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JVIM 2018-2023 > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

percent of dogs with cribiform plate lysis?

A

22%

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2
Q

Rate of seizures for dogs with cribiform plate lysis when treated with topical therpay?

A

none in dogs with lesions as large as 16 x 22 mm2

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3
Q

Sn and Sp of Bartonella IFA?

A

62% sn (poor), sp 85%

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4
Q

Prevalence of atovaquone resistant Babesia gibsoni? What gene is this associated with?

A

3.5%
Associated with M128 position of cytochrome B
don’t need to test for resistance pre-treatment due low incidence

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5
Q

25OHD concentrations and other related metabolites in dogs with blasto? Is this associated with prognosis?

A

25OHD is lower, PTH also lower
higher iCa
25OHD independently associated with neutrophil count, pCO2, and bone/skin involvement
no associated with survival

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6
Q

What factors are associated with survival in dogs with blasto?

A

lactate, bone, skin, and LN involvement
Number of affected sites
Presence of respiraotry signs

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7
Q

In endemic regions, how does seroprevalence of T cruzi compare to that of tick borne disease and heartworm disease?

A

18.1% positive
Higher than tick borne pathogens
Equivalent to heartworm (16%)

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8
Q

Most frequent PE finding in dogs with E. ewingii?

A

joint pain

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9
Q

Biochemical findings in dogs with E ewingii?

A

neutrophilia
ALP and ALT elevation
Increased SDMA
Proteinuria

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10
Q

What other disease processes can be seen in dogs who are positive for E. ewingii?

A

IMHA and renal disease

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11
Q

What are biochemical findings noted in dogs with B canis?

A

marked acute phase protein response
lower chol, phospholipid, TG, and a-lipoprotein
Higher ApoA-1 concentration and SAA

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12
Q

What breed and age are more likely to be infected with Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

non sporting and toy breeds
Younger (mean age 5.9)
13x more likely if housemate or litter mate infected

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13
Q

What cardiac changes are expected in dogs with Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

ventriculare arrhythmias, ECG abnormalities,
increased Troponin I

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14
Q

Prevalence of B vulpes compared to B gibsoni?

A

0.2% comapred to 1.7%
0.31% co-infected

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15
Q

If a dog is positive for B vulpes, what other infection may you expect to find?

A

Hemotropic mycoplasma
D immitis
Wolbachia
B gibosni

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16
Q

Sn and SP of IMMY crypto assay and CryptoPS assay?

A

IMMY (LFA): sn 92%, Sp 93.2%
CryptoPS: Sn 80%, sp 94.9%

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17
Q

How might Rickettsia rickettsii infection impact bartonella positivity in a dog?

A

May have recrudescence of chronic subclinical bartonella spp after Rr infection

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18
Q

How can total t4 be used to discriminate feline parvovirus survivors from non survivors?

A

Cut off of 0.82 ug/dL to differentiate
73.9% sn, 82.9% sp

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19
Q

how does tracheal stent placement impact bacterial infection?

A

not associated with increased risk of bacterial infection
decreases infection in geriatric dogs and dogs with traditional-type collapse

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20
Q

Highest positivity rate of diagnosing Tritrichomonas foetus via PCR based on collection method?

A

Better sensitivity with fecal loop vs colonic flush
No association with treatment history/type or prior treatment with ronidazole

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21
Q

Percent of cats who did not have Trictrichomonas foetus cleared after first ronidazole therapy?

A

21%

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22
Q

What vector borne diseases are most commonly associated with proteinuria? What % of proteinuria dogs were exposed to at least one vector borne disease?

A

Ehrlichia, Rickettsia and B. burgdorferi
34%

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23
Q

In dogs with immune mediated disease secondary to E canis (acute or subclinical phase), do you expect to see disease recrudescence after immune suppression?

A

no evidence of disease recrudescence if treated with 4 weeks of doxycycline for acute/subclinical E canis

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24
Q

What diseases has Bartonella rochalimae been associated with?

