Indoc Systems Flashcards
Pushing the illuminated cargo fire extinguisher button while on the ground will
Discharge the high rate bottle while the low rate bottle is armed automatically and must be discharged manually
When the RAT is the sole source of power what happens to the slats and flaps
the slats and flaps will operate slower at half the normal speed
Which part of the plane required the largest turning clearance during taxi?
Tail
On the FMA what does OVRD indicate?
The PF is manually overriding the auto throttle
What powers the 3 hydraulic systems?
Systems 1 and 2 are powered by an EDP and are backed up by an ACMP. System 3 is powered by an ACMP backed up by another ACMP
Hydraulic system 1 powers which landing systems?
Normal outboard brakes, emergency/parking brakes
The emergency lighting power units are all powered by
DC Bus 1
The IESS Integrated Electronic Standby System will align in
90 seconds
The Air Data Smart Probes ADSP and the TAT provide
Total Pressure, Static Pressure, AOA, and TAT
The cargo doors are ____ operated and ____ held in position
mechanically operated, mechanically held in position
If the Display Selector knob is in the _____ position, the MFD automatically reverts the failed display
AUTO
The landing gear system is normally _____ controlled and ______ operated.
electrically controlled, hydraulically operated
When will the wing anti ice will come on when ice is detected given: Normal Takeoff Data Set (TDS), REF anti-ice OFF, Selector knob AUTO
as the aircraft reaches 1,700’AGL or 2min after liftoff
In case of airspeed data loss, the flight control operation is defaulted to
fixed control laws/direct mode
The ailerons are ______ controlled and _____ operated
Mechanically controlled, hydraulically operated
The amber LED light beside IDG disconnect switch indicates
Which IDG must be disconnected
The FPA Acceleration Pointer on the PFD
Indicates the acceleration and deceleration rate along the flight path
The overheat detection system (ODS) incorporates
overheat and leak detection for the engine bleed, air conditioning ducts, APU bleed air distribution and anti-ice supply ducting
The takeoff configuration warning monitors the position of
flaps, parking brake, pitch trim and spoiler
during an electrical emergency, which hydraulic system accumulator will power the flight controls until the RAT has powered the ACMP 3A
System 3
What is the priority of the pitch trim switches?
Back-Up, captain, first officer, Autopilot
Overpressure in the integral wing tank is prevented when
The high capacity pressure relief valve opens
The conditioned air normally consists of
52% fresh and 48% recirculation air
The engine FADEC will command the starter to cutout during the START sequence on the ground at
50% N2
The engine exciters A are powered from which bus?
Standby Essential Bus
The N1 wing anti-ice (cyan) line will appear on the EICAS when
below 12,000’, icing condition, gear or flaps extended
The ENG 1 FADEC power source after the starter cuts out is
PMA
When the APU reaches a low oil pressure condition
the FADEC will automatically shut-down the APU on the ground
The FADEC will command the starter to cutout during the START sequence in fight at
If N2 has not reached 20% after 15 seconds
The AOA is calculated based upon and interface between
Static pressure of the smart probes
What happens after rotating the APU selector knob from ON to OFF?
The APU starts a 1 minute (has POST-MOD) cool down period, controlled by the FADEC
What is the max thrust for single-engine CF34-8E5 in the event of one engine inoperative using T/O-1 with the ATTCS ON
14,200
What happens if ADS 2 fails?
The affected side will automatically revert to ADS 3 first.
Where are cabin temperatures controlled?
On the flight deck control panel or when transferred on the ATTND control panel
Which indication shows a successful DVDR test?
Only a failure indication would be provided on the EICAS
How is the free wheel steering mode engaged?
One of the respective steering disengage buttons on the control wheel
If the WING ice protection button is pushed in, the Wing Anti-Ice system will
provide automatic operation of the wing anti-ice system
What happens when LOW 1 is selected on the fuel control panel?
The fuel crossfeed valve opens and AC pump 2 will activate
When the RAT is deployed, the DC ESS BUSES 1 and 2 are supplied with current from what source?
ESS TRU
What does the engine fire pull handle do?
Closes the respective fuel, hydraulic and bleed air SOVs
Which of the following are not driven by Fly-by-Wire system tech?
Ailerons only
Where is the selected VHF COM indicated?
Audio control panel display
The recirculation fan button placed in the AUTO position. the fans are commanded off if
the dump button is pressed
The oxygen rotary knob has 3 positions, choose the correct statement:
EMERG supplies pure oxygen under positive pressure, 100% supplies pure oxygen at all cabin altitudes, NORM supplies an oxygen air mixture on demand
Where is the radio altimeter decision height selected?
