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E175 > Indoc Systems > Flashcards

Indoc Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Pushing the illuminated cargo fire extinguisher button while on the ground will

A

Discharge the high rate bottle while the low rate bottle is armed automatically and must be discharged manually

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2
Q

When the RAT is the sole source of power what happens to the slats and flaps

A

the slats and flaps will operate slower at half the normal speed

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3
Q

Which part of the plane required the largest turning clearance during taxi?

A

Tail

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4
Q

On the FMA what does OVRD indicate?

A

The PF is manually overriding the auto throttle

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5
Q

What powers the 3 hydraulic systems?

A

Systems 1 and 2 are powered by an EDP and are backed up by an ACMP. System 3 is powered by an ACMP backed up by another ACMP

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6
Q

Hydraulic system 1 powers which landing systems?

A

Normal outboard brakes, emergency/parking brakes

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7
Q

The emergency lighting power units are all powered by

A

DC Bus 1

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8
Q

The IESS Integrated Electronic Standby System will align in

A

90 seconds

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9
Q

The Air Data Smart Probes ADSP and the TAT provide

A

Total Pressure, Static Pressure, AOA, and TAT

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10
Q

The cargo doors are ____ operated and ____ held in position

A

mechanically operated, mechanically held in position

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11
Q

If the Display Selector knob is in the _____ position, the MFD automatically reverts the failed display

A

AUTO

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12
Q

The landing gear system is normally _____ controlled and ______ operated.

A

electrically controlled, hydraulically operated

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13
Q

When will the wing anti ice will come on when ice is detected given: Normal Takeoff Data Set (TDS), REF anti-ice OFF, Selector knob AUTO

A

as the aircraft reaches 1,700’AGL or 2min after liftoff

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14
Q

In case of airspeed data loss, the flight control operation is defaulted to

A

fixed control laws/direct mode

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15
Q

The ailerons are ______ controlled and _____ operated

A

Mechanically controlled, hydraulically operated

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16
Q

The amber LED light beside IDG disconnect switch indicates

A

Which IDG must be disconnected

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17
Q

The FPA Acceleration Pointer on the PFD

A

Indicates the acceleration and deceleration rate along the flight path

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18
Q

The overheat detection system (ODS) incorporates

A

overheat and leak detection for the engine bleed, air conditioning ducts, APU bleed air distribution and anti-ice supply ducting

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19
Q

The takeoff configuration warning monitors the position of

A

flaps, parking brake, pitch trim and spoiler

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20
Q

during an electrical emergency, which hydraulic system accumulator will power the flight controls until the RAT has powered the ACMP 3A

A

System 3

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21
Q

What is the priority of the pitch trim switches?

A

Back-Up, captain, first officer, Autopilot

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22
Q

Overpressure in the integral wing tank is prevented when

A

The high capacity pressure relief valve opens

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23
Q

The conditioned air normally consists of

A

52% fresh and 48% recirculation air

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24
Q

The engine FADEC will command the starter to cutout during the START sequence on the ground at

A

50% N2

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25
Q

The engine exciters A are powered from which bus?

A

Standby Essential Bus

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26
Q

The N1 wing anti-ice (cyan) line will appear on the EICAS when

A

below 12,000’, icing condition, gear or flaps extended

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27
Q

The ENG 1 FADEC power source after the starter cuts out is

A

PMA

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28
Q

When the APU reaches a low oil pressure condition

A

the FADEC will automatically shut-down the APU on the ground

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29
Q

The FADEC will command the starter to cutout during the START sequence in fight at

A

If N2 has not reached 20% after 15 seconds

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30
Q

The AOA is calculated based upon and interface between

A

Static pressure of the smart probes

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31
Q

What happens after rotating the APU selector knob from ON to OFF?

A

The APU starts a 1 minute (has POST-MOD) cool down period, controlled by the FADEC

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32
Q

What is the max thrust for single-engine CF34-8E5 in the event of one engine inoperative using T/O-1 with the ATTCS ON

A

14,200

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33
Q

What happens if ADS 2 fails?

A

The affected side will automatically revert to ADS 3 first.

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34
Q

Where are cabin temperatures controlled?

A

On the flight deck control panel or when transferred on the ATTND control panel

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35
Q

Which indication shows a successful DVDR test?

A

Only a failure indication would be provided on the EICAS

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36
Q

How is the free wheel steering mode engaged?

A

One of the respective steering disengage buttons on the control wheel

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37
Q

If the WING ice protection button is pushed in, the Wing Anti-Ice system will

A

provide automatic operation of the wing anti-ice system

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38
Q

What happens when LOW 1 is selected on the fuel control panel?

A

The fuel crossfeed valve opens and AC pump 2 will activate

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39
Q

When the RAT is deployed, the DC ESS BUSES 1 and 2 are supplied with current from what source?

A

ESS TRU

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40
Q

What does the engine fire pull handle do?

A

Closes the respective fuel, hydraulic and bleed air SOVs

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41
Q

Which of the following are not driven by Fly-by-Wire system tech?

A

Ailerons only

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42
Q

Where is the selected VHF COM indicated?

A

Audio control panel display

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43
Q

The recirculation fan button placed in the AUTO position. the fans are commanded off if

A

the dump button is pressed

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44
Q

The oxygen rotary knob has 3 positions, choose the correct statement:

A

EMERG supplies pure oxygen under positive pressure, 100% supplies pure oxygen at all cabin altitudes, NORM supplies an oxygen air mixture on demand

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45
Q

Where is the radio altimeter decision height selected?

A

The Display Controller Panel

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46
Q

The EGPWS Terrain warning High Density red dots display indicate that

A

terrain is more than 2,000’ above the airplane

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47
Q

When the IRS 1 fails:

A

IRS 2 signal must be selected to the pilots via the revisionary panel

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48
Q

The flight crew oxygen system is checked on the

A

Status synoptic page

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49
Q

The DC electrical network consists of:

A

2 DC BUS, 3 DC ESS BUS, 2 BATT HOT BUS, 1 APU START BUS, 1 DC GND SERVICE BUS

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50
Q

To establish alternative VHF tuning the following procedure is used

A

With the CCD actuate the VHF box on the PFD and tune the new frequency with the CCD tuning knob

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51
Q

What happens if an IDG fails?

A

Bus ties automatically connect to provide no system degradation

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52
Q

T/F One IDG can supply the entire electrical system

A

True

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53
Q

What will cause the amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate?

A

High oil temperature and low oil pressure

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54
Q

What is the purpose of the TRUs?

A

To convert 115 VAC to 28 VDC

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55
Q

How long will the aircraft’s batteries last with no recharging?

A

10min

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56
Q

T/F With both IDGs and the APU generator off-line, and the AC bus tie set to auto, the RAT will power the AC standby bus via the AC essential bus

A

True

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57
Q

What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle?

A

For APU start when batteries are less than 22.5 VDC or if battery temp is less than -20deg C

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58
Q

During an electrical emergency, the batteries supply essential loads for

A

10 minutes

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59
Q

What powers the primary ejector pump?

A

motive flow

60
Q

What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?

A

Maintain fuel level in the collector box

61
Q

What is the purpose of the collector box?

A

To keep the fuel pumps submerged and ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine

62
Q

If there is a 500lb fuel imbalance in the left wing, which of the following is the correct procedure to accomplish?

A

Turn the X-Feed switch to the LOW 1 position

63
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance?

A

794 lbs

64
Q

The APU normally gets its fuel from

A

the right wing tank

65
Q

What is the power source for engine fire protection?

A

HOT BATT BUS

66
Q

What indications are presented for a valid fire detection test?

A

Master warning, fire bell, triple chime, associated EICAS messages, fire handles illuminated, APU and Cargo guarded switch lights illuminated; FIRE inverse message in the ITT gauge

67
Q

How many total cargo fire bottles are installed for use in both compartments?

A

2

68
Q

How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?

A

3 in the fwd cargo, 2 in the aft cargo bay

69
Q

How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartments?

A

1 high-rate bottle and 1 low-rate bottle used for both compartments

70
Q

How many aircraft engine fire bottles are installed on the aircraft?

A

2

71
Q

To discharge the fire bottle into the engine, pulling the Fire Extinguish Handle is all that is required T/F

A

False

72
Q

Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?

A

Only on the ground

73
Q

T/F the APU fire extinguisher will automatically discharge one minute after a fire is detected

A

False

74
Q

What happens to the fwd cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?