A

Endocarditis, seizures and antibiotic responsive lameness

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25
How does L4 vaccination impact risk of dogs getting lepto?
marked decrease in lepto and AKI Vaccine associated with decreased odds of disease
26
what gene mutation is associated with atovaquone and azithromycin treatment in Cytauxzoon felis?
M128 cytochrome B mutation (may develop this mutation after treatment with drug)
27
What gene may be associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia in cats?
Homozygous frameshift variant in integrin subunit allb (ITGA2B) gene
28
How can you diagnose Cystoisospora felis?
Fecal float, but can have false negatives
29
What type of mycobacterium is more likely to cause disseminated disease?
Mycobacterium avium more likely than rapid growers Death more likely than rapid growers
30
Primary features of rapid growing mycobacteria infections?
cats with outdoor access Diseases of the skin and subcutis
31
Common resistance pattern of M avium? Rapid growing species?
fluoroquinolones and aminoglycosides for M avium RGM: third and fourth generation cephalosporins
32
Sn and SP of novel antigen enzyme immunoe assay for diagnosis of histopasma? (urine)
Sn 70%, Sp 99%, Accuracy 93% Limited if disease localized to GI tract (false negative more likely)
33
Sn, Sp, and accurasy of MiraVista Histo EIA?
Sn 95%, Sp 99%, Accuracy 98%
34
overall survival and 6 month survival for dogs with blastomyces?
87% overall survival 69% survival to 6 months
35
how does urine antigen level and radiographic lung score of blasto relate to outcome of dogs with blasto?
Lower urine antigen level and radiographic lung severy improved survival (antigen cut off <5, mild RLS score) All dogs with these levels survived over these levels 68.1% survived
36
Seroprevalence of leishmaniasis in the US? % fox hounds vs non foxhounds
6.4% seropositive 8% foxhounds, 92% non foxhounds 13% had not traveled outside the US or Canada
37
Positive percent agreement and negative percent agreement of LFA for cocci compared to AGID?
88.9% positive agreement 100% negative agreement Positive agreement lower with lower AGID titers
38
Prevalence of MDR organisms pre and post hospitlization in switzerland? What organisms are most common?
15.5% admission, 32.1% discharge EBSL E coli B lactamase producing klebsiella
39
Where are clusters of leptospirosis in the US?
arizona california florida south carolina south-central region midwest northeast
40
Most common clinical signs of heterobilharzia?
55.8% diarrhea, vomiting 46.2%, weight loss with or without anorexia 15.4%
41
most common lab findings in dogs with heterobilharzia?
hyperglobulinemia-42.6% increased liver enzymes-30% eosinophilia >40%
42
Ultrasound findings for dogs with heterobilharzia?
Pinpoint hyperechoic foci in intestines, liver, or mesenteric LN
43
prognosis of heterobilharzia?
73.5% alive at 6 months
44
Success of low dose praziquantel and fenbendazole for treatment of schistosomiasis in asymptomatic dogs?
dogs were negative on fecal float and sedimentation, still positive on PCR Dose: 5 mg/kg praziquantel PO q8h for 2 days 24 mg/kg PO q24h x 7 days fenbendazole
45
What marker can be used to help predict outcome, what can be used to identify dogs at risk for lepto associated lung injury?
slCAM-1 and VEGF associated with outcome (higher in non survivors) slCAM-1 might identify dogs at risk for lepto lung injury
46
Most common arrhythmias in dogs with T cruzi?
Ventricular arrhythmia and AV block
47
Most common echo abnormalities in dogs with T cruzi
RV and LA enlargement
48
Predictors of outcome in dogs with T cruzi?
RV enlargement and higher body weight at presentation associated with poor outcome
49
Most common presenting sign of dogs with intracranial cocci?
Tonic clonic seizures
50
What lesions would you expect on MRI in dogs with intracranial cocci?
granulomatous form: 1 or more distinct intra-axial contrast enhancing foci Diffuse, bilateral, symmetrical lesions of caudate nuclei and frontal lobe
51
1 year survival of dogs with CNS cocci?
82% alive
51
most common clinical signs of disseminated Rasamsonia in dogs?
anorexia and backpain
52
MST of disseminated Rasamsonia, MST if survived to discharge?
MST 82 days If survived to discharge 317 days
53
What should be monitored in dogs recieving posaconazole?
liver function one dog required dose reduction one dog required treatment discontinuation
54
Seroprevalence of bartonella? Which breeds are more likely to be positive?
6.1% Toy breeds less likely than mixed breeds
55
Highest geographic location of bartonella?
West south central and south atlantic region
56
most common locations to find schizont laden macrophages in cats with Cytauxzoon felis?
Splenic aspirate most common (77%) Blood films (33%) LN aspirate (56%) novice observers most likely to agree with experts in splenic aspirates (sn 77.1%, sp 94.4%)
57
rate of AKI and development of CKD in dogs with lepto?
100% AKI 2/32 developed CKD (6-18% in other studies)-in dogs with persistent leptospirauria
58
% of dogs with persistent positive lepto urine PCR after doxycycline treatment?
38% still had positive urine PCR after 18 days
59
What biochemical values can increase suspicion of neospora in dogs with meningoencephalitis?
CK most sensitive and specific CK, cut off of 485 sn 95%, sp 96% AST cut off of 57 sn 94%, sp 85%
60
MST of dogs with disseminated asper recieving intraconazole alone?
MST 63 days
61
