Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1. PPS Board Prep_Mar > INFECTIOUS > Flashcards

INFECTIOUS Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanisms of fever production (3)

A
  1. Pyrogens (endogenous /exogenous )
  2. Heat production exceeding loss (salicylate poisoning or malignant hyperthermia)
  3. Defective heat loss (ectodermal dysplasia / severe heat exposure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4 subtypes of fever of unknown origin

A

Classic FUO
Health-care associated
Immune-deficient
HIV related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define Classic FUO

A
  1. Fever >38 C
  2. > 3 weeks
  3. > 2 visits or > 1 week in hospital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define Health-care associated FUO

A
  1. Fever > 38 C
  2. > 1 week
  3. Not present or incubating on admission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Children with this defect can have a history of delayed cord separation and recurrent infections of the skin, oral mucosa, and genital tract beginning early in life.

A

Leukocyte adhesion defects

  • Caused by defects in the β chain of integrin (CD18), which is required for the normal process of neutrophil aggregation and attachment to endothelial surface.
  • Neutrophil count in the peripheral blood is usually extremely elevated and pus is not found at the site of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Children who have congenital asplenia or splenic dysfunction due to hemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell disease or have undergone splenectomy are at risk for serious infections from these pathogens (2)

A
  1. encapsulated bacteria
  2. blood-borne protozoa such as Plasmodium and Babesia

> consider prophylaxis with penicillin, esp in children under 5 yo
most common causative organisms include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type b, and Salmonella, which can cause sepsis, pneumonia, meningitis, and osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Terminal complement defects (C5, C6, C7, C8, and C9) are associated with recurrent infections with this pathogen

A

Neisseria

> Vaccines for S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae type b, and Neisseria meningitidis should be administered to all children with abnormalities in opsonization or complement pathways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antibody deficiency that leads to a lack of production of secretory antibody at the mucosal membranes

A

Selective IgA deficiency

  • recurrent sinopulmonary infection and GI disease are the major clinical manifestations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

X-linked recessive disease associated with eczema, thrombocytopenia, a reduced number of CD3 lymphocytes, moderately suppressed mitogen responses, and impaired antibody response to polysaccharide antigens

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

> infections with S. pneumoniae or H. influenzae type b and PCP are common
W- Weeping skin lesions- eczema
A- Absent platelets- thrombocytopenia - leading to petechiae
S- Severe immunodeficiency…… (low IgM and high IgA & IgE levels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Triad of Botulinum

A
  1. acute onsset of SYMMETRIC flaccid, descendin paralysis w clear sensorium
  2. NO FEVER
  3. NO PARESTHESIA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The only bacterium known to infect Schwann cells of peripheral nerves

A

Mycobacterium leprae
> Hansen disease
> Leonin facies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hutchinson Triad

Seen in?

A
  1. Hutchinson teeth
  2. 8th Cranial nerve deafness
    3.interstitial keratitis

Congenital syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

WHO criteria for diagnosis of C. trachomatis (4)

A

WHO: at least 2 of 4 criteria must be present for a diagnosis of trachoma
1. lymphoid follicles on the upper tarsal coniunctivae
2. typical conjunctival scarring
3. vascular pannus,
4. limbal follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Classic triad of EBV (esp in adols and adults)

A

FPG
1. fatigue
2. Pharyngitis
3. generalized lymphadenopathy - nontender, bilateral, ant post cervical and submandibular

> may have organomegaly> splenic rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MC cause of eosinophilic meningitis worldwide

A

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MC form of HSV reactivation

A

Herpes labialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MC cause of viral intrauterine infection

A

CMV

18
Q

Classic CMV presentation

A

SGA/IUGR
Microcephaly
chorioretinitis
deaf - SNHL - MC sequelae in sx children
periVentricular calcifications
hepatomegaly/jaundice

19
Q

MC cause of viral meningitis in mumps-immunized population

A

Enterovirus

20
Q

Which is the most common congenital infection that causes congenital hearing loss

A

CMV

21
Q

Classic triad of Congenital toxoplasmosis:

A

CHI
chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications

22
Q

Dendritic keratitis is unique to _ infection

A. CMV
B. HSV
C. Rubella
D. Measles

A

B. HSV

23
Q

1st virus associated w malignancy

A

EBV
> nasopharyngeal carcinoma
> Burkitt’s lymphoma
> Hodgkin
> Duncan sundrome (X-linked lymphoproliferative disease)

24
Q

Minor variation in influenza virus A and B causing seasonal epidemics

A

DNS

Antigenic Drift
miNor
Seasonal epidemic

SJP
antigenic Shift
maJor
Pandemics

25
Q

Gold standard diagnosis of malaria.

A. Microscopy
B. Culture
C. PCR
D. Rapid diagnostic tests

A

A. microscopy

26
Q

MC cause of osteomyelitis and suppurative arthritis in children

A

Staph aureus

27
Q

Strawberry cervix, 2nd MC STI
frothy vaginal discharge

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

28
Q

MC nosocomial bacteria

A

CONS - Staph epidermidis

29
Q

DOC for CONS

A

Vancomycin

30
Q

PANDAS (Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiastric disorder associted with strep) associated with _

A

S pyogenes

31
Q

MC cause of STI

A

N gonorrhea

32
Q

_ and _ cells are the primary defenses against TB ab

A

macrophages and T-cell lypmhocytes

33
Q

MC clinically significant form of disseminated TB

A. Primary
B. Primary progressive
C. Miliary
D. Secondary

A

Miliary TB

34
Q

MC form of extrapulmonary TB

A

TB lymphadenitis

35
Q

Most severe form of EPTB

A

TB Meningitis

36
Q

Stages of TBM (3)

A

1st stage
> personality changes
> fever, irritability, anorexia, listlessness

2nd stage:
> signs of increased ICP
> drowsiness, stiff neck, CN abn

3rd stage: convulsions

37
Q

MC Brain CT or MRI features of TBM in children

A

hydrocephalus (80%) and basal meningeal enhancement (75%)

  • TBIC 2016
38
Q

_ are radiologic hallmarks in reactivation TB

A. caseation necrosis
B. Cavitation
C. Ghon complex

A

Cavitation

39
Q

Major indications for IM immunoglobulin therapy

A. Replacement therapy for children with antibody deficiency disorders
B. Measles exposure
C. Hepatitis A exposure
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

40
Q

Major indications for IV immunoglobulin therapy

A. Replacement therapy for primary immunodeficiency disorders
B. Kawasaki disease
C. Replacement therapy for serious bacterial infections in children infected w HIV
D. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
E. Prevention of serious bacterial infections with hypogammaglobulinemia
F. AOTA

A

F. AOTA

41
Q
A

1. PPS Board Prep_Mar (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions