GOM Flashcards

Question

How many ARTCCs exist over the continental US?

Answer 1

1 Autopilot, 2 ADCs, 2 Mode-C Transponders, 1 Altitude Alerting System

Answer 2

True, True

Answer 3

IAP Outbound IAP Inbound Intercepting the FAC Inbound

Answer 4

Submitted electronically | Not required from the US to Canada

Answer 5

18,500’ MSL

Answer 6

``` A FL200and above D TMA Terminal Control Area E Controlled airways which extend from the MEA to FL200 F Advisory Service Areas G Uncontrolled Airspace ```

Answer 7

At the start of the final application of the deicing/anti-ice process

Answer 8

MEL, CDL, and NEF Manuals

Answer 9

2hrs from the proposed time of departure

Answer 10

500-1 Above the lowest landing minimums

Answer 11

The Director of Operations and the PIC

Answer 12

add 100’ and 1/2SM to landing minimums, alternate not below 300-1

Answer 13

``` WXCGVORS Windsear X-wind over 15kts Contaminated rwy G braking action less than “Good” Visibility less than 3/4 (1 for Mesa) Other per PIC RVR 4,000’ (5,000’ for Mesa) Special Airport ```

Answer 14

The operation can be completed by a crewmember

Answer 15

stomatogravic illusion

Answer 16

radar altimeter

Answer 17

ATIS ATC Advise FA Build Bug - FMS Frequencies, Minimums, Speeds Brief Checklist

Answer 18

The security briefing prior to each flight provides the crew with the opportunity to become familiar with the unique circumstances which may affect the flight and how the ISC In-Flight Security Coordinator will handle security issues. The following must be covered during the security portion of the crew member briefing: - Passenger manifest review (LEO/SSR) - FAM, FFDO, and LEO identification - The preferred methods of signaling duress in the cabin - Security directives/alerts - Question/answer - See something, say something

Answer 19

Threat Level 1: Disruptive, Suspicious behavior Action: lockdown if away from gate Notify: GSC, SOC, LEO, TSA Threat Level 2: Physically Abusive behavior Action: lockdown if away from gate, divert flight Notify: GSC, SOC, LEO, TSA Threat Level 3: Life-threatening behavior Action: at gate disable aircraft and escape, divert flight and lockdown squawk 7700 or 7500 Notify: PA, GSC, SOC, LEO, TSA Threat Level 4: Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck Action: same as threat level 3

Answer 20

No. TSA must provide permission to depart whenever a LEO has been requested even if the request is later canceled. Permission is not required for non-security related issues (drunk passenger, smoking passenger…)

Answer 21

Descend to maintain no more than 1PSI difference, slow to approach speed and configure for landing, disable all non-essential power to the nearby area As close as possible to the center of the second row window from the last window on the aircraft left. Pax should be removed from the last row and 4 rows fore of the LRBL.

Answer 22

Odd Altitudes: FL 290-410 fly east Even Altitudes: FL 300-400 fly west East is Odd, West is Even

Answer 23

Autopilot, altitude alerting system, 2 transponders (1 must be operational), 2 ADCs (both must be operational)

Answer 24

Pitch Up > 25deg Pitch Down > 10deg Bank Angle > 45deg Within the above parameters but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions

Answer 25

Fly above the flight path or fly 1,000’ below the flight path (depending on aircraft class)

Answer 26

PUSH to reduce AOA, then once the wings are unloaded (and you’re flying inverted), roll wings level

Answer 27

MCL Manual Currency List | APCL Aircraft Publications Currency List

Answer 28

No pilot may act as Pilot-in-Command (PIC) or Second-in-Command (SIC) at Mesa Airlines, Inc. unless the pilot: 1. Holds an airline transport pilot (ATP) certificate. a. A Pilot must be 23 years of age if the ATP certificate was obtained under aeronautical experience requirements of 61.159, 61.161, or 61.163; or b. A pilot must 21 years of age if an ATP was obtained under aeronautical experience requirements of 61.160. 2. Holds an FAA issued appropriate aircraft type rating for the aircraft being flown. 3. Is employed by Mesa Airlines, Inc. B. The Pilot-in-Command (PIC) must be at least age 23 and have 1,000 hours as Second-in-Command (SIC) in operations unless qualified prior to July 31, 2013. A pilot may credit 500 hours of military time obtained as Pilot-in-Command (PIC) of a multi-engine turbine-powered, fixed wing airplane in operation requiring more than one pilot.

Answer 29

5. Mesa Airlines, Inc. requires that no person may serve as PIC or Second- in-Command (SIC) if they have not met the required proficiency and currency requirements. It is the responsibility of crewmembers to advise their supervisors if they are approaching non-currency or flight duty time legality limitations. No PIC or first officer may serve in that capacity under FAR 121 unless they have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an approved visual simulator or in the type airplane in which that person is to serve within the preceding 90 days, in accordance with FAR 121.439. Pilots are required to satisfactorily complete the online portion of their Recurrent Ground Training on or before their Due Month; for AQP, on or before the fifth month of any AQP online training cycle (i.e. May and November). Permission must be obtained from the Chief Pilot to extend this training into their Late Grace Month.

Answer 30

In accordance with FAR 121.438(a), if the first officer has fewer than 100 hours of flight time as SIC in operations under FAR 121 in the type airplane being flown, and the PIC is not an appropriately qualified check pilot, the PIC must make all takeoffs and landings in the following situations: WXCGVORS a. At special airports designated by the Administrator or at special airports designated by the certificate holder. b. In any of the following conditions: 1 The prevailing visibility value in the latest weather report for the airport is at or below 3⁄4 mile. NOTE: All takeoffs with less than one mile visibility will be made by the PIC. 2 The runway visual range for the runway to be used is at or below 4,000 feet. NOTE: All takeoffs with less than 5,000 RVR will be made by the PIC. 3 The runway to be used has water, snow, slush or similar conditions that may adversely affect airplane performance. 4 The braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be less than “good.” 5 The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots. 6 Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport. 7 Any other condition in which the PIC determines it to be prudent to exercise the PICs prerogative. For Special Airport Qualifications refer to section 7.34 Special Airport Qualification Procedures.

Answer 31

Crewmembers shall not participate in scuba diving within a 24 hour period prior to reporting to duty.

Answer 32

It is recommended that crewmembers not donate blood unless it is absolutely necessary. In no case will a crewmember report for duty within 72 hours of giving blood.

Answer 33

Crewmembers must not participate in any operation of Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft if they have taken either Benedryl or Phyribenzamine within the preceding 12 hours.

Answer 34

The use of any over-the-counter antihistamine cold remedy or any other over- the-counter antihistamine within 12 hours before flight is prohibited. The use of any prescription antihistamine within 12 hours before flight is prohibited except in consultation with an Aviation Medical Examiner.

Answer 35

Belladonna, aanthine, atrophine or atrophine-like drugs are often given for dilating pupils of the eye for some internal disorders. The dilation of the pupils has a serious effect on vision. Therefore, these drugs should not be used unless absolutely necessary. If they are used, flight crewmembers should not return to flight duty within 12 hours after use unless a medical release is obtained.

Answer 36

According to the FARs, no person will act as a flight crewmember, flight attendant, flight instructor, aircraft dispatcher, ground security coordinator, aviation screener, air traffic controller, or perform aircraft maintenance / preventative maintenance duties: 1. While under the influence of alcohol or drugs of any kind, or under the residual effects of alcohol or prescription drugs, that might affect the performance of duties. 2. Within eight hours after consumption of any alcoholic beverage. 3. While having a 0.04% by weight or greater alcohol in the blood content. Mesa Airlines, Inc. company policy prohibits any employee from performing safety/security sensitive duties while having a 0.02% by weight or greater alcohol in the blood content. Mesa Airlines, Inc. prohibits all employees in safety sensitive positions from consuming any alcoholic beverage within twelve hours of duty.

Answer 37

A crewmember’s FAA Medical Certificate that expires in a given month must be renewed by the 25th day of that month unless prior arrangements are made with the Chief Pilot’s office. It is the crewmember’s responsibility to send a legible copy of the new medical certificate to the Manager of Crew Qualifications no later than the 25th day of the month, 23:59 PHX time (unless prior arrangements have been made with the Chief Pilot’s office). It is recommended that the pilot contact the Manager of Crew Qualifications to ensure that the certificate copy has been received. Failure to provide a current medical certificate to Mesa Airlines, Inc. without an extension granted by the crewmember’s supervisor will result in immediate suspension of the pilot from active line status. a. Fax: (888) 228-4659. b. Voice: (888) 269-7893. c. Email: crewquals@mesa-air.com.

Answer 38

No. All crewmembers are required to have a valid passport in their possession while on duty.

Answer 39

When a pilot loses/misplaces their airman or medical certificate(s) prior to a scheduled departure and insufficient time exists to contact the FAA in Oklahoma City, Airman Certification Branch, the following procedures will apply: Following positive verification of the pilot's identity, the Crew Scheduling Supervisor or authorized authority will confirm the pilot's legality and issue the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Temporary Airman Certification Letter (Form #OP002). This letter will serve as the pilot's temporary certificate(s) for a period of 72 hours from the time of issue. A pilot who operates a flight using this procedure must ensure that a request for a legal replacement document from the FAA confirming the applicable certificate is received within 72 hours of the initiation of any flight conducted. The pilot must send a copy of the document received from the FAA to the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Manager of Crew Qualifications within 24 hours of the receipt of that document. This request may be made at the FAA’s website (www.faa.gov). This procedure may only be exercised when the affected pilot operates totally within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia.

Answer 40

Safety Policy Safety Policy is a statement of commitment to Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s safety objectives, assigned responsibilities and standards through its management and employees. See the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Safety Policy Statement at the beginning of the manual following the cover page. Safety Risk Management (SRM) SRM component provides a decision-making process for identifying hazards and mitigating risk based on a thorough understanding of Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s operating environment. SRM includes decision-making regarding management acceptance of risk to operations. The SRM component is Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s way of fulfilling the commitment to consider risk in operations and to reduce it to an acceptable level. In that sense, SRM is a design process, a way to incorporate risk controls into operations or to redesign controls where existing controls are not meeting expectation. ``` Safety Assurance (SA) SA provides the necessary processes to meet safety objectives and ensure mitigations, or risk controls, developed under SRM are working. SA is a process to watch what is going on and review what has happened to ensure that objectives are being met. Thus, SA requires monitoring and measuring safety performance of operational processes and continuously improving the level of safety performance. ``` Safety Promotion Safety Promotion, the last component, is designed to ensure employees have a solid foundation regarding their safety responsibilities, the safety policies and expectations, reporting procedures, and a familiarity with risk controls. Thus, training and communication are the two key areas of safety promotion.

Answer 41

SMS is a CFR Part 5 regulatory requirement and an FAA approved program designed to make commercial aviation safer by allowing the technical information available from various programs to be reviewed on a regular basis to identify trends and potential hazards to safe, efficient operations. Recommendations are made from the review committee which will be integrated into the airline training programs and manual library.

Answer 42

The fundamental objective of the Flight Operations Quality Assurance (FOQA) Program is to identify, reduce and eliminate, if necessary, safety risks, as well as improving compliance to Mesa Airlines, Inc. Standard Operating Procedures and the Federal Aviation Regulations. More information about this program can be found in the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Safety Program Manual.

Answer 43

The Advanced Qualification Program (AQP) authorizes airlines to develop proficiency-based training programs based on an analysis of those tasks in which a crewmember must be proficient to safely operate transport category aircraft utilizing Crew Resource Management/Threat and Error Management. Data gathered from the results are used to enhance training and awareness.

Answer 44

The Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP) is based on a three party agreement and safety partnership between the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), MASA and the Air Line Pilot Association (ALPA). Each party is committed to improving safety by applying a systematic approach comprised of technical operations personnel promptly identifying and correcting potential safety hazards. b. The primary purpose of the MASA Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP) is to identify safety events and implement corrective measures that reduce the opportunity for safety to be compromised. This ASAP applies to all pilots of MASA and only to events that occur while acting in that capacity. Reports of events involving apparent non-compliance with 14 CFR that is not inadvertent or that appears to involve an intentional disregard for safety, criminal activity, substance abuse, controlled substances, alcohol or intentional falsification are excluded from the program. c. The ASAP Submitter Guide is available on the company website under the Safety tab. More information about this program can be found in Chapter 3 of the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Safety Program Manual, found on the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Technical Publications website. d. The Pilot ASAP Memorandum of Understanding (MOU), which includes all information associated with the Pilot ASAP program, is available on the Mesa Airlines, Inc. ASAP home page at: http:// mesa-safety.wbat.org/. ASAP Reports do not replace Occurrence Reporting requirements.

Answer 45

The intent of the Continuing Analysis and Surveillance System is to effectively monitor, analyze and implement changes to processes and procedures related to the performance and effectiveness of the inspection and maintenance programs, and any alterations to those programs. Performance goals and statistics are set by codeshare partners and satisfaction of these goals is an integral part of providing exemplary customer service to the passengers onboard Mesa Airlines, Inc. flights. The following performance figures are tracked carefully and used to rate Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s performance as an air-carrier: 1. Departure D-0 - The departure of flights at or before scheduled departure time. 2. STAR/Head Start Flights - The on-time performance of those flights operated as first flights of the day (also defined as all flights departing prior to 0900 LCL time). 3. Arrival A-14 - The arrival of flights no later than 14 minutes past scheduled arrival time. 4. Minimum Service Times - The maximum amount of time an aircraft turn can be accomplished in for the delay to be coded as a late inbound aircraft. Activities during MST operations should be in accordance with documents provided on the Pilot Lounge. Flights not meeting MST guidelines will be coded as a delayed flight due to the root cause of the delayed turn. 5. Controllable Completion Factor - the percentage of flights operated that are not canceled due to circumstance within the control of Mesa Airlines, Inc. This does not include those cancellations due to weather or damage caused to the aircraft by personnel of other than Mesa Airlines, Inc. 6. Total Completion Factor - the ratio of flights operated to flights scheduled. 7. Customer Service Scores - Feedback provided by passengers booking on Mesa Airlines, Inc. operated flights are compiled and converted into a score based on the likelihood of a passenger to recommend the service of our airline to a friend or acquaintance.

Answer 46

The Pilot-in-Command (PIC) and the aircraft dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning, delay and dispatch release of a flight in compliance with the Federal Aviation Regulations and the MASA036A Operations Specifications. 2. The aircraft dispatcher is responsible for: a. Monitoring the progress of each flight. b. Issuing necessary information for the safety of the flight. c. Canceling or redispatching a flight, if in the opinion of the aircraft dispatcher or the PIC, the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released. 3. The PIC of an aircraft is responsible for: a. The command of the aircraft and crew and the safety of the passengers, crewmembers, cargo and airplane. b. The full operational control and authority in the operation of the aircraft without limitation over other crewmembers and their duties during flight time, whether or not the PIC holds valid certificates authorizing the performance of the duties of those crewmembers. c. In-flight Security Coordinator for all in-flight events. d. The PIC is responsible for continuously monitoring navigational performance and verifying present position, by using navigational accuracy, including RNP, FMS alert and/or navigational radio accuracy checks. e. The PIC is responsible for monitoring weather information during en route phase of flight, to include current weather and forecast for destination airport, or any alternate airport as required. f. Verification of airworthiness of each aircraft that is assigned. 1) No open discrepancies. 2) ARROW. a) Airworthiness Certificate b) Registration c) Radio License d) Operating Limitations e) Weight and Balance 3) AML onboard – tail number verified, weight and balance, VOR check.

Answer 47

Mesa Airlines, Inc. is responsible for Operational Control Operations always retains full responsibility for these functions. Operational Control is authorized both individually and collectively by the Director of Operations to the following personnel: a. Chief Pilot. b. Regional Chief Pilot(s). c. System Operations Control (Dispatch) who communicate to the personnel listed above. The specific operational control system utilized by Mesa Airlines, Inc. is the Flight Dispatch System. 1. System Operations Control (SOC) System Operations Control is the central clearing house for operational information for Mesa Airlines, Inc. All pilots are required to contact System Operations Control when necessary to obtain the most up-to-date information and to provide information that could affect the operations of Mesa Airlines, Inc. Such information will include but is not limited to: severe or unforecast weather, weather below the limits allowed by the FARs or Operations Specifications, any unsafe condition that might affect any Mesa Airlines, Inc. flight, any emergency condition, any condition of a crewmember including the absence of a crewmember if known and any condition of a Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft that would require any maintenance action. Pilots will contact SOC for information concerning the status of flights including cancellations, delays, reassignments and plane swaps. SOC will attempt to notify crewmembers of cancellations and delays as soon as the delay or cancellation is known. However, Mesa Airlines, Inc. procedure requires crewmembers to contact SOC to confirm the cancellation/delay and course of action including reassignment or release from duty. If crewmembers are informed of a cancellation or delay, they are required to contact SOC. No crewmember is released from duty unless released by SOC.

Answer 48

``` System Operations Control maintains operational air-to-ground communication through the following: 1. Station Frequencies. 2. ARINC. 3. ACARS. ```

Answer 49

Flight Duty Period (FDP) means a period that begins when a flight crewmember is required to report for duty with the intention of conducting a flight, a series of flights or positioning or ferry flights, and ends when the aircraft is parked after the last flight and there is no intention for further aircraft movement by the same flight crewmember. A FDP includes the duty performed by the flight crew on behalf of Mesa Airlines, Inc. that occurs before a flight segment or between flight segments without a required intervening rest period. Examples of tasks that are part of the FDP include deadhead transportation, training conducted in an aircraft or flight simulator and airport/standby reserve, if the above tasks occur before a flight segment or between flight segments without an intervening rest period.

Answer 50

Theater means a geographical area in which the distance between the flight crewmember's FDP departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60° longitude.

Answer 51

Acclimated means a condition in which a flight crewmember has been in a theater for 72 hours or has been given at least 36 consecutive hours free from duty.

Answer 52

Augmented flight crew means a flight crew that has more than the minimum number of flight crewmembers required by the airplane type certificate to operate the aircraft to allow a flight crewmember to be replaced by another qualified flight crewmember for in-flight rest. Mesa Airlines, Inc. operates Unaugmented flights only.

Answer 53

Window of Circadian Low means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between 0200 and 0559 during a physiological night.

Answer 54

Mesa Airlines, Inc. may not assign and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment for a flight operation if the scheduled FDP will exceed the limits in the FDP Table (refer to Table 2-1) in this section. Except as provided for in 14 CFR Part 117.15, Mesa Airlines, Inc. may not assign and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment for an unaugmented flight operation if the scheduled FDP will exceed the limits of 14 CFR Part 117.13 in the FDP Table in this section. 1. If the flight crewmember is not acclimated: a. The maximum FDP in the FDP Table in this section is reduced by 30 minutes. b. The applicable FDP is based on the local time at the theater in which the flight crewmember was last acclimated.

Answer 55

1. Before beginning any reserve or FDP, a flight crewmember must be given at least 30 consecutive hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive hour period. 2. Mesa Airlines, Inc. will not assign, and no crewmember may accept, a Mesa Airlines, Inc. flight unless the pilot has been given a rest period of 10 consecutive hours immediately before beginning the reserve or FDP, measured from the time the flight crewmember is released from duty. The 10 hour rest period must provide the flight crewmember with a minimum of eight uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity. 3. Mesa Airlines, Inc. may not assign and no flight crewmember may accept assignment to any reserve or duty with Mesa Airlines, Inc. during any required rest period. 4. If a flight crewmember determines that a rest period under paragraph E.(2) of this section will not provide eight uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity, the flight crewmember must notify Mesa Airlines, Inc. immediately. The flight crewmember cannot report for the assigned FDP until he or she receives a rest period specified in paragraph E.(2) of this section. 5. If a flight crewmember engaged in deadhead transportation exceeds the applicable FDP in the FDP Table, the flight crewmember must be given a rest period equal to the length of the deadhead transportation but not less than the required rest in paragraph E.(2) of this section before beginning a FDP.

Answer 56

1. Mesa Airlines, Inc. may not schedule and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment or continue an assigned FDP, if the total flight time will exceed (14 CFR Part 117.11): The report time is based on the time at the crewmember's home base. For example, if the crew was assigned to show at 0530L in CLT, but they are based in PHX, their show time would be adjusted to 0230 (during standard time) or 0330 (during Daylight Saving Time). In either case, they could only fly for eight hours. 3. A flight is not permitted to depart if any ground delay will cause the flight crew to exceed flight time limitations upon landing at the destination. If unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff that are beyond Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s control, such as weather deviations, ATC delays and/ or holding, a flight crewmember may exceed the maximum flight time specified in the Maximum Flight Time Table in this section and the cumulative flight time limits described previously to the extent necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate, as appropriate. The maximum FDP hours for line holders per the FDP Table is based on the number of flight segments and the scheduled report time. As with flight time limitations, the report time is based on the time at the crewmember's home base. *Deadheads do not count as flight segments. *Deadheads prior to flight segments count as part of flight duty period. For purposes of Table B, the number of flight segments refers to number of scheduled flight segments. Diversions, gate returns and air returns do not count as a flight segment for Table B purposes. If a known delay (i.e., late boarding, late arriving aircraft with subsequent late departure) will take the crew beyond the FDP limit, but not to exceed 2 hours (120 minutes), prior to push back: a. The captain will confirm with the first officer that both crewmembers are “fit for duty.” b. The PIC MUST contact dispatch If an unknown delay will take the crew beyond the FDP limit after pushback: a. The PIC will confirm with the first officer that both crewmembers are “fit for duty.” 1) The PIC MUST contact dispatch If after pushback where an extension of FDP has been issued/ accepted, and an unforeseen further delay is encountered, and the flight crew feels that the FDP extension is no longer possible, the PIC MUST contact dispatch via telephone, email, ACARS, text message or any other suitable method that indicates a time stamp with the statement, “We are not fit for duty, and we can no longer accept a FDP extension.” After returning to gate, and when time permits, the flight crew will contact Crew Tracking. If an unknown delay will take the crew beyond FDP limit after takeoff: a. After all critical phases of flight have been accomplished and safety permitting, the PIC will confirm with the first officer that both crewmembers are “fit for duty.” b. After all critical phases of flight have been accomplished and safety permitting, the PIC MUST contact Dispatch. If the FDP extension will exceed 2 hours (120 minutes), the flight may continue to the destination, or alternate, if delays are encountered after departure due to weather deviations, ATC delays and/or holding and the flight crew will exceed the extended FDP. An FDP extension greater than 30 minutes may occur only once prior to receiving the prescribed rest period (at least 30 hours rest within the past 168 consecutive hour period).

Answer 57

For short call reserve: a. The reserve availability period may not exceed 14 hours. b. For a flight crewmember who has completed a reserve availability period, a pilot cannot be scheduled and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment of a reserve availability period unless the flight crewmember receives the required rest in 14 CFR Part 117.25(e). Reference paragraph E.(2) of this section. c. For an unaugmented operation, the total number of hours a flight crewmember may spend in a FDP and a reserve availability period may not exceed the lesser of the maximum applicable FDP in the FDP Table in this section plus four hours, or 16 hours, as measured from the beginning of the reserve availability period. 4. For long call reserve, if Crew Tracking contacts a flight crewmember to assign him or her to a FDP that will begin before and operate into the flight crewmember's window of circadian low, the flight crewmember must receive a 12 hour notice of report time from Mesa Airlines, Inc. 5. A pilot's reserve status may be shifted from long-call to short-call only if the flight crewmember receives a rest period as provided in E.(2) of this section. (14 CFR Part 117.25(e))

Answer 58

Split Duty (14 CFR Part 117.5) For an unaugmented operation only, if a pilot is provided with a rest opportunity (an opportunity to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her FDP, the time that the pilot spends in the suitable accommodation is not part of their FDP if all of the following conditions are met: 1. The rest opportunity is provided between the hours of 22:00 and 05:00 local time. 2. The time spent in the suitable accommodation is at least three hours, measured from the time that the crew reaches the suitable accommodation. 3. The rest opportunity is scheduled before the beginning of the FDP in which that rest opportunity is taken. 4. The rest opportunity that the pilot is actually provided may not be less than the rest opportunity that was scheduled. 5. The rest opportunity is not provided until the first segment of the FDP has been completed. 6. The combined time of the FDP and the rest opportunity provided in this section does not exceed 14 hours.

Answer 59

b. All flight crewmembers will be granted access to Crew Web through Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s website, www.mesa-air.com. c. All flight crewmembers are required to log into crew web to reconcile flight times, verify codings and report any discrepancies. Any discrepancy must be reported within five days.

Answer 60

The Director of Operations, or designee, must report the following to the FAA within 10 days: a. Any FDP that exceeded the maximum FDP permitted in the FDP Table in this section, as applicable, by more than 30 minutes; and b. Any flight time that exceeded the maximum flight time limits permitted in the FDP Table in this section and in the Maximum Flight Time Table in this section and 14 CFR Part 117.11, as applicable. c. Any FDP or flight time that exceeded the cumulative limits specified in 14 CFR Part 117.23.

Answer 61

Crewmembers will check in for their trips up to 24 hours in advance of their scheduled show time, but no later than two hours prior to scheduled show time via Crew Web.

Answer 62

In the event that the PIC has not reported at the time and location specified on the schedule within 10 minutes of the assigned showtime, the first officer will be responsible for contacting System Operations Control. It is suggested that crews should plan to arrive at the aircraft at least one hour prior to departure on days where deice operations are probable. If conditions warrant, stations will deice the aircraft 45 minutes prior to departure at the gate. Pooling or dripping deice fluid can cause a safety hazard while performing preflight duties.

Answer 63

a. Crew coordination 1) Introductions (FULL). 2) Verification of crewmembers with release (FULL/ ABBREVIATED). 3) Passenger load expected/expected passenger distribution (FULL/ABBREVIATED). 4) Review of emergency signals (FULL/ABBREVIATED). 5) Cargo load expected (if applicable). b. Mission planning 1) Flight time (FULL/ABBREVIATED). 2) Anticipated delays (FULL/ABBREVIATED). 3) Anticipated turbulence (FULL/ABBREVIATED). 4) Anticipated weather (enroute, destination) (FULL/ ABBREVIATED). 5) Special equipment in use/to be used (FULL/ ABBREVIATED). c. Aircraft specific information 1) Repairs (FULL/ABBREVIATED). 2) MEL (FULL/ABBREVIATED). 3) Cabin equipment preflight status (FULL/ABBREVIATED-IF AIRCRAFT SWAP). d. Security Information 1) Passenger manifest review (LEO/SSR) (FULL/ ABBREVIATED). 2) FFDO on mission (FULL/ABBREVIATED). 3) Security directives/alerts (FULL/ABBREVIATED). 4) Question/answer (FULL/ABBREVIATED). 5) Flight Deck Communication signals for use in abnormal situations or if intercom becomes inoperative (FULL).

Answer 64

The sterile cockpit phase of flight begins when the parking brake is released for aircraft movement and terminates after climbing through 10,000 feet MSL.

Answer 65

Turbulence is separated into four levels of intensity. Each different level of intensity can be described from both “reaction of the aircraft,” as well as the “reaction inside the aircraft.” a. If turbulence is anticipated on climb out, the PIC will brief the flight attendant(s) to remain seated with seat belt and shoulder harness fastened until advised by interphone when it is safe to get up. b. The levels of intensity are as follows: Light - Turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude (pitch, roll, yaw). - Unsecured objects may be displaced slightly. Food service may be conducted. Little or no difficulty is encountered when walking. Moderate - Changes in altitude and/or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. It usually causes variations in indicated airspeed. - Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. Food service must cease. Severe - Large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. It usually causes large variations in indicated airspeed. Aircraft may be momentarily out of control. - Unsecured objects are tossed about. Food services and walking are impossible. Food service must cease immediately. Extreme - Turbulence in which the aircraft is violently tossed about and is impossible to control. - All unsecured objects could become projectiles. Walking in the cabin is not possible. Emergency may be declared.

Answer 66

“If we have an engine fire or failure prior to V1, the pilot noting the malfunction will call, ‘ABORT, ABORT,’ and I (captain) will abort the takeoff. If you see any other malfunction, bring it to my attention and I (captain) will state, ‘ABORT, ABORT,’ or ‘CONTINUE’.”

Answer 67

If the PIC elects to delegate the takeoff briefing to the first officer, the PIC retains full responsibility for ensuring the briefing is complete in accordance with the guidelines above. For the takeoff brief: The first officer will inform the PIC if he has less than 100 hours in the aircraft for the purpose of compliance with FAR 121.438(a) for SIC limitations. Refer to Chapter 1 of this manual for a list of limitations.

Answer 68

Crews will review any Rate of Climb (ROC) requirements for the SID (DP) to be used based on anticipated ground speed by referencing the appropriate table for the chart. Briefing will include the requirement to monitor ROC until reaching the applicable altitude on the chart. The conversion equation is: ground speed divided by 60 multiplied by climb gradient in feet per nautical mile is equal to vertical speed required (GS/60xFPNM=VS).

Answer 69

