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JVIM 2018-2023 > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

percent of dogs with cribiform plate lysis?

A

22%

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2
Q

Rate of seizures for dogs with cribiform plate lysis when treated with topical therpay?

A

none in dogs with lesions as large as 16 x 22 mm2

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3
Q

Sn and Sp of Bartonella IFA?

A

62% sn (poor), sp 85%

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4
Q

Prevalence of atovaquone resistant Babesia gibsoni? What gene is this associated with?

A

3.5%
Associated with M128 position of cytochrome B
don’t need to test for resistance pre-treatment due low incidence

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5
Q

25OHD concentrations and other related metabolites in dogs with blasto? Is this associated with prognosis?

A

25OHD is lower, PTH also lower
higher iCa
25OHD independently associated with neutrophil count, pCO2, and bone/skin involvement
no associated with survival

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6
Q

What factors are associated with survival in dogs with blasto?

A

lactate, bone, skin, and LN involvement
Number of affected sites
Presence of respiraotry signs

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7
Q

In endemic regions, how does seroprevalence of T cruzi compare to that of tick borne disease and heartworm disease?

A

18.1% positive
Higher than tick borne pathogens
Equivalent to heartworm (16%)

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8
Q

Most frequent PE finding in dogs with E. ewingii?

A

joint pain

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9
Q

Biochemical findings in dogs with E ewingii?

A

neutrophilia
ALP and ALT elevation
Increased SDMA
Proteinuria

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10
Q

What other disease processes can be seen in dogs who are positive for E. ewingii?

A

IMHA and renal disease

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11
Q

What are biochemical findings noted in dogs with B canis?

A

marked acute phase protein response
lower chol, phospholipid, TG, and a-lipoprotein
Higher ApoA-1 concentration and SAA

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12
Q

What breed and age are more likely to be infected with Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

non sporting and toy breeds
Younger (mean age 5.9)
13x more likely if housemate or litter mate infected

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13
Q

What cardiac changes are expected in dogs with Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

ventriculare arrhythmias, ECG abnormalities,
increased Troponin I

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14
Q

Prevalence of B vulpes compared to B gibsoni?

A

0.2% comapred to 1.7%
0.31% co-infected

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15
Q

If a dog is positive for B vulpes, what other infection may you expect to find?

A

Hemotropic mycoplasma
D immitis
Wolbachia
B gibosni

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16
Q

Sn and SP of IMMY crypto assay and CryptoPS assay?

A

IMMY (LFA): sn 92%, Sp 93.2%
CryptoPS: Sn 80%, sp 94.9%

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17
Q

How might Rickettsia rickettsii infection impact bartonella positivity in a dog?

A

May have recrudescence of chronic subclinical bartonella spp after Rr infection

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18
Q

How can total t4 be used to discriminate feline parvovirus survivors from non survivors?

A

Cut off of 0.82 ug/dL to differentiate
73.9% sn, 82.9% sp

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19
Q

how does tracheal stent placement impact bacterial infection?

A

not associated with increased risk of bacterial infection
decreases infection in geriatric dogs and dogs with traditional-type collapse

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20
Q

Highest positivity rate of diagnosing Tritrichomonas foetus via PCR based on collection method?

A

Better sensitivity with fecal loop vs colonic flush
No association with treatment history/type or prior treatment with ronidazole

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21
Q

Percent of cats who did not have Trictrichomonas foetus cleared after first ronidazole therapy?

A

21%

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22
Q

What vector borne diseases are most commonly associated with proteinuria? What % of proteinuria dogs were exposed to at least one vector borne disease?

A

Ehrlichia, Rickettsia and B. burgdorferi
34%

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23
Q

In dogs with immune mediated disease secondary to E canis (acute or subclinical phase), do you expect to see disease recrudescence after immune suppression?

A

no evidence of disease recrudescence if treated with 4 weeks of doxycycline for acute/subclinical E canis

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24
Q

What diseases has Bartonella rochalimae been associated with?

A

Endocarditis, seizures and antibiotic responsive lameness

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25
Q

How does L4 vaccination impact risk of dogs getting lepto?