A

Recirculation fan shuts off, ventilation outflow valve closes, FWD cargo smoke fire extinguishing button illuminates

75
Q

What systems use hydraulic power?

A

Flight controls, spoilers, landing gear and nose wheel steering, wheel brakes, thrust reversers

76
Q

Normal hydraulic pressure is

A

3,000 psi

77
Q

What is the PTU?

A

Mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure

78
Q

During takeoff and landing with the PTU switch in the AUTO position with the flaps OUT OF zero, the PTU

A

provides system logic for the PTU to activate if engine 2 fails or engine 2 EDP fails

79
Q

Why does electric hydraulic pump 2 automatically come on after number 1 engine is started and the parking brake is released?

A

To provide nose wheel steering and inboard brakes during single engine taxi

80
Q

Hydraulic system 3 has an unloaded valve and a flow limiter valve. When are they used?

A

They are used only in an electrical emergency to avoid overloading the RAT

81
Q

Hydraulic system 1 and 2 engine pump shutoff valve buttons do what when pressed?

A

Closes the hydraulic SOV, isolating the respective EDP from the associated hydraulic system

82
Q

In flight with the hydraulic selector knobs in AUTO, when will the system 1 electric hydraulic pump operate continuously?

A

If the EDP or engine fails or flaps selected to any position greater than 0

83
Q

Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?

A

Yes, up to FL310

84
Q

what is the bleed system priority in flight?

A

Onside, opposite, APU

85
Q

The pressurization system consists of

A

A cabin outflow valve, a static pressure port, a negative pressure relief valve, a positive pressure relief valve, and a cabin pressure controller

86
Q

What happens when the dump button is pressed?

A

Commands both ECS packs OFF and opens the OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400’ at a rate of 2,000fpm

87
Q

When does the emergency ram air valve open?

A

In flight less than 25,000’ and both packs are off or failed

88
Q

Maximum differential pressure is

A

8.4

89
Q

What surfaces are anti-iced?

A

Wing slat segments 2,3, and 4 and engine cowl lip

90
Q

When icing on the MCDU is set to OFF and takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on?

A

Not until 1,700’ or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)

91
Q

How long will the deicing system remain on after icing is no longer detected?

A

5 minutes

92
Q

Both ice detectors must be operable or detecting ice conditions and activating engine and wing anti-ice T/F

A

False

93
Q

If an engine fails, does the opposite wing receive ice detection

A

Yes, the cross bleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings

94
Q

When do the smart probes heat?

A

When an engine is running

95
Q

What is ATTCS?

A

Automatic Take-off thrust control system, provides maximum thrust reserve in the event of an engine failure

96
Q

Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?

A

Only on the ground for a Hot start, Hung start, or no-light off

97
Q

What is the priority for the trim system?

A

BCFA Backup, CA, FO, Autopilot

98
Q

What happens to the flight control system with the RAT is the only AC power source?

A

Horizontal stab trim operates at LO RATE, Slat/Flap system operates at LO RATE, SLAT/FLAP position is limited to 3 to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT

99
Q

The primary flight control electronics are composed of what 2 complimentary parts?

A

P-ACE primary actuator control electronics and FCM flight control modules

100
Q

Where is the LRBL?

A

Left window second from back

101
Q

T/F the hydraulic fluid can get into the other system via the boot strap reservoir

A

false

102
Q

PTU purpose is

A

to raise the landing gear if the engine 2 fails or the engine 2 side hydraulic pump fails

103
Q

Maximum rudder deflection is

A

30 degrees without gain

104
Q

how many ACE units are primary?

A

3/9

105
Q

How many FCMs are installed?

A

4 FCMs

106
Q

_____ extend first, ____ retract first

A

slats extend first, flaps retract first

107
Q

takeoff mode pitch is limited to

A

8-18 degrees pitch up

108
Q

During takeoff and landing with the PTU switch in the AUTO position with the flaps out of zero, the PTU

A

Provides system logic for the PTU to activate the PTU if engine 2 fails or engine 2 EDP fails and gear lever is selected UP or DOWN

109
Q

Why does electric hydraulic pump 2 automatically come on after number 1 engine is started and the parking brake is released?

