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Infection Flashcards

1
Q

What CT changes do you see in hepatitis encephalitis

A

Changes in temporal lobes

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2
Q

What infection is seen in people who keep snakes?

A

Salmonella

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3
Q

Which pathogen grows in 0-4 degrees?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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4
Q

What is the structure of a virus?

A

Core nucleic acid surround ed by protective protein coating known as the capsid
Capsid mediates the attachment of the virus to specific host cell receptors

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5
Q

Can viruses synthesis their own energy?

A

No - dependent on host cell to replicate

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6
Q

What is bacterial classification based on?

A

Gram reaction
Bacterial shape
Growth requirement
Presence of spores

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7
Q

What is the structure of bacteria?

A

Cytoplasm surrounded by cell wall
DNA is free within the cytoplasms as a single chromosome of circular dNA and plasmids

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8
Q

What does gram positive bacteria have?

A

Thick peptidoglycan layer with no outer membrane

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9
Q

What do gram negative bacteria have?

A

Thin peptidoglycan layer surrounded by an outer lipid membrane
Endotoxin on outer layer

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10
Q

Name beta-lacetam agents

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins - ceftriaxone, cefuroxime
Carbapenems - meropenam

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11
Q

Name examples of macrolide

A

Erythromycin
Azithryomycin
Clarithryomycin

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12
Q

Name example of tetracycline

A

Doxycycline

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13
Q

Name example of aminoglycosides

A

Gentamycin

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14
Q

Name example of glycopeptide

A

vancomycin
teicoplanin

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15
Q

Which ABX cause disruption of bacterial cell wall?

A

B-lactams
Glycopeptide

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16
Q

What Type of infections are B-lactams used for?

A

Gram positive

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17
Q

What can 3rd generation - cephalosporins the used for?

A

Gram positive and gram negative

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18
Q

What can glycopeptides be used for?

A

Gram positive

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19
Q

Which class of ABX inhibit protein synthesis?

A

Macrolides
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Clindaymycin

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20
Q

What are aminoglycosides good for?

A

gram negative

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21
Q

Which ABX cause inhibition of DNA replication?

A

Fluroquinolones - ciprofloxacin

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22
Q

What is the most common parasite to cause malaria ?

A

P.falciparum

Worldwide in sub and tropical areas

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23
Q

What are other parasites that cause malaria?

A

Plasmodium vivax - Asia, South America, some African
Plasmodium ovale- West africa, western pacific
Plasmodium malaria

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24
Q

What is released into the blood stream when an infected mosquito bites?

A

Sporozoites are released into blood stream and move to liver cells

25
What do sporozoites involve in to?
Schizonts (mature sporozoites in liver)
26
How does malaria spread in the body?
Schizonts rupture and release meroziotes Meroziotes infect the blood and replicate Red blood cells rupture and release more meroziotes into the system
27
How long until malaria is present post visiting an infected country?
P.falciparum - 3 months (10-28 days) P.vivax and P.ovale - 6 months - HYPOZOITES represent dormant stage in liver
28
How many negative films are required to exclude malaria?
3 negative within 12-24 hours apart
29
How is chronic granulomatous disease inherited
X linked disease
30
What is the pathophysiology of chronic granulomatous disease?
Phagocytes lack the ability to produce microbicidal reactive oxygen species so bacteria aren't killed or digested properly Mainly catalase-positive bacteria
31
When do you suspect CGD?
Recurrent pnuemonias Lymhphadenitis Hepatic / subcutaneous or other abscesses Osteomyelitis at multiple sites
32
Name catalase-positive bacteria
Stapylococcus, salmonella Pseudomonas Aspergillus Canidida Enterobacteriacae (E.coli, klebsiella, salmonella, serratia)
33
How is CGD diagnosed?
Using DHR test
34
What are symptoms of IgE mediated allergies?
Immediate Urticaria Angiooedema upper resp. tract infection anaphylaxis
35
What are non IgE mediated reactions?
Usually delay - 72 hours post exposure Bloody diarrhoea Constipation Colic prdominate
36
How do you test for IgE mediated reactions?
skin-prick test specific serum IgE testing
37
How do you test for non-IgE mediated reactions?
dietary exclusion
38
Pathophysiology of HIV
RNA retrovirus - enzyme reverse transcriptase Enters CD4 lymphocytes (helper T cells) via fusion of viral cell membrane to host cell membrane Migrates to lymphoid tissue and replicates HIV transcribed into host dNA
39
What secretes T.gondii oocysts
Excreted in cat feaces
40
What are tachyzoites?
Active proliferating cause of T.gondii
41
Neonatal toxoplasma infection features
Hydrocephalus Microcephaly Chorioretenitis Intracranial calcifications
42
TORCH
Toxoplasma gondii Other agents - HIV, parvovirus, VZV Rubella CMV Herpes simplex virus
43
Characteristics of toxoplasma gondii
Intracranial calcifications Inflammation of choroid and retina Hydrocephalus
44
Rubella characterised
Deafness Rash Cataracts Heart defects
45
Characteristics of CMV
Microcephaly periventricular calculations Chorioreteinitis
46
HSV
Type 1 - oral herpes HSV 2 - STI
47
Congenital syphilis - What is the bacterium that causes it
Treponema pallidum
48
Signs of congenital syphilis
Craniofacil malformation Rash Deadness
49
What is most common vector for leishmaniasis
sand fly
50
Stage 1 of early Lyme disease
erythema migrans
51
Stage 2 - disseminated Lyme disease
Flu-like symptoms Neurological disorders - facial nerve palsies Myopericarditis
52
Stage 3 - late manifestations of Lyme disease
arthritis Acrodermatitis chronia atrophicans Post lyme syndrome - fatigue
53
Treatment of Lyme disease
doxycycline 21 days amoxicillin if doxy not appropriate azithromycin fo 17 days
54
When can a HIV +ve mum breast feed
if viral load undetectable top up formula feeds can't be used
55
When would you start treatment in a HIV +VE child
all children with confirmed HIV should be started on antiviral therapy irrespective of CD4 count if child > 6 weeks and <12 months -start co-trimoxazole respective of Cd4 COUNT 1-4 years - only start co-trimoxazole if cd4 <15% or <500 5 years <15% or <200
56
hereditary angioedema - C1 levels?
low c1 inhibitor
57
What causes cat scratch disease
Bartonella henselae
58
What type of hypersentiivty reaction is contact dermatitis
Type 4 -T lymphocytes reacting with a previous sensitised antigen

TAS (18 decks)

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