A

marked decrease in lepto and AKI
Vaccine associated with decreased odds of disease

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26
Q

what gene mutation is associated with atovaquone and azithromycin treatment in Cytauxzoon felis?

A

M128 cytochrome B mutation (may develop this mutation after treatment with drug)

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27
Q

What gene may be associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia in cats?

A

Homozygous frameshift variant in integrin subunit allb (ITGA2B) gene

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28
Q

How can you diagnose Cystoisospora felis?

A

Fecal float, but can have false negatives

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29
Q

What type of mycobacterium is more likely to cause disseminated disease?

A

Mycobacterium avium more likely than rapid growers
Death more likely than rapid growers

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30
Q

Primary features of rapid growing mycobacteria infections?

A

cats with outdoor access
Diseases of the skin and subcutis

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31
Q

Common resistance pattern of M avium? Rapid growing species?

A

fluoroquinolones and aminoglycosides for M avium
RGM: third and fourth generation cephalosporins

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32
Q

Sn and SP of novel antigen enzyme immunoe assay for diagnosis of histopasma? (urine)

A

Sn 70%, Sp 99%, Accuracy 93%
Limited if disease localized to GI tract (false negative more likely)

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33
Q

Sn, Sp, and accurasy of MiraVista Histo EIA?

A

Sn 95%, Sp 99%, Accuracy 98%

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34
Q

overall survival and 6 month survival for dogs with blastomyces?

A

87% overall survival
69% survival to 6 months

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35
Q

how does urine antigen level and radiographic lung score of blasto relate to outcome of dogs with blasto?

A

Lower urine antigen level and radiographic lung severy improved survival (antigen cut off <5, mild RLS score)
All dogs with these levels survived
over these levels 68.1% survived

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36
Q

Seroprevalence of leishmaniasis in the US? % fox hounds vs non foxhounds

A

6.4% seropositive
8% foxhounds, 92% non foxhounds
13% had not traveled outside the US or Canada

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37
Q

Positive percent agreement and negative percent agreement of LFA for cocci compared to AGID?

A

88.9% positive agreement
100% negative agreement
Positive agreement lower with lower AGID titers

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38
Q

Prevalence of MDR organisms pre and post hospitlization in switzerland? What organisms are most common?

A

15.5% admission, 32.1% discharge
EBSL E coli
B lactamase producing klebsiella

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39
Q

Where are clusters of leptospirosis in the US?

A

arizona
california
florida
south carolina
south-central region
midwest
northeast

40
Q

Most common clinical signs of heterobilharzia?

A

55.8% diarrhea, vomiting 46.2%, weight loss with or without anorexia 15.4%

41
Q

most common lab findings in dogs with heterobilharzia?

A

hyperglobulinemia-42.6%
increased liver enzymes-30%
eosinophilia >40%

42
Q

Ultrasound findings for dogs with heterobilharzia?

A

Pinpoint hyperechoic foci in intestines, liver, or mesenteric LN

43
Q

prognosis of heterobilharzia?

A

73.5% alive at 6 months

44
Q

Success of low dose praziquantel and fenbendazole for treatment of schistosomiasis in asymptomatic dogs?

A

dogs were negative on fecal float and sedimentation, still positive on PCR
Dose: 5 mg/kg praziquantel PO q8h for 2 days
24 mg/kg PO q24h x 7 days fenbendazole

45
Q

What marker can be used to help predict outcome, what can be used to identify dogs at risk for lepto associated lung injury?

A

slCAM-1 and VEGF associated with outcome (higher in non survivors)
slCAM-1 might identify dogs at risk for lepto lung injury

46
Q

Most common arrhythmias in dogs with T cruzi?

A

Ventricular arrhythmia and AV block

47
Q

Most common echo abnormalities in dogs with T cruzi

A

RV and LA enlargement

48
Q

Predictors of outcome in dogs with T cruzi?

A

RV enlargement and higher body weight at presentation associated with poor outcome

49
Q

Most common presenting sign of dogs with intracranial cocci?