MST for dogs with disseminated asper if they received multimodal treatment?
830 days
62
What parameter increases hazard of daily death in dogs with disseminated aspergillosis?
abnormally high serum creatinine (7.4 x per day)
63
What population of grey hounds have higher rates of vector borne disease?
National Greyhound Association more positive than AKC
63
sight of lowest sensitivity of parvo PCR?
rectum in dogs who are sick
64
What vector borne diseases are found in grey hounds?
Bartonella, Babesia vogeli, E canis, mycoplasma hemocanis
65
Sn and sp of Aspfum PanAsp
Aspfum (Ct cut off of 33.3): Sn 65%, Sp 100% PanAsp (Ct cut off 34.5) SN 70%, sp 96.2% PanFun-trash (positive in almost 50% of healthy dogs)
66
What radiographic change can be used to increase suspicion of distemper?
metaphyseal sclerosis, most common at proximal humeral diaphysis
67
What clinicopathologic changes were noted in dogs with B canis in Germany?
Clinical: pale mm, fever, pigmenturia Clinicopatholgic: Thrombocytopenia (100%), anemia, intravascular hemolysis, pancytopenia, SIRS
68
Difference of 25OHD in dogs with cocci vs healthy dogs?
No difference in 25OHD in healthy vs control dogs
69
Association of 25OHD in dog s with cocci? CRP?
25OHD lower in dogs with higher titers (>1:32) CRP higher in dogs with IgG >1:16 >1:32=higher odds of disseminated disease
70
How would you interpret a positive crypto immy? negative crypto immy?
positive: further testing to confirm negative: confirms negative disease
71
Based on meta-analysis, are lyme disease vaccines effective?
yes, reduced odds of developing lameness, depression, pyrexia, and anorexia
72
Most common bacteria cultured in brachycephalics with middle ear effusion?
Staph pseudintermedius no bacterial growth from 79% Macrophages and neutrophils predominant on cyto with or without culture
73
What are two common signs in brachycephalic dogs with middle ear effusion?
Neurologic deficits 38% atopic dermatitis 56%
74
What clinical and bloodwork changes are associated with babesia conradae infection?
aggressive interactions with coyotes lower HCT, MCHC, leukocyte, platelets, and albumin higher MCV, MPV, and globulin
75
Percent of dogs with B conradae positive for other vector borne diseases?
16/29 M haemocanis, M haumotoparbum, E canis, Bartonella, Hepatozoon felis like organism NO tularemia
76
sn, sp, and accuracy of miravista urine antigen for cats?
sn 94%, sp 97%, accuracy 96%
77
is in house urine immy useful for diagnosing histoplasma for cats?
moderate overall agreement cut off of 1.1 sn 77%, sp 97%, accuracy 89%
78
what diagnostics can be used to determine therapeutic level of rivaroxaban?
1.5-1.9 x delay in PT and R value of TEG Three hours after riva administration
79
How does bartonella infection impact lab findings? What is the take away of this paper?
No clinically relevant changes in bartonella PCR positive however, consider bartonella in young, febrile cat with unexplained neutrophilia in areas high risk for fleas
80
Disease categories that can cause severe neutrophilia (>50,000 in dogs)
neoplasia, immune mediated disease tissue damage/necrosis Outcome depends on underlying disease (higher with neoplasia vs immune mediated/damange/necrosis)
81
In pneumonia, septic arthritis, and pyometra, what biomarkers can be used to help identify disease resolution?
CPR and SAA biomarkers normalized within 7-14 days
82
What percent of dogs with myelofibrosis have somatic varients?
69%, suggests occurrence of clonal hematopoiesis in dogs with myelofibrosis
83
Does pre-storage leukoreduction change leukocyte, IL-6, IL-8, MCP-1, and CRP?
no per Claus 2022, though supsect due to low sample size
84
How does IV catheter scavenge vs jugular vein blood draw values differ?
no clinically relevant blues, however If disagreement, most likely AST, TBili, K, HCO3, leukocyte differential counts, RBC count, Hgb, HCT, PCV
85
In dogs with NSAID treated with TPE, percent AEs and survival to discharge?
98.4% survived to discharge 13% AE (urticaria, asymptomatic hypocalcemia, hypotension)
86
How does inhaled albuterol impact blood potassium?
decreases potassium by 0.38 Nadir at 60 min, decreases by 30 min
87
How does albuterol reduce potassium?
stimulates endogenous insulin release induces extracellular membrane-bound Na/K-ATPase pumps in inuslin dependent fasion
88
AEs of inhaled albuterol for treating hyperkalemia?
no evidence of tachycardia or hypoglycemia
89
Does co-administration of prednisone and rivaroxaban impact glotting time?
no
90
how is Carboxyhemoglobin associated with IMHA?
higher in hemolytic anemia compared to healthy and non hemolytic anemia useful tool for monitoring, not associated with survival
91
What caused a pancytopenia outbreak in cats in the UK?
trichothecene mycotoxicosis feed contamination
92
Bone marrow findings in cats with trichothecene mycotoxicosis feed contamination?
bone marrow hypo to aplasia affecting all cell lines disproportionately affecting myeloid and megakaryocytic cells
93
How long after enoxaparin administration will you see a difference in viscoelastic coagulation monitor in cats?
Two hours
94
How is 25OD impacted in dogs with histo?
lower in dogs with histo CRP and haptoglobin higher
95
What antimicrobials are most commonly prescirbed? overall and high priority abx?
Aminopenicillins/beta-lactamase inhibitors high priority: fluoroquinolones and third generation cephalosporins

JVIM 2018-2023 (9 decks)

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