``` Airman Certificate Medical Certificate FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operating Permit Mesa ID EFB - FD Pro Manuals Training Folder Flashlight Extra Pair of Corrective Lenses Passport Pen Logbook ```

Answer 70

There must be at least two flashlights (two “D” cell or equivalent) onboard the aircraft.

Answer 71

The iPad must be operated in “Airplane Mode” only, with the orientation lock activated. 4. The iPad must be operated using the most current version of Apple iOS. When the EFB is not in use, it must be stowed in the storage bin only, it is never permitted to be loose in the flight deck. Apple iBooks or Adobe Reader applications may be accessed for Mesa Airlines, Inc. manuals reference during non-critical phases of flight only, including when the aircraft is stationary with the parking brake applied. Only Mesa- supplied applications are permitted to be used. EFBs must be brought to the flight deck at the beginning of each working day with a full charge (95% charge or greater). No crewmember may commence any flight segment with less than a 40% charge. EFB internal batteries will be considered as primary power. The AC outlet on the aircraft shall not be used to charge or power the EFB. Reference the Failure procedure in this section if the EFB is not sufficiently charged. Use of Wi-Fi, data, cellular network and/or Bluetooth (uploading or downloading) is not permitted after the main cabin door has been closed. a. In the event that one crewmember’s EFB or iPad mount fails in flight, the crew shall rely on the use of the of the other crewmember’s EFB and/or paper charts (as applicable) for enroute navigation and approach phases of flight. 1) Once on the ground if not in domicile, the crewmember will print the necessary charts to complete the flight(s) to a domicile and advise SOC that charts will be carried according to the approved procedure. This will be logged in the remarks section on the crewmember's Flight Release of those flights as; “Captain or First Officer's EFB is inoperative, paper charts have been provided for this leg.” 2) Once in a domicile, the crewmember must contact a Regional Chief Pilot for a spare iPad if available. If a spare iPad is unavailable, the crewmember will be replaced. MASA 036A Operations Specifications on iPad EFB are for reference only. The official copy of the MASA 036A Operations Specifications resides in electronic form on the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Technical Publications Website.