A

Tonic clonic seizures

50
Q

What lesions would you expect on MRI in dogs with intracranial cocci?

A

granulomatous form: 1 or more distinct intra-axial contrast enhancing foci
Diffuse, bilateral, symmetrical lesions of caudate nuclei and frontal lobe

51
Q

1 year survival of dogs with CNS cocci?

A

82% alive

51
Q

most common clinical signs of disseminated Rasamsonia in dogs?

A

anorexia and backpain

52
Q

MST of disseminated Rasamsonia, MST if survived to discharge?

A

MST 82 days
If survived to discharge 317 days

53
Q

What should be monitored in dogs recieving posaconazole?

A

liver function
one dog required dose reduction
one dog required treatment discontinuation

54
Q

Seroprevalence of bartonella?
Which breeds are more likely to be positive?

A

6.1%
Toy breeds less likely than mixed breeds

55
Q

Highest geographic location of bartonella?

A

West south central and south atlantic region

56
Q

most common locations to find schizont laden macrophages in cats with Cytauxzoon felis?

A

Splenic aspirate most common (77%)
Blood films (33%)
LN aspirate (56%)
novice observers most likely to agree with experts in splenic aspirates (sn 77.1%, sp 94.4%)

57
Q

rate of AKI and development of CKD in dogs with lepto?

A

100% AKI
2/32 developed CKD (6-18% in other studies)-in dogs with persistent leptospirauria

58
Q

% of dogs with persistent positive lepto urine PCR after doxycycline treatment?

A

38% still had positive urine PCR after 18 days

59
Q

What biochemical values can increase suspicion of neospora in dogs with meningoencephalitis?

A

CK most sensitive and specific
CK, cut off of 485 sn 95%, sp 96%
AST cut off of 57 sn 94%, sp 85%

60
Q

MST of dogs with disseminated asper recieving intraconazole alone?

A

MST 63 days

61
Q

MST for dogs with disseminated asper if they received multimodal treatment?

A

830 days

62
Q

What parameter increases hazard of daily death in dogs with disseminated aspergillosis?

A

abnormally high serum creatinine (7.4 x per day)

63
Q

What population of grey hounds have higher rates of vector borne disease?

A

National Greyhound Association more positive than AKC

63
Q

sight of lowest sensitivity of parvo PCR?

A

rectum in dogs who are sick

64
Q

What vector borne diseases are found in grey hounds?

A

Bartonella, Babesia vogeli, E canis, mycoplasma hemocanis

65
Q

Sn and sp of
Aspfum
PanAsp

A

Aspfum (Ct cut off of 33.3): Sn 65%, Sp 100%
PanAsp (Ct cut off 34.5) SN 70%, sp 96.2%
PanFun-trash (positive in almost 50% of healthy dogs)

66
Q

What radiographic change can be used to increase suspicion of distemper?

A

metaphyseal sclerosis, most common at proximal humeral diaphysis

67
Q

What clinicopathologic changes were noted in dogs with B canis in Germany?

A

Clinical: pale mm, fever, pigmenturia
Clinicopatholgic: Thrombocytopenia (100%), anemia, intravascular hemolysis, pancytopenia, SIRS

68
Q

Difference of 25OHD in dogs with cocci vs healthy dogs?

A

No difference in 25OHD in healthy vs control dogs

69
Q

Association of 25OHD in dog s with cocci? CRP?

A

25OHD lower in dogs with higher titers (>1:32)
CRP higher in dogs with IgG >1:16
>1:32=higher odds of disseminated disease

70
Q

How would you interpret a positive crypto immy? negative crypto immy?

A

positive: further testing to confirm
negative: confirms negative disease

71
Q

Based on meta-analysis, are lyme disease vaccines effective?

A

yes, reduced odds of developing lameness, depression, pyrexia, and anorexia

72
Q

Most common bacteria cultured in brachycephalics with middle ear effusion?

A

Staph pseudintermedius
no bacterial growth from 79%
Macrophages and neutrophils predominant on cyto with or without culture

73
Q

What are two common signs in brachycephalic dogs with middle ear effusion?

