stimulate Beta-lymphocytes to differentiate into plasma cells resulting in hypergammaglobulinemia

284
Q

TNF-alpha

A

major contributor to inflammation, cause of lymphopenia in non-effusive FIP, cause cachexia

285
Q

IL-1

A

activates B and T lymphocytes, pyrogenic, contributes to inflammatory response

286
Q

Metalloproteinase MMP-9

A

responsible for leakiness of blood vessels - as break down extracellular matrix proteins

287
Q

How does cell mediated immune response to FeCoV play a role in Feline coronavirus?

A

prevents infection

288
Q

Absent CMI response and strong humoral response to Feline coronavirus

A

develop effusive FIP

289
Q

Intermediated CMI response to Feline coronavirus

A

non effusive FIP

290
Q

What are the clinical signs of the initial infection of Feline coronavirus?

A

Diarrhea
Upper respiratory tract signs
vomiting
weight loss

291
Q

What are the clinical signs of the Effusive (wet) FIP form?

A 
Ascites
Bright or dull
Pyrexia
weight loss
dyspnea
tachypnea
icterus or Pale MM
Muffled heart sounds
pericardial effusions
Palpable abdominal masses
292
Q

What are the clinical signs of the non-effusive form of FIP?

A 
Pyrexia
weight loss
dullness
depressed appetite
icterus
intraocular lesions
Aqueous flare/ cloudiness of anterior chamber
Keratic precipitates
Retinal hemorhhage/detachment 
dyspnea/tachypnea
293
Q

What is the gold standard test for diagnosis of Feline Coronavirus?

A

Histopathology

294
Q

How do you diagnose Feline Coronavirus?

A

Effusion analysis
Rivalta Test
Positive immunofluorescent staining

295
Q

Effusion analysis of Feline Coronavirus?

A

Clear straw colored and viscous modified transudate

Albumin:globulin ration is usually less than 0.45

296
Q

Rivalta Test for Feline Coronavirus?

A

Add 1 drop of 8% acetic acid to distilled water

if the drop remains intact and retains its shape = positive

297
Q

Positive immunofluorescent staining

A

shows infected macrophages

298
Q

What is a definitive diagnosis for Feline Coronavirus?

A

Positive Immunofluorescent staining

299
Q

What do you see on CBC and biochem associated with Feline Coronavirus?

A

Lymphopenia
Non-regenerative anemia with the non-effusive form
thrombocytopenia
High serum protein levels
Increased in gamma globulin
Hyperbilirubinemia - reflect hepatic necrosis

300
Q

How do you diagnose Feline Coronavirus?

A

High AGP (alpha-1 acid glycoprotein) levels
FeCoV antibody titre
Reverse transcriptase - polymerase chain reaction test
RT-PCR for messenger RNA
Antigen detection in tissues

301
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of Feline Coronavirus?

A

Indirect FA testing

302
Q

What is very sensitive for Feline Coronavirus?

A

Reverse transcriptase - polymerase chain reaction test

303
Q

What is the treatment for Feline Coronavirus?

A

No real therapy
Glucocorticoids
Good nutrition

304
Q

How do you prevent Feline Coronavirus?

A

Vaccination

305
Q

What tissues does Feline Leukemia Virus replicate in?

A

Bone marrow
salivary glands
respiratory epithelium

306
Q

What does Feline Leukemia Virus need for replication?

A

Host DNA

307
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus gag gene?

A

encodes for internal structural proteins

308
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus Gag protein p27

A

Used for diagnosis of Feline Leukemia Virus

309
Q

What is the signalment for Feline Leukemia Virus?

A 
Outdoor cats
Exposure to other cats
Fighting and intact males
Aggressive cats
Males more than females
Lower in indoor cats and purebreds
Adult cats higher prevalence
310
Q

How is Feline Leukemia Virus transmitted?

A

close contact through saliva and also blood
through fleas, fomites, infected needles, blood transfusions
Kitten infected transplacentally

311
Q

What were the four stages of Feline Leukemia Virus?

A

Abortive infection
Regressive infection
Progressive infection
Focal or Atypical infection

312
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus Abortiveinfection

A

High levels of neutralizing antibodies in circulation

313
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus Regressive infection

A

effective immune response

can reactivate in pregnant cats due to immunosuppression

314
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus Progressive infection

A

Virus is not contained
Immune system is not strong enough
remain persistently viremic

315
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus Focal or Atypical infection

A

Virus restricted to certain tissues

P27 antigen postive or negative

316
Q

What are the clinical signs of Feline Leukemia Virus?

A 
Hematopoietic malignancy 
Myelosuppression 
Infectious disease
Coinfections with FIP and FIV
Anemia 
Lymphoma
Fading kitten syndrome
Neuropathy
317
Q

How do you diagnose Feline Leukemia Virus?

A

Look for p27 antigen on ELISA

Direct FA testing

318
Q

What do you use when a regressive infection is suspected for Feline Leukemia Virus?

A

Nucleic acid detection

319
Q

How do you treat Feline Leukemia Virus?

A

All cats are tested
Vaccinate with core vaccines - every 6 months
Antiviral chemotherapy - Zidovudine (AZT)
Immunomodulatory therapy - Feline IFN-omega

320
Q

How do you treat tumors from Feline Leukemia Virus?

A

routine chemotherapy

321
Q

How do you treat Hematological disorders for Feline Leukemia Virus?