Answer 72

No. Flight crews are prohibited from storing their carry-on bags (i.e. lunch boxes, laptop bags, etc.) behind the flight compartment seats or between the pedestal and the flight deck door. Rollerboards or luggage is prohibited from being stored anywhere in the flight deck.

Answer 73

There may only be one lap child per adult.

Answer 74

Each passenger bottom seat cushion serves as a flotation device for use after ditching. To operate: A. Pull up on the cushion to remove it from the seat. B. Take the cushion to the nearest usable exit. C. Place arms through the straps to hug it to chest when exiting the aircraft.

Answer 75

A UM is a minor (or child) who has not reached their thirteenth birthday, but who is five years or older. Those who have reached their thirteenth birthday travel as an adult without restrictions in accordance with Domestic General Rule 50. B. Children under five years of age are not accepted for unaccompanied travel.

Answer 76

No, unless otherwise indicated in this section, the flight deck jumpseat may only be occupied by authorized individuals if no seat is available in the aircraft cabin. (with exceptions including non-line pilots and dispatchers)

Answer 77

A Mesa Airlines, Inc. Safety Report Form must be completed any time flight deck access is denied in the interest of safety.

Answer 78

No. Flight attendants are not permitted to occupy either the Captain's or First Officer's seat.

Answer 79

ASI must present valid FAA Form 110A (Aviation Safety Inspector's Credential). c. The ASI must be given free and uninterrupted access to the pilot's compartment of that aircraft. d. The ASI is not required to state the purpose of the observation nor are crewmembers allowed to question the purpose of the jumpseat occupation. e. The ASI is NOT restricted from international flights and may occupy the Flight Deck jumpseat on any international flight. The Form 110A consists of: 1. Name and picture of the ASI. 2. Form number. 3. A blue text background. 4. An expiration date.

Answer 80

The PIC is responsible for determining that all individuals using the jumpseat have complied with the pertinent provisions of this section and, further, that jumpseat riders are thoroughly briefed prior to flight on sterile cockpit procedures, evacuation, oxygen use, the selection of personal electronic devices to the off position, and any other information pertinent to the flight.

Answer 81

The priority cutoff for the jumpseat will be 15 minutes prior to departure (i.e. a junior pilot reports 55 minutes prior to departure, then a senior pilot arrives 10 minutes prior). The junior pilot will get the jumpseat.

Answer 82

Jumpseat Priority United Express Flights (Mesa operated) 1) Mesa pilots D.O.H. 2) Mesa dispatchers D.O.H.* 3) United Express / United Airlines / Continental Airlines pilots T.O.C. 4) OAL pilots T.O.C. 5) United Express / United Airlines / Continental Airlines dispatchers T.O.C. 6) OAL dispatchers T.O.C. * Dispatchers may only bump pilots when doing their required FAA observation rides. The following are not authorized to occupy the Flight Deck jumpseat on international flights: a. Mesa Airlines, Inc. pilots who are not conducting company business. b. Mesa Airlines, Inc. maintenance personnel. c. Dispatch personnel. d. Pilots, dispatchers, or maintenance personnel of other airlines.

Answer 83

The crew is notified of dangerous goods, the PIC must advise Dispatch via ACARS or telephone of the contents.

Answer 84

Comail and Comat used as ballast must be counted as actual weight and recorded only as “Comail” or “Comat”.

Answer 85

Service animals and the passenger may not be seated in an exit seat. Service animals may need to be in a person’s lap to perform a service and therefore may sit in that person’s lap for all phases of flight including ground movement, take off and landing provided that the service animal is no larger than a lap-held child (a child who has not reached his or her second birthday).

Answer 86

Aircraft engines must never be operated or running during fuel servicing (also referred to as “Hot Refueling”). All engines must be shut down during fueling. The APU should not be started or shutdown intentionally during refueling. Should an auto shutdown occur ground power should be connected to continue or stop the refueling and restart the APU if possible. Can the cabin door be closed if the aircraft is still being fueled? No. At all times during fueling with passengers onboard the aircraft, a means of egress must be available and maintained. When at the gate, the main cabin door must remain open and the jetbridge or airstairs connected, or the door-stairs and handrails extended, if equipped. External power should not be connected or disconnected during fuel servicing. In the event of a medium or large fuel spill: 1. The fueler will alert the crew to evacuate during a spill or fire.

Answer 87

Both the captain and first officer shall verify that personal electronic devices are selected to the OFF position during taxi, takeoff, landing and operations other than cruise below 10,000 feet MSL. If it becomes necessary to contact Dispatch or Maintenance Control while taxing, the crew is permitted to use an electronic device provided the airplane is not in motion. Both crewmembers must verify the electronic device is selected to the OFF position before the airplane is allowed to taxi.

Answer 88

When directed by MedLink, contents of the EEMK may be accessed. In the event that MedLink cannot be contacted, the flight attendant may access the blue airways compartment of the EEMK.

Answer 89

Other than the flight attendants, Mesa Airlines, Inc. restricts the use of the EEMK to a licensed MD, DO or licensed medical professional. Proper identification and credentials of the medical professional must be documented by the medical professional on forms located within the EEMK.

Answer 90

E-175: Overhead bin, row 24, aircraft left.

Answer 91

The flight attendant will ensure that the AED is sealed. If seal is not present or if the seal is broken, the flight attendant will notify the PIC and take inventory of the AED contents. If all contents are present, re-seal with the seal located in the Fly-Away kit.

Answer 92

E. Positioning Flights The purpose of a positioning flight is to relocate an airworthy aircraft for future use. If a positioning flight is operated between cities regularly served by Mesa Airlines, Inc., customers may be carried. If revenue is generated during the flight, the flight must be operated under FAR Part 121. If revenue is not generated, the flight will be operated under FAR Part 91 and the remarks section of the release will be annotated “FAR Part 91 flight”. If the flight is operated under Part 91, the PIC must ensure System Operations Control and Crew Scheduling are provided the out, off, on and in times. F. All Other Non-Revenue Flights All ferry flights, non-revenue positioning and training flights shall be operated in accordance with Part 91 Flight Rules. System Operations Control will issue a release for these flights. Time will be allowed for a pre-flight briefing regarding the flight for any persons who will occupy the flight deck seats and their roles.

Answer 93

During all flight time, which commences at taxi (movement of aircraft under its own power) and ends when the aircraft is parked at the gate, no flight crewmember may use, nor may any PIC permit the use of, a personal wireless communications device (as defined in 49 U.S.C. 44732(d)) or laptop computer while at a flight crewmember duty station unless the purpose is directly related to operation of the aircraft, or for emergency, safety-related or employment-related communications, in accordance with approved air carrier procedures. 2. The PIC may allow the use of PEDs by individuals who occupy the flight deck jumpseat at the appropriate times. Regulations allow for the use of small Portable Electronic Devices (PEDs) during all phases of flight to include taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, landing and taxi to the gate. Portable electronic devices must be in airplane mode and not able to transmit or receive signals. Larger items over two pounds (laptops, etc.) must be stowed prior to closing the main cabin door until reaching 10,000 feet and after descending through 10,000 feet until the aircraft is at the gate. Portable electronic devices cannot be unsecured (must be hand held or secured, not loose or on the seat beside them). The flight attendants must ensure that cords or accessories do not impede emergency egress. Electronic devices prohibited for use at any time during all phases of flight are radios, televisions, remote control and GPS devices.