A

Neurologic deficits 38%
atopic dermatitis 56%

74
Q

What clinical and bloodwork changes are associated with babesia conradae infection?

A

aggressive interactions with coyotes
lower HCT, MCHC, leukocyte, platelets, and albumin
higher MCV, MPV, and globulin

75
Q

Percent of dogs with B conradae positive for other vector borne diseases?

A

16/29
M haemocanis, M haumotoparbum, E canis, Bartonella, Hepatozoon felis like organism
NO tularemia

76
Q

sn, sp, and accuracy of miravista urine antigen for cats?

A

sn 94%, sp 97%, accuracy 96%

77
Q

is in house urine immy useful for diagnosing histoplasma for cats?

A

moderate overall agreement
cut off of 1.1 sn 77%, sp 97%, accuracy 89%

78
Q

what diagnostics can be used to determine therapeutic level of rivaroxaban?

A

1.5-1.9 x delay in PT and R value of TEG
Three hours after riva administration

79
Q

How does bartonella infection impact lab findings? What is the take away of this paper?

A

No clinically relevant changes in bartonella PCR positive
however, consider bartonella in young, febrile cat with unexplained neutrophilia in areas high risk for fleas

80
Q

Disease categories that can cause severe neutrophilia (>50,000 in dogs)

A

neoplasia, immune mediated disease
tissue damage/necrosis
Outcome depends on underlying disease (higher with neoplasia vs immune mediated/damange/necrosis)

81
Q

In pneumonia, septic arthritis, and pyometra, what biomarkers can be used to help identify disease resolution?

A

CPR and SAA
biomarkers normalized within 7-14 days

82
Q

What percent of dogs with myelofibrosis have somatic varients?

A

69%, suggests occurrence of clonal hematopoiesis in dogs with myelofibrosis

83
Q

Does pre-storage leukoreduction change leukocyte, IL-6, IL-8, MCP-1, and CRP?

A

no per Claus 2022, though supsect due to low sample size

84
Q

How does IV catheter scavenge vs jugular vein blood draw values differ?

A

no clinically relevant blues, however If disagreement, most likely AST, TBili, K, HCO3, leukocyte differential counts, RBC count, Hgb, HCT, PCV

85
Q

In dogs with NSAID treated with TPE, percent AEs and survival to discharge?

A

98.4% survived to discharge
13% AE (urticaria, asymptomatic hypocalcemia, hypotension)

86
Q

How does inhaled albuterol impact blood potassium?

A

decreases potassium by 0.38
Nadir at 60 min, decreases by 30 min

87
Q

How does albuterol reduce potassium?

A

stimulates endogenous insulin release
induces extracellular membrane-bound Na/K-ATPase pumps in inuslin dependent fasion

88
Q

AEs of inhaled albuterol for treating hyperkalemia?

A

no evidence of tachycardia or hypoglycemia

89
Q

Does co-administration of prednisone and rivaroxaban impact glotting time?

A

no

90
Q

how is Carboxyhemoglobin associated with IMHA?

A

higher in hemolytic anemia compared to healthy and non hemolytic anemia
useful tool for monitoring, not associated with survival

91
Q

What caused a pancytopenia outbreak in cats in the UK?

A

trichothecene mycotoxicosis feed contamination

92
Q

Bone marrow findings in cats with trichothecene mycotoxicosis feed contamination?

A

bone marrow hypo to aplasia affecting all cell lines
disproportionately affecting myeloid and megakaryocytic cells

93
Q

How long after enoxaparin administration will you see a difference in viscoelastic coagulation monitor in cats?

A

Two hours

94
Q

How is 25OD impacted in dogs with histo?

A

lower in dogs with histo
CRP and haptoglobin higher

95
Q

What antimicrobials are most commonly prescirbed? overall and high priority abx?

A

Aminopenicillins/beta-lactamase inhibitors
high priority: fluoroquinolones and third generation cephalosporins

JVIM 2018-2023 (9 decks)

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