The Display Controller Panel
The EGPWS Terrain warning High Density red dots display indicate that
terrain is more than 2,000’ above the airplane
When the IRS 1 fails:
IRS 2 signal must be selected to the pilots via the revisionary panel
The flight crew oxygen system is checked on the
Status synoptic page
The DC electrical network consists of:
2 DC BUS, 3 DC ESS BUS, 2 BATT HOT BUS, 1 APU START BUS, 1 DC GND SERVICE BUS
To establish alternative VHF tuning the following procedure is used
With the CCD actuate the VHF box on the PFD and tune the new frequency with the CCD tuning knob
What happens if an IDG fails?
Bus ties automatically connect to provide no system degradation
T/F One IDG can supply the entire electrical system
True
What will cause the amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate?
High oil temperature and low oil pressure
What is the purpose of the TRUs?
To convert 115 VAC to 28 VDC
How long will the aircraft’s batteries last with no recharging?
10min
T/F With both IDGs and the APU generator off-line, and the AC bus tie set to auto, the RAT will power the AC standby bus via the AC essential bus
True
What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle?
For APU start when batteries are less than 22.5 VDC or if battery temp is less than -20deg C
During an electrical emergency, the batteries supply essential loads for
10 minutes
What powers the primary ejector pump?
motive flow
What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?
Maintain fuel level in the collector box
What is the purpose of the collector box?
To keep the fuel pumps submerged and ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine
If there is a 500lb fuel imbalance in the left wing, which of the following is the correct procedure to accomplish?
Turn the X-Feed switch to the LOW 1 position
What is the maximum fuel imbalance?
794 lbs
The APU normally gets its fuel from
the right wing tank
What is the power source for engine fire protection?
HOT BATT BUS
What indications are presented for a valid fire detection test?
Master warning, fire bell, triple chime, associated EICAS messages, fire handles illuminated, APU and Cargo guarded switch lights illuminated; FIRE inverse message in the ITT gauge
How many total cargo fire bottles are installed for use in both compartments?
2
How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?
3 in the fwd cargo, 2 in the aft cargo bay
How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartments?
1 high-rate bottle and 1 low-rate bottle used for both compartments
How many aircraft engine fire bottles are installed on the aircraft?
2
To discharge the fire bottle into the engine, pulling the Fire Extinguish Handle is all that is required T/F
False
Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?
Only on the ground
T/F the APU fire extinguisher will automatically discharge one minute after a fire is detected
False
What happens to the fwd cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?
Recirculation fan shuts off, ventilation outflow valve closes, FWD cargo smoke fire extinguishing button illuminates
What systems use hydraulic power?
Flight controls, spoilers, landing gear and nose wheel steering, wheel brakes, thrust reversers
Normal hydraulic pressure is
3,000 psi
What is the PTU?
Mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure
During takeoff and landing with the PTU switch in the AUTO position with the flaps OUT OF zero, the PTU
provides system logic for the PTU to activate if engine 2 fails or engine 2 EDP fails
Why does electric hydraulic pump 2 automatically come on after number 1 engine is started and the parking brake is released?
To provide nose wheel steering and inboard brakes during single engine taxi
Hydraulic system 3 has an unloaded valve and a flow limiter valve. When are they used?
They are used only in an electrical emergency to avoid overloading the RAT
Hydraulic system 1 and 2 engine pump shutoff valve buttons do what when pressed?
Closes the hydraulic SOV, isolating the respective EDP from the associated hydraulic system
In flight with the hydraulic selector knobs in AUTO, when will the system 1 electric hydraulic pump operate continuously?
If the EDP or engine fails or flaps selected to any position greater than 0
Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?
Yes, up to FL310
what is the bleed system priority in flight?
Onside, opposite, APU
The pressurization system consists of
A cabin outflow valve, a static pressure port, a negative pressure relief valve, a positive pressure relief valve, and a cabin pressure controller
What happens when the dump button is pressed?
Commands both ECS packs OFF and opens the OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400’ at a rate of 2,000fpm
When does the emergency ram air valve open?
In flight less than 25,000’ and both packs are off or failed
Maximum differential pressure is
8.4
What surfaces are anti-iced?
Wing slat segments 2,3, and 4 and engine cowl lip
When icing on the MCDU is set to OFF and takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on?
Not until 1,700’ or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
How long will the deicing system remain on after icing is no longer detected?
5 minutes
Both ice detectors must be operable or detecting ice conditions and activating engine and wing anti-ice T/F
False
If an engine fails, does the opposite wing receive ice detection
Yes, the cross bleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings
When do the smart probes heat?
When an engine is running
What is ATTCS?
Automatic Take-off thrust control system, provides maximum thrust reserve in the event of an engine failure
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
Only on the ground for a Hot start, Hung start, or no-light off
What is the priority for the trim system?