A

Blood transfusions
Human erythropoietin
G-CSF (granulocyte colony stimulating factor)

322
Q

How do you prevent Feline Leukemia Virus?

A

Vaccination - attenuated virus

323
Q

What is the signalment for Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

Outdoors
high population densities
higher in male cats
Adult cats

324
Q

How is Feline immunodeficiency virus transmitted?

A

Saliva or blood
bites or wounds
In utero or postpartum

325
Q

Where can you find high concentrations of Feline immunodeficiency virus??

A

in Milk

326
Q

What is the pathogenesis for Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

virus cleared by the macrophages and replicates in lymphocytes which spread to bone marrow, lung, intestinal tract, brain and kidneys

327
Q

What cells of the immune system are affected by Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

CD8+ and CD4+

328
Q

What are the clinical signs of the acute phase of Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A 
Fever 
malaise
lymphadenopathy 
enteritis
respiratory tract disease
stomatitis
dermatitis
329
Q

What are the stages of Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

Acute phase
Clinical asymptomatic phase
Terminal phase

330
Q

What are the clinical signs of the Terminal phase of Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

Neurological signs
ocular disease
Neopliasia

331
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

Neutropenia
lymphopenia
Anemia
Hyperglobulinemia

332
Q

How do you diagnose Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

ELISA Antibody testing

333
Q

How long do kittens with Feline immunodeficiency virus have antibodies from the mother?

A

up to 6 months

334
Q

What is the treatment for Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

Antiviral chemotherapy: AZT (zidovudine)

Immunodeficiency therapy: IFN-omega

335
Q

What do you treat anemia with in cats with Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

rHuEPO

336
Q

What do you treat neutropenia with inc ats with Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

G-CSF

337
Q

How do you prevent Feline immunodeficiency virus?

A

Identify and segregate infected cats

FIV vaccine

338
Q

What are the three infectious stages of Toxoplasma?

A

Sporozoites
Tachyzoites
Bradyzoites

339
Q

How is Toxoplasmosi transmitted?

A 
Congenital infection 
Ingestion of infected tissues
ingestion of oocyst contaminated food or water 
lactational 
transplantation
340
Q

What is the life cycle of Toxoplasmosis?

A
  1. Ingestion of cysts
  2. release of bradyzoites
  3. Bradyzoites penetrate epithelial wall
  4. Eventually form micro and macrogamonts
  5. oocyst passsed out in the feces and sporulates
341
Q

What are common sites of replication for Toxoplasma in cats?

A

Brain
liver
lung
skeletal muscle and eyes

342
Q

What are the clinical signs of Toxoplasma in cats?

A 
Naive cats: small bowel diarrhea
Systemi infection: 
hepatopathy
ascites
chorioretinitis
anterior uveitis
Older cats: fever
Myocarditis
Vomiting
diarrhea
abdominal effusion 
Hyperesthesia 
Neurological deficits
343
Q

What are the clinical findings for Toxoplasmosis?

A

non-reg anemia
neutrophili leukocytsis
Increased ALT, AST, CK, Bilirubin levels, amylase and lipase

344
Q

How do you diagnose Toxoplasmosis?

A 
Cytology
Radiology 
Fecal exam 
Serology for antibodies 
Aqueous humor and CSF assessment
Culture 
ELISA - antigen
PCR
345
Q

What is the treatment for Toxoplasmosis in cats?

A

Clindamycin
Pyrimethamine and sulphonamide combination
Monensin
Toltrazuril

346
Q

How do you prevent Toxoplasmosis in cats?

A

Avoid raw diets

347
Q

How is Trichomoniasis transmitted?

A

shared litterboxes

348
Q

What are the clinical signs of Trichomoniasis?

A

Large bowel diarrhea with fresh blood

349
Q

How do you diagnose Trichomoniasis in cats?

A

Fecal smear
culturing feces using special growth media
PCR

350
Q

What is the treatment for Trichomoniasis in cats?

A

Ronidazole

351
Q

What are the vectors for Cytauzoonosis?

A

Amblyomma americanum

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

352
Q

What area is Cytauzoonosis found in?

A

South-eastern and mid atlantic regions

353
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Cytauzoonosis?

A

Asexual reproduction within host mononuclear phagocytic cells leading to vasculitis and vascular obstruction
The cells rupture and release merozoites
Erythrocytes take up merozoites by endocytosis producing classical piroplasma

354
Q

What are the clinical signs of Cytauzoonosis?

A 
Anorexia 
lethargy 
fever
Increased vocalisation 
weakness
icterus
dark yellow urine
respiratory distress
obtunded mentation 
seizures
DIC
355
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with Cytauzoonosis?

A 
Pancytopenia 
anemia
DIC
erythroparasitemia
Piroplasma
schizonts in mononuclear cells
Schizont laden macrophages
356
Q

How do you diagnose Cytauzoonosis?

A

PCR

357
Q

How do you treat Cytauzoonosis?

A

Supportive care

antiprotozoal medication:- Imidocarb, Atovaquone and azithromycin, Diminazene aceturate

358
Q

How do you prevent Cytauzoonosis?

A

Prevent tick exposure

359
Q

What fungal infection are cats highly susceptible to?

A

Sporotrichosis

360
Q

What are the clinical signs of Sporotrichosis?

A

Multiple skin and mucosal lesions

361
Q

How do you treat Sporotrichosis?

A

Itraconozole and saturated KI solution

rusvm small animal medicine i 2016 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions