Indoc Systems Flashcards
1
Q
Pushing the illuminated cargo fire extinguisher button while on the ground will
A
Discharge the high rate bottle while the low rate bottle is armed automatically and must be discharged manually
2
Q
When the RAT is the sole source of power what happens to the slats and flaps
A
the slats and flaps will operate slower at half the normal speed
3
Q
Which part of the plane required the largest turning clearance during taxi?
A
Tail
4
Q
On the FMA what does OVRD indicate?
A
The PF is manually overriding the auto throttle
5
Q
What powers the 3 hydraulic systems?
A
Systems 1 and 2 are powered by an EDP and are backed up by an ACMP. System 3 is powered by an ACMP backed up by another ACMP
6
Q
Hydraulic system 1 powers which landing systems?
A
Normal outboard brakes, emergency/parking brakes
7
Q
The emergency lighting power units are all powered by
A
DC Bus 1
8
Q
The IESS Integrated Electronic Standby System will align in
A
90 seconds
9
Q
The Air Data Smart Probes ADSP and the TAT provide
A
Total Pressure, Static Pressure, AOA, and TAT
10
Q
The cargo doors are ____ operated and ____ held in position
A
mechanically operated, mechanically held in position
11
Q
If the Display Selector knob is in the _____ position, the MFD automatically reverts the failed display
A
AUTO
12
Q
The landing gear system is normally _____ controlled and ______ operated.
A
electrically controlled, hydraulically operated
13
Q
When will the wing anti ice will come on when ice is detected given: Normal Takeoff Data Set (TDS), REF anti-ice OFF, Selector knob AUTO
A
as the aircraft reaches 1,700’AGL or 2min after liftoff
14
Q
In case of airspeed data loss, the flight control operation is defaulted to
A
fixed control laws/direct mode
15
Q
The ailerons are ______ controlled and _____ operated
A
Mechanically controlled, hydraulically operated
16
Q
The amber LED light beside IDG disconnect switch indicates
A
Which IDG must be disconnected
17
Q
The FPA Acceleration Pointer on the PFD
A
Indicates the acceleration and deceleration rate along the flight path
18
Q
The overheat detection system (ODS) incorporates
A
overheat and leak detection for the engine bleed, air conditioning ducts, APU bleed air distribution and anti-ice supply ducting
19
Q
The takeoff configuration warning monitors the position of
A
flaps, parking brake, pitch trim and spoiler
20
Q
during an electrical emergency, which hydraulic system accumulator will power the flight controls until the RAT has powered the ACMP 3A
A
System 3
21
Q
What is the priority of the pitch trim switches?
A
Back-Up, captain, first officer, Autopilot
22
Q
Overpressure in the integral wing tank is prevented when
A
The high capacity pressure relief valve opens
23
Q
The conditioned air normally consists of
A
52% fresh and 48% recirculation air
24
Q
The engine FADEC will command the starter to cutout during the START sequence on the ground at
A
50% N2
25
The engine exciters A are powered from which bus?
Standby Essential Bus
26
The N1 wing anti-ice (cyan) line will appear on the EICAS when
below 12,000’, icing condition, gear or flaps extended
27
The ENG 1 FADEC power source after the starter cuts out is
PMA
28
When the APU reaches a low oil pressure condition
the FADEC will automatically shut-down the APU on the ground
29
The FADEC will command the starter to cutout during the START sequence in fight at
If N2 has not reached 20% after 15 seconds
30
The AOA is calculated based upon and interface between
Static pressure of the smart probes
31
What happens after rotating the APU selector knob from ON to OFF?
The APU starts a 1 minute (has POST-MOD) cool down period, controlled by the FADEC
32
What is the max thrust for single-engine CF34-8E5 in the event of one engine inoperative using T/O-1 with the ATTCS ON
14,200
33
What happens if ADS 2 fails?
The affected side will automatically revert to ADS 3 first.
34
Where are cabin temperatures controlled?
On the flight deck control panel or when transferred on the ATTND control panel
35
Which indication shows a successful DVDR test?
Only a failure indication would be provided on the EICAS
36
How is the free wheel steering mode engaged?
One of the respective steering disengage buttons on the control wheel
37
If the WING ice protection button is pushed in, the Wing Anti-Ice system will
provide automatic operation of the wing anti-ice system
38
What happens when LOW 1 is selected on the fuel control panel?
The fuel crossfeed valve opens and AC pump 2 will activate
39
When the RAT is deployed, the DC ESS BUSES 1 and 2 are supplied with current from what source?
ESS TRU
40
What does the engine fire pull handle do?
Closes the respective fuel, hydraulic and bleed air SOVs
41
Which of the following are not driven by Fly-by-Wire system tech?
Ailerons only
42
Where is the selected VHF COM indicated?
Audio control panel display
43
The recirculation fan button placed in the AUTO position. the fans are commanded off if
the dump button is pressed
44
The oxygen rotary knob has 3 positions, choose the correct statement:
EMERG supplies pure oxygen under positive pressure, 100% supplies pure oxygen at all cabin altitudes, NORM supplies an oxygen air mixture on demand
45
Where is the radio altimeter decision height selected?