BCFA Backup, CA, FO, Autopilot
What happens to the flight control system with the RAT is the only AC power source?
Horizontal stab trim operates at LO RATE, Slat/Flap system operates at LO RATE, SLAT/FLAP position is limited to 3 to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT
The primary flight control electronics are composed of what 2 complimentary parts?
P-ACE primary actuator control electronics and FCM flight control modules
Where is the LRBL?
Left window second from back
T/F the hydraulic fluid can get into the other system via the boot strap reservoir
false
PTU purpose is
to raise the landing gear if the engine 2 fails or the engine 2 side hydraulic pump fails
Maximum rudder deflection is
30 degrees without gain
how many ACE units are primary?
3/9
How many FCMs are installed?
4 FCMs
_____ extend first, ____ retract first
slats extend first, flaps retract first
takeoff mode pitch is limited to
8-18 degrees pitch up
During takeoff and landing with the PTU switch in the AUTO position with the flaps out of zero, the PTU
Provides system logic for the PTU to activate the PTU if engine 2 fails or engine 2 EDP fails and gear lever is selected UP or DOWN
Why does electric hydraulic pump 2 automatically come on after number 1 engine is started and the parking brake is released?
To provide nose wheel steering and inboard brakes during single engine taxi
Hydraulic system 3 has an unloader valve and a flow limiter valve. When are they used?
They are used only in an electrical emergency to avoid overloading the RAT
Hydraulic system 1 and 2 engine pump shutoff valve buttons do what when pressed?
Closes the hydraulic shutoff valve, isolating the respective engine driven pump from the associated hydraulic system reservoir
In flight, with the hydraulic selector knobs in AUTO, when will the system 1 electric hydraulic pump operate continuously?
If the EDP or Engine fails or flaps selected to any position greater than zero degrees
Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?
Yes, up to FL310
What is the bleed system priority in flight?
Onside, opposite, APU
The pressurization system consists of
a cabin outflow valve, static pressure port, negative pressure relief valve, positive pressure relief valve, and cabin pressure controller
The emergency ram air valve opens when
in flight less than 25,000’ and both packs are OFF or failed
Maximum differential overpressure is
8.8 psi
What surfaces are anti-iced?
Slats 2,3,4 and Engine cowl lip
When are the smart probes and TAT probes heated?
When an engine is running
What is the function of the ATTCS Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System?
Provides maximum reserve thrust in the event of an engine failure
How many displays and instruments are on during initial aircraft power-up ON and BATT 2 AUTO?
DUs 2 and 3, IESS, clock, MCDU 2, CCD 1
The E175 wingspan is
93’ 11”
Minimum runway width for a 180deg turn is
59’ 2”
Mesa requires autopilot to be engaged not below
1000’AGL
If you pull the T fire handle, does the fire bottle discharge?
No, you have to turn it to fire the bottle
What bus is used for fire protection?
HOTT BATT BUS for ENGINE Protection, (DC ESS BUS for APU protection/detection and engine detection)
Max fuel imbalance
794lbs
How long will the FBW battery give you?
Page 8.29 on 750 manual says; In case of an extremely improbable failure that would render complete loss of normal and emergency electrical power to the FBW, the backup power system, with no pilot intervention, keeps the appropriate number of elevator and rudder actuators operating for at least 15 min
What does the TRU do?
Converts 115VAC to 28VDC, Primary DC power source
What is the max landing weight for the LR?
74,957 lbs
What is the max landing weight for the LL?
same as the LR 74,957
What is the MTOW for the LR?
85,517
What is the aircraft length?
103’ 11”
What is the wingspan of the aircraft?
93’ 11”
What is the height of the aircraft?
32’ 4”
When is the electrical P-Bit test performed?
anytime the aircraft electrical power starts, and it takes 3min to complete the test
What is the max rudder deflection without gain?
30 degrees
What does the HYD 3 unloader and flow limiting valves do?
They are used in an electrical emergency to avoid overloading the RAT
What is the pitch limit on takeoff?
8-18 degrees of pitch
How does the cabin outflow valve knob work?
“up” opens the outflow valve, “down” closes the outflow valve
What happens when the DUMP button is pressed?
provides rapid depressurization, opening the OFV and turns packs and recirculation fans OFF; controls the OFV to maintain the cabin altitude rate of climb at 2,000fpm up to 12,400’
When parking brake is release what happens?
ACMP 2 turns ON
Multifunction spoilers __ degrees, ground spoilers __ degrees
40, 60
What are the 2 flight control modes?
Normal and Direct
When BATT 1 and 2 are turned on what turns on?
DU 2,3, compass light, IESS, clock, MCDU 2, CCD 1, Comms, Trim panel
What alt do we engage autopilot per mesa policy?
1,000’