Answer 94

On E-175 the control button is located in the FWD galley above the PRA system. 1. Aircraft with Wi-Fi installed have an automatic system which enables data above 10,000 feet and automatically disables data below 10,000 feet. 2. The Wi-Fi is always on and enabled. When on, ON is illuminated green. When off, OFF is illuminated white. The flight attendant(s) will notify the captain prior to turning system on any time it has been turned off. Wi-Fi is intended for passenger use only. All crewmembers are strictly forbidden to use Wi-Fi while on duty.

Answer 95

Batteries not installed in electronic devices are not permitted in checked baggage. The rule limits passengers to not more than two large spare rechargeable lithium-ion batteries in carry-on baggage. Carry-on baggage containing lithium-ion batteries which do not fit in the cabin must never be moved to the cargo compartment.

Answer 96

Never. A crewmember will always open and close the main cabin door with the exception of the E-JET where the door is opened by ground personnel and closed by the flight attendant.

Answer 97

Flight crews shall ensure their OUT, OFF, ON and IN (OOOI) times have been transmitted to SOC within 15 minutes of the triggering event. This will allow System Operations Control, Station Operations and Mesa Airlines, Inc. partners to better ascertain the status of all flight operations.

Answer 98

Whenever surface visibility is <1200 RVR, flight crews must follow the taxi routes and procedures depicted on the appropriate Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) charts for the airport (if available). They will be addressed at two levels; operations < 1200 to 600 RVR and < 600 RVR. SMGCS charts are found in the Jeppesen manual when applicable. 3. In any case, during low visibility taxi (< 1200 RVR), adhere to the following procedures: a. All crewmembers (including jumpseat riders), will be heads up during aircraft movement. b. System checks and tests which are normally accomplished during taxi, should be accomplished while the aircraft is stationary. Maximize holding time on a ramp or taxiway to efficiently complete required task. c. All crewmembers must be familiar with the taxi route prior to aircraft movement. If in doubt, stop the aircraft and query ATC.

Answer 99

RWSL tell pilots and vehicle operators to stop when runways are not safe. Embedded in the pavement of runways and taxiways the lights automatically turn red when other traffic makes it dangerous to enter, cross, or begin takeoff. Flight crews must not ignore the illuminated red in-pavement RWSLs when issued a clearance by ATC. Illuminated RWSLs mean that aircraft/ vehicles must stop or remain stopped and contact ATC for further direction relaying to ATC that the RWSLs are illuminated.

Answer 100

Keep other crewmembers in the loop by announcing when going “heads down” and also reporting “back up – are there any changes?”

Answer 101

If cleared to “Line Up and Wait,” turn on all exterior lights, except landing lights. When “Cleared For Takeoff,” turn on all exterior lights, including landing lights.

Answer 102

A rejected takeoff above 80 knots is recommended for items such as a configuration warning, any indication of fire, engine failure, thrust reverser deployment or the perception that the aircraft is unsafe, unable to fly or will collide with another aircraft. If the rejection was due to an EICAS message or anything aircraft related a maintenance write up is required. If a rejection was due to non aircraft related issues a write up is not required. However, an occurrence report is always required for a rejected takeoff. A rejected takeoff above 80 knots is not recommended solely for illumination of a MASTER CAUTION light, blown tire or nose gear vibration.

Answer 103

Weather minimums used for takeoff will in no case be less than the minimums specified in the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications. (Standard conditions for takeoff under FAR 121 flight rules (two engines) are one statute mile visibility or 5000 feet Runway Visual Range (RVR).) If actual weather conditions at the departure airport are below these minimums, takeoff may be accomplished providing actual weather conditions comply with the “Lower than Standard” take off criteria set forth in Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications. The certificate holder is authorized to use lower than standard takeoff minima in accordance with limitations and provisions of the operations specifications.

Answer 104

Runway Visual Range (RVR) Requirements: RVR reports, when available for a particular runway, shall be used for all takeoff operations on that runway. All takeoff operations, based on RVR, must use RVR reports from locations along the runway as follows: 1. For operations at or above RVR 1600 (500m): a. The touchdown zone (TDZ) RVR report, if available, is controlling. b. The mid RVR report may be substituted for an unavailable TDZ report. 2. For operations below RVR 1600 (500m) a. A minimum of two operative RVR reporting systems are required. b. All available RVR reports are controlling. Extremely long runways (e.g., DEN 16R) utilize four RVR sensors: TDZ, mid, rollout and far end. When a fourth far-end RVR value is reported, it is not controlling and is not to be used as one of the two required operative RVR systems. TDZ RVR 1600 (500m) (beginning of takeoff roll) or visibility or Runway Visibility Value (RVV) 1/4 statute mile, provided one of the following visual aids are available: 1) High intensity runway lights (HIRL) 2) Operative runway centerline (CL) lights 3) Serviceable runway centerline marking (RCLM) In circumstances when none of the above visual aids are available, visibility or RVV 1/4 statute mile may still be used, provided other runway markings or runway lighting provide pilots with adequate visual reference to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control throughout the takeoff roll. For operations below RVR 1600 (500m), a minimum of two operative RVR reporting systems are required. All available RVR reports are controlling, except a far-end RVR report, which is advisory only. The certificate holder authorizations listed in the table above are dependent upon the following criteria: 1) TDZ RVR 1200 (350m) (beginning of takeoff roll), mid-RVR 1200 (350m) (if installed) and rollout RVR 1000 (300m), if authorized, may be used provided RVR equipment and one of the following visual aids combinations are available: a) Daylight Hours: Serviceable RCLM or HIRL or operative CL lights. b) Night Time Hours: HIRL or operative runway CL lights. 2) TDZ RVR 1000 (300m) (beginning of takeoff roll), mid-RVR 1000 (300m) (if installed) and rollout RVR 1000 (300m), if authorized, may be used provided RVR equipment and one of the following visual aids combinations are available: a) Operative runway CL lights, or b) HIRL and serviceable RCLM. 3) TDZ RVR 600 (175m) (beginning of takeoff roll), mid-RVR 600 (175m) (if installed) and rollout RVR 600 (175m), or TDZ RVR 500 (150m) (beginning of takeoff roll), mid-RVR 500 (150m) (if installed) and rollout RVR 500 (150m), if authorized, may be used provided RVR equipment and all of the following visual aids are available. a) HIRL. b) Operative runway CL lights.

Answer 105

On E-JET aircraft, the sterile cockpit signal will be generated with a single tone, achieved by turning the Sterile switch to off position. The flight attendant(s) shall remain seated until 10,000 feet MSL, unless briefed otherwise by the PIC. The critical phase of flight is reentered when descending through 10,000 feet MSL. On E-JET aircraft, the PM will turn the Sterile switch on, which will generate a single tone.

Answer 106

Technique for RA flying .82 Mach - Pitch 2deg 250kts below 10k - Pitch 4deg Approach below 200kts - pitch 5-7deg

Answer 107

To achieve the required vertical rate (normally 1,500 feet per minute climb or descent) first adjust the aircraft's pitch using the suggested guidelines shown in the table below then refer to the VSI and make all necessary pitch adjustments to place the VSI in the green arc: For the TCAS to provide safe vertical separation initial VS response is required within five seconds of when the RA is first displayed. Evasive maneuvering must be limited to the minimum required to comply with the RA. Excessive responses to RAs are not desirable or appropriate because of other potential traffic and ATC consequences. From level flight, proper response to an RA typically results in an overall altitude deviation of 300 to 500 feet in order to successfully resolve a traffic conflict. If a TCAS RA response requires deviation from an ATC clearance, expeditiously return to the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is resolved, the TCAS “clear of conflict” message is heard or follow any subsequent change to clearance as advised by ATC.

Answer 108

Pilots are encouraged to exercise manual flying skills during low workload situations. Some examples are: flying into or out of an outstation, flying a visual approach at any airport. RNAV departures and arrivals, RVSM, etc. must still be flown with the autopilot engaged.