A

To provide nose wheel steering and inboard brakes during single engine taxi

110
Q

Hydraulic system 3 has an unloader valve and a flow limiter valve. When are they used?

A

They are used only in an electrical emergency to avoid overloading the RAT

111
Q

Hydraulic system 1 and 2 engine pump shutoff valve buttons do what when pressed?

A

Closes the hydraulic shutoff valve, isolating the respective engine driven pump from the associated hydraulic system reservoir

112
Q

In flight, with the hydraulic selector knobs in AUTO, when will the system 1 electric hydraulic pump operate continuously?

A

If the EDP or Engine fails or flaps selected to any position greater than zero degrees

113
Q

Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?

A

Yes, up to FL310

114
Q

What is the bleed system priority in flight?

A

Onside, opposite, APU

115
Q

The pressurization system consists of

A

a cabin outflow valve, static pressure port, negative pressure relief valve, positive pressure relief valve, and cabin pressure controller

116
Q

The emergency ram air valve opens when

A

in flight less than 25,000’ and both packs are OFF or failed

117
Q

Maximum differential overpressure is

A

8.8 psi

118
Q

What surfaces are anti-iced?

A

Slats 2,3,4 and Engine cowl lip

119
Q

When are the smart probes and TAT probes heated?

A

When an engine is running

120
Q

What is the function of the ATTCS Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System?

A

Provides maximum reserve thrust in the event of an engine failure

121
Q

How many displays and instruments are on during initial aircraft power-up ON and BATT 2 AUTO?

A

DUs 2 and 3, IESS, clock, MCDU 2, CCD 1

122
Q

The E175 wingspan is

A

93’ 11”

123
Q

Minimum runway width for a 180deg turn is

A

59’ 2”

124
Q

Mesa requires autopilot to be engaged not below

A

1000’AGL

125
Q

If you pull the T fire handle, does the fire bottle discharge?

A

No, you have to turn it to fire the bottle

126
Q

What bus is used for fire protection?

A

HOTT BATT BUS for ENGINE Protection, (DC ESS BUS for APU protection/detection and engine detection)

127
Q

Max fuel imbalance

A

794lbs

128
Q

How long will the FBW battery give you?

A

Page 8.29 on 750 manual says; In case of an extremely improbable failure that would render complete loss of normal and emergency electrical power to the FBW, the backup power system, with no pilot intervention, keeps the appropriate number of elevator and rudder actuators operating for at least 15 min

129
Q

What does the TRU do?

A

Converts 115VAC to 28VDC, Primary DC power source

130
Q

What is the max landing weight for the LR?

A

74,957 lbs

131
Q

What is the max landing weight for the LL?

A

same as the LR 74,957

132
Q

What is the MTOW for the LR?

A

85,517

133
Q

What is the aircraft length?

A

103’ 11”

134
Q

What is the wingspan of the aircraft?

A

93’ 11”

135
Q

What is the height of the aircraft?

A

32’ 4”

136
Q

When is the electrical P-Bit test performed?

A

anytime the aircraft electrical power starts, and it takes 3min to complete the test

137
Q

What is the max rudder deflection without gain?

A

30 degrees

138
Q

What does the HYD 3 unloader and flow limiting valves do?

A

They are used in an electrical emergency to avoid overloading the RAT

139
Q

What is the pitch limit on takeoff?

A

8-18 degrees of pitch

140
Q

How does the cabin outflow valve knob work?

A

“up” opens the outflow valve, “down” closes the outflow valve

141
Q

What happens when the DUMP button is pressed?

A

provides rapid depressurization, opening the OFV and turns packs and recirculation fans OFF; controls the OFV to maintain the cabin altitude rate of climb at 2,000fpm up to 12,400’

142
Q

When parking brake is release what happens?

A

ACMP 2 turns ON

143
Q

Multifunction spoilers __ degrees, ground spoilers __ degrees

A

40, 60

144
Q

What are the 2 flight control modes?

A

Normal and Direct

145
Q

When BATT 1 and 2 are turned on what turns on?

A

DU 2,3, compass light, IESS, clock, MCDU 2, CCD 1, Comms, Trim panel

146
Q

What alt do we engage autopilot per mesa policy?

A

1,000’

E175 (7 decks)

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