The Display Controller Panel
46
The EGPWS Terrain warning High Density red dots display indicate that
terrain is more than 2,000’ above the airplane
47
When the IRS 1 fails:
IRS 2 signal must be selected to the pilots via the revisionary panel
48
The flight crew oxygen system is checked on the
Status synoptic page
49
The DC electrical network consists of:
2 DC BUS, 3 DC ESS BUS, 2 BATT HOT BUS, 1 APU START BUS, 1 DC GND SERVICE BUS
50
To establish alternative VHF tuning the following procedure is used
With the CCD actuate the VHF box on the PFD and tune the new frequency with the CCD tuning knob
51
What happens if an IDG fails?
Bus ties automatically connect to provide no system degradation
52
T/F One IDG can supply the entire electrical system
True
53
What will cause the amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate?
High oil temperature and low oil pressure
54
What is the purpose of the TRUs?
To convert 115 VAC to 28 VDC
55
How long will the aircraft’s batteries last with no recharging?
10min
56
T/F With both IDGs and the APU generator off-line, and the AC bus tie set to auto, the RAT will power the AC standby bus via the AC essential bus
True
57
What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle?
For APU start when batteries are less than 22.5 VDC or if battery temp is less than -20deg C
58
During an electrical emergency, the batteries supply essential loads for
10 minutes
59
What powers the primary ejector pump?
motive flow
60
What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?
Maintain fuel level in the collector box
61
What is the purpose of the collector box?
To keep the fuel pumps submerged and ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine
62
If there is a 500lb fuel imbalance in the left wing, which of the following is the correct procedure to accomplish?
Turn the X-Feed switch to the LOW 1 position
63
What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
794 lbs
64
The APU normally gets its fuel from
the right wing tank
65
What is the power source for engine fire protection?
HOT BATT BUS
66
What indications are presented for a valid fire detection test?
Master warning, fire bell, triple chime, associated EICAS messages, fire handles illuminated, APU and Cargo guarded switch lights illuminated; FIRE inverse message in the ITT gauge
67
How many total cargo fire bottles are installed for use in both compartments?
2
68
How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?
3 in the fwd cargo, 2 in the aft cargo bay
69
How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartments?
1 high-rate bottle and 1 low-rate bottle used for both compartments
70
How many aircraft engine fire bottles are installed on the aircraft?
2
71
To discharge the fire bottle into the engine, pulling the Fire Extinguish Handle is all that is required T/F
False
72
Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?
Only on the ground
73
T/F the APU fire extinguisher will automatically discharge one minute after a fire is detected
False
74
What happens to the fwd cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?
Recirculation fan shuts off, ventilation outflow valve closes, FWD cargo smoke fire extinguishing button illuminates
75
What systems use hydraulic power?
Flight controls, spoilers, landing gear and nose wheel steering, wheel brakes, thrust reversers
76
Normal hydraulic pressure is
3,000 psi
77
What is the PTU?
Mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure
78
During takeoff and landing with the PTU switch in the AUTO position with the flaps OUT OF zero, the PTU
provides system logic for the PTU to activate if engine 2 fails or engine 2 EDP fails
79
Why does electric hydraulic pump 2 automatically come on after number 1 engine is started and the parking brake is released?
To provide nose wheel steering and inboard brakes during single engine taxi
80
Hydraulic system 3 has an unloaded valve and a flow limiter valve. When are they used?
They are used only in an electrical emergency to avoid overloading the RAT
81
Hydraulic system 1 and 2 engine pump shutoff valve buttons do what when pressed?
Closes the hydraulic SOV, isolating the respective EDP from the associated hydraulic system
82
In flight with the hydraulic selector knobs in AUTO, when will the system 1 electric hydraulic pump operate continuously?
If the EDP or engine fails or flaps selected to any position greater than 0
83
Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?
Yes, up to FL310
84
what is the bleed system priority in flight?
Onside, opposite, APU
85
The pressurization system consists of
A cabin outflow valve, a static pressure port, a negative pressure relief valve, a positive pressure relief valve, and a cabin pressure controller
86
What happens when the dump button is pressed?
Commands both ECS packs OFF and opens the OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400’ at a rate of 2,000fpm
87
When does the emergency ram air valve open?
In flight less than 25,000’ and both packs are off or failed
88
Maximum differential pressure is
8.4
89
What surfaces are anti-iced?
Wing slat segments 2,3, and 4 and engine cowl lip
90
When icing on the MCDU is set to OFF and takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on?
Not until 1,700’ or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
91
How long will the deicing system remain on after icing is no longer detected?
5 minutes
92
Both ice detectors must be operable or detecting ice conditions and activating engine and wing anti-ice T/F
False
93
If an engine fails, does the opposite wing receive ice detection
Yes, the cross bleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings
94
When do the smart probes heat?
When an engine is running
95
What is ATTCS?
Automatic Take-off thrust control system, provides maximum thrust reserve in the event of an engine failure
96
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
Only on the ground for a Hot start, Hung start, or no-light off
97
What is the priority for the trim system?