Answer 109

During non-critical phases of the flight, and not below 10,000 feet mean sea level (msl), one crewmember at a time may leave the flight station for physiological needs only. Such absence from the flight deck will be as brief as possible. If a crewmember leaves the flight deck above FL 410, the other crewmember will don and use the oxygen mask.

Answer 110

The flight crew will monitor VHF emergency frequency (121.5 MHz), except when carrying out communications on other VHF channels, or when airborne equipment limitations or flight deck duties do not permit simultaneous guarding of two channels.

Answer 111

ARINC Air-to-Ground Voice Network 1. Mesa Airlines, Inc. is authorized access to the ARINC domestic air to ground voice network. This is accomplished by calling an ARINC operations center on the appropriate frequency for the area in which the aircraft is currently operating. The ARINC VHF radio network chart located in the aircraft lists all appropriate frequencies. When contacting the ARINC operator provide call sign. This service should only be used for non-routine matters related to the operation of the aircraft.

Answer 112

For aircraft equipped with an operable ACARS unit, the “free text” function should be utilized as the primary transmission method for all pertinent communication matters relating to the flight.

Answer 113

Function of the Selective Calling System (SELCAL) is similar to an ordinary paging device. SELCAL hardware alerts an aircraft’s flight crew of an incoming radio transmission without requiring the flight crew to continuously monitor voice transmissions on that radio frequency. The hardware consists of a ground based audio tone encoding device and an aircraft installed decoder that monitors the audio output of both COM radios. The ground-based audio tone encoding device transmits a duplex tone code corresponding to the four letter SELCAL designation of the desired aircraft decoder. When the aircraft decoder receives its unique tone code, an alert tone (chime) and flashing lights are activated thus alerting the flight crew. Decoder reception and alerts operate regardless of flight crew volume selection, thus precluding the need for the flight crew to continuously monitor the radio frequency. The flight crew is responsible to tune the appropriate radio frequency for the geographical area in which the flight is operating to ensure reception of a SELCAL page. Flight crews in aircraft with operating ACARS are not required to have SELCAL in the active frequency but are encouraged to do so as a backup. However, when ACARS is inoperative or on aircraft without SELCAL installed, the crews must comply with the item above. In aircraft without SELCAL installed, the appropriate ARINC frequency will be monitored at all times during cruise flight without operative ACARS.

Answer 114

The “No Smoking” sign will remain illuminated at all times. The “Fasten Seat Belt” sign will be illuminated at all times except: 1. When the aircraft has come to a complete and final stop at a boarding gate, the left engine has been shut down and it is safe for passengers to start deplaning. 2. Inflight cruise altitudes when smooth air conditions are met and expected to continue. 3. At the discretion of the PIC during extended ground delays. In the event the PIC turns off the seat belt sign in-flight, the appropriate announcement is made by the PIC, SIC or Flight Attendants: “Ladies and Gentlemen, the captain has turned off the seat belt sign; however, when in your seat, we recommend for your added safety that you keep your seat belt securely fastened.” When leaving cruising altitude and beginning a gradual descent, the Pilot Monitoring (PM) shall ensure that the fasten seat belt sign is illuminated and indicate that the cabin must be secured for landing by issuing the following PA announcement: “Flight attendant(s) please secure the cabin for arrival.” In addition and time/work load permitting, the flight crewmember who advises the flight attendant(s) to secure the cabin shall first provide the arrival airport conditions (weather, gate assignment, etc.), flight progress (ETA) and any other specific information that furthers good customer service. A friendly, informal and cordial tone should be used at all times. Do not begin a message with “Your attention, please” or other such phrases unless immediate attention of all cabin occupants is needed.

Answer 115

When operating an aircraft below 2500 feet AGL, vertical speed should not exceed 1500 FPM to restrict rates of descent for the purposes of reducing terrain closure rate and increasing recognition/response time in the event of an unintentional conflict with terrain.

Answer 116

1. Flights will be stabilized by 1,000 feet HAT. 2. An approach is considered to be stable when all of the following conditions are met: a. All appropriate briefings and checklists have been accomplished. b. The aircraft is in the planned landing configuration. (The planned landing configuration is gear down and locked, final landing flaps, and flight spoilers are retracted.) c. The aircraft is on the correct track. The correct track includes normal maneuvering required to align with the final approach course. In VMC conditions this may include turns below 1,000 feet (HAT) but must be aligned by 500 feet (HAT). However, all of the criteria for stabilized approach must be met by 1,000 feet (HAT). d. The aircraft is not more than the planned approach speed +10 KIAS, while correcting to the proper speed, and not less than VREF. Adjustments may be made for ground speed when applicable. Momentary excursions (deviations which last only a few seconds with every indication that it will return to a stabilized criteria) are acceptable. e. The power setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration. At no point except for rollout and flare should the thrust levers be reduced to idle below 1,000 feet AGL. If this occurs then a go- around is mandatory. f. The rate of descent is no greater than 1,000 fpm. If an expected rate of descent greater than 1,000 fpm. is planned, a special approach briefing should be performed. If an unexpected sustained rate of descent greater than 1,000 fpm. is encountered during the approach, a missed approach or go- around should be performed. g. After glidepath intercept, or after the FAF, the pilot flying (PF) requires no more than normal corrections to maintain the correct track and desired profile to landing within the touchdown zone. Normal bracketing corrections relate to bank angle of not more than 30°, rate of descent ±300 fpm. deviation from target, and power management in the range required to maintain a constant rate of descent and speed. Normal bracketing corrections occasionally involve momentary overshoots made necessary by atmospheric conditions. Such overshoots are acceptable. Frequent or sustained overshoots caused by poor pilot technique are not normal bracketing corrections. E. Stabilized Approach Requirements 1. At 1,000 feet AGL if the criteria in Stabilized Approach Criteria are not met then a go-around shall be executed unless: a. The proper speed is not met but can reasonably be expected to be achieved by 500 feet AGL (VMC conditions only) and the power is set appropriately. 2. The PM will verify the Stabilized Approach Criteria and if all conditions are met will call “1000 feet above _____, stabilized” (visual or instrument approaches). If conditions are not met the PM will call “1,000 feet, go- around.” 3. The PM should call out any deviations approaching 1,000' HAT to help mitigate the necessity of a go-around.

Answer 117

When operating on the ground, all Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft will illuminate, at a minimum, position and anticollision lights. Turn on all exterior lighting when crossing any runway. While inflight, the PIC (Pilot-in-Command) shall consider illuminating all lights practical while operating in congested airspace and while below 10,000 feet MSL.

Answer 118

No. Category II approaches are not authorized without an operating control tower. Single engine Category II approaches are not authorized.

Answer 119

Use of landing lights during Category II approaches, particularly at night, significantly reduces contrast. This can make identification of required visual elements difficult, if not impossible. It is recommended that the landing lights and taxi lights to remain off for all Category II approaches until desired for landing. High ambient light levels on the flight deck reduce contrast and make identification of required visual elements difficult. Flight deck lighting should not be set brighter than is required for instrument legibility.

Answer 120

CAT II Inner Marker An Inner Marker must be installed to assist in the determination of DH. The Inner Marker may be inoperative for operations at or above 1600 RVR or for aircraft with operative radar altimeters.

Answer 121

No High Minimums Captain may conduct a Category II approach, except with a company check pilot who is authorized to conduct Category II operations. Qualifications/Currency Both pilots must be currently Category II qualified.

Answer 122

Category C Landing minimums are based on the Aircraft Approach Category, a grouping of aircraft based on a speed of 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight. An aircraft shall only fit in one category. However, if it is necessary to maneuver at speeds in excess of the upper limit of speed range for a category, the minimums for the next higher category shall be used. For example, a category B aircraft circling to land at a speed greater than 121 KTS shall use the approach category C minimums for landing.

Answer 123

When thunderstorms are in the vicinity of the airport, the interphone system used for ground-to-flight deck communications during pushback is not to be used. Applicable ground personnel will advise the crew that the interphone system will not be used and that appropriate hand signals will apply. Prior to initiating a pushback without interphone communications, the Captain must advise the controlling agency (Ramp Control, Ground Control, etc.) that pushback will be conducted with hand signals and changes to holding positions are not feasible during the pushback without sufficient warning. This should alert the controller to provide the aircraft sufficient warning in case the pushback must be stopped enroute. Do not use Silent Push procedures during hand signals only pushbacks.

Answer 124

When clearance is obtained, the PIC will instruct the marshaller, “Nosewheel steering OFF, brakes OFF, you are cleared to push.” The marshaller will respond with, “Cleared to push.” 2. If the start is to be made during the pushback, the marshaller will advise the PIC, “Cleared to start #1 or #2.” The captain will respond, “Starting #1 or #2.” At the discretion of the captain, the first officer should start the engine(s) during pushback or anytime the aircraft is in motion on the ground. If the start is made after pushback is complete, at the end of pushback, the marshaller will advise, “Set brakes and cleared to start #1 or #2.” PIC will respond, “Brakes ON, starting #1 or #2.” 3. When complete, the marshaller will state, “Towbar/ Lektro disconnected, area being cleared” (if applicable). 4. The PIC will advise marshaller, “Cleared to disconnect interphone.” Marshaller will state, “Disconnecting interphone.” The PIC will give the thumbs up or flash the taxi light once when ready to taxi. Marshaller will visually clear the area and give departure salute indicating to the PIC that it is clear to taxi. PIC will flash the taxi light three times if necessary to recall marshaller to the interphone.

Answer 125

In the event an engine must be started at the gate for operational purposes, the following procedure will apply: 1. Marshaller will advise the PIC, “Set brakes, all secure below.” This indicates all doors closed, chocks are removed, loading bridge retracted, and/or plane mate(s) clear. 2. When ready to start engines, the PIC will state, “Brake set. I would like to start #1 or #2.” The marshaller will ensure that the area is clear then state, “Cleared to start #1 or #2.” The right (#2) engine will not be started with the cargo door open. 3. The PIC will advise the marshaller when to disconnect external power and/or external air supply. 4. After external power and/or external air supply is removed, marshaller will advise the PIC, “All secure below, loading bridge retracted and the ramp is clear.” When ready to pushback, the PIC will check the door alerts extinguished, then obtain the pushback clearance where required. At this time the crew will follow appropriate pushback procedure as advised in this section.

Answer 126

Baggage may be loaded in the baggage compartments when the left (#1) engine is running or being started. If the right (#2) engine is running baggage may not be loaded.

Answer 127

Flight crews may elect to conduct ground operations with the right engine running continuously. This operation will be referred to as a Single-Engine Turn. Prior coordination with the station is required. During the in-range call flight crews will notify Station Operations that a single-engine turn is requested. Station Operations will acknowledge and relay any special requirements or restrictions. The following restrictions will always apply to single-engine ground operations: Any time an aircraft engine is operating, at least one flight crewmember must be seated in a pilot seat monitoring the ramp operations for potential emergencies. The crewmember will immediately shut down the engine when there is any risk of injury or damage. Crews will brief danger areas prior to exiting aircraft. Refueling/defueling with engine(s) operating (Hot Fueling) operations are prohibited.

Answer 128

The Safedock Advanced-Visual Docking System (A-VDGS) provides both pilots with guidance for maneuvering aircraft into the gate to the correct lead-in-line and stop bar/line under all operational conditions. Safedock includes a built-in computer integrated to a low-intensity infrared laser that scans the gate area for the approaching aircraft.

Answer 129

No. Low pressure air from an A/C cart is being utilized to condition an aircraft cabin without the auxiliary power unit (APU) or an engine running, and if cabin doors and flaps are closed, the cabin may pressurize since the flight crew cannot control the cabin outflow valves without the APU or an engine. Given these conditions, some cabin doors can still be opened on the ground, even if significant differential pressure exists between the cabin and the outside atmosphere. If a door is opened when significant differential pressure is present, the internal air pressure may accelerate the door opening, possibly ejecting or striking and injuring the person opening or standing close to the door. Flight crew and ground crew personnel should leave at least one airplane door or flap open when an A/C cart is providing heated or cooled air to the cabin, to prevent cabin pressurization.

Answer 130

The PIC is responsible for ensuring an adequate and vigilant postflight inspection is completed prior to departing from duty. Particular attention will be made to aircraft tires, control surfaces and/or any aircraft damage. Any discrepancy will be called into maintenance control and logged in the AML.

Answer 131

Summer temperatures can cause aircraft interiors to surpass acceptable levels when not adequately cooled. An inoperative APU inhibits aircraft cooling when on the ground because the packs cannot be used to cool the cabin. Ground conditioned air is recommended when temperatures exceed 75° F, especially when the APU is inoperative and cannot power the pack air. Conditioned air may be supplied by an air conditioning cart or by a loading bridge air hook-up.

Answer 132

B. Each dispatcher has, according to FAR 121.533: 1. Co-responsibility with the pilot-in-command (PIC) to dispatch and operate any flight in accordance with applicable regulations. 2. Responsibility to delay or cancel any flight which, in the dispatcher’s judgment, should be delayed or canceled. 3. Responsibility to initiate a change in release when, in the dispatcher’s opinion, such a change is in the interest of safety or an improved operation. 4. Responsibility to reroute or redirect a flight as necessary. This may include, but is not limited to, instructions pertaining to special routings, passenger convenience, aircraft and crew utilization. In these cases, PICs will comply with all instructions and requests of the dispatcher which are compatible with safety.

Answer 133

a. Upon discovery, the PIC will contact the dispatcher and provide information concerning the discrepancy and/or possible delay. If a discrepancy is discovered by a mechanic, the mechanic will notify Maintenance Control who will advise dispatch that the aircraft is out of service. Refer to Chapter 9 for procedures on documenting discrepancy in the Aircraft Maintenance Logbook. b. The dispatcher will transfer, conference or direct the PIC to Maintenance Control. If a flight delay is expected the dispatcher will contact the Aircraft Router who will advise the station of a possible delay. The Aircraft Router will normally get this information by monitoring the aircraft plot. c. Maintenance Control will issue a control number to the PIC/ mechanic. Maintenance Control and the PIC/mechanic will determine the course of action. d. The PIC will contact Dispatch to amend the release if a discrepancy is deferred and/or for operational considerations. e. If a discrepancy is to be repaired, Maintenance Control will coordinate the repair process and will advise dispatch that the aircraft is Out-of-Service. This would normally be accomplished via an Out-of-Service bar unless special circumstances require direct communication. f. Upon completion of a repair, Maintenance Control shall advise dispatch that the discrepancy is cleared and lift the Out-of-Service bar. g. The PIC will confirm with dispatch that the aircraft is cleared. An Aircraft Router will advise the gate/station that the aircraft has been returned to service The PIC will immediately and directly report any factor which may delay a flight. The dispatcher will be responsible for coordinating corrective actions with the Aircraft Router, crew scheduling etc., for possible solutions and communications.

Answer 134

1. In the event of an equipment or instrument failure after the aircraft has left the gate or ramp area but prior to takeoff, the pilot in command (PIC) must communicate the discrepancy to dispatch and maintenance control. 2. The PIC, dispatcher and Maintenance Control will determine an appropriate course of action before the flight is allowed to continue operations. a. If the discrepancy reported requires a maintenance action or repair to be carried out, the aircraft must return to the gate. b. If the PIC, dispatcher and Maintenance Control, by reference to the approved aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Configuration Deviation List (CDL), determine that the MEL or CDL allows for continued operation under