BCFA Backup, CA, FO, Autopilot
98
What happens to the flight control system with the RAT is the only AC power source?
Horizontal stab trim operates at LO RATE, Slat/Flap system operates at LO RATE, SLAT/FLAP position is limited to 3 to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT
99
The primary flight control electronics are composed of what 2 complimentary parts?
P-ACE primary actuator control electronics and FCM flight control modules
100
Where is the LRBL?
Left window second from back
101
T/F the hydraulic fluid can get into the other system via the boot strap reservoir
false
102
PTU purpose is
to raise the landing gear if the engine 2 fails or the engine 2 side hydraulic pump fails
103
Maximum rudder deflection is
30 degrees without gain
104
how many ACE units are primary?
3/9
105
How many FCMs are installed?
4 FCMs
106
_____ extend first, ____ retract first
slats extend first, flaps retract first
107
takeoff mode pitch is limited to
8-18 degrees pitch up
108
During takeoff and landing with the PTU switch in the AUTO position with the flaps out of zero, the PTU
Provides system logic for the PTU to activate the PTU if engine 2 fails or engine 2 EDP fails and gear lever is selected UP or DOWN
109
Why does electric hydraulic pump 2 automatically come on after number 1 engine is started and the parking brake is released?
To provide nose wheel steering and inboard brakes during single engine taxi
110
Hydraulic system 3 has an unloader valve and a flow limiter valve. When are they used?
They are used only in an electrical emergency to avoid overloading the RAT
111
Hydraulic system 1 and 2 engine pump shutoff valve buttons do what when pressed?
Closes the hydraulic shutoff valve, isolating the respective engine driven pump from the associated hydraulic system reservoir
112
In flight, with the hydraulic selector knobs in AUTO, when will the system 1 electric hydraulic pump operate continuously?
If the EDP or Engine fails or flaps selected to any position greater than zero degrees
113
Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?
Yes, up to FL310
114
What is the bleed system priority in flight?
Onside, opposite, APU
115
The pressurization system consists of
a cabin outflow valve, static pressure port, negative pressure relief valve, positive pressure relief valve, and cabin pressure controller
116
The emergency ram air valve opens when
in flight less than 25,000’ and both packs are OFF or failed
117
Maximum differential overpressure is
8.8 psi
118
What surfaces are anti-iced?
Slats 2,3,4 and Engine cowl lip
119
When are the smart probes and TAT probes heated?
When an engine is running
120
What is the function of the ATTCS Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System?
Provides maximum reserve thrust in the event of an engine failure
121
How many displays and instruments are on during initial aircraft power-up ON and BATT 2 AUTO?
DUs 2 and 3, IESS, clock, MCDU 2, CCD 1
122
The E175 wingspan is
93’ 11”
123
Minimum runway width for a 180deg turn is
59’ 2”
124
Mesa requires autopilot to be engaged not below
1000’AGL
125
If you pull the T fire handle, does the fire bottle discharge?
No, you have to turn it to fire the bottle
126
What bus is used for fire protection?
HOTT BATT BUS for ENGINE Protection, (DC ESS BUS for APU protection/detection and engine detection)
127
Max fuel imbalance
794lbs
128
How long will the FBW battery give you?
Page 8.29 on 750 manual says; In case of an extremely improbable failure that would render complete loss of normal and emergency electrical power to the FBW, the backup power system, with no pilot intervention, keeps the appropriate number of elevator and rudder actuators operating for at least 15 min
129
What does the TRU do?
Converts 115VAC to 28VDC, Primary DC power source
130
What is the max landing weight for the LR?
74,957 lbs
131
What is the max landing weight for the LL?
same as the LR 74,957
132
What is the MTOW for the LR?
85,517
133
What is the aircraft length?
103’ 11”
134
What is the wingspan of the aircraft?
93’ 11”
135
What is the height of the aircraft?
32’ 4”
136
When is the electrical P-Bit test performed?
anytime the aircraft electrical power starts, and it takes 3min to complete the test
137
What is the max rudder deflection without gain?
30 degrees
138
What does the HYD 3 unloader and flow limiting valves do?
They are used in an electrical emergency to avoid overloading the RAT
139
What is the pitch limit on takeoff?
8-18 degrees of pitch
140
How does the cabin outflow valve knob work?
“up” opens the outflow valve, “down” closes the outflow valve
141
What happens when the DUMP button is pressed?
provides rapid depressurization, opening the OFV and turns packs and recirculation fans OFF; controls the OFV to maintain the cabin altitude rate of climb at 2,000fpm up to 12,400’
142
When parking brake is release what happens?
ACMP 2 turns ON
143
Multifunction spoilers __ degrees, ground spoilers __ degrees
40, 60
144
What are the 2 flight control modes?
Normal and Direct
145
When BATT 1 and 2 are turned on what turns on?
DU 2,3, compass light, IESS, clock, MCDU 2, CCD 1, Comms, Trim panel
146
What alt do we engage autopilot per mesa policy?
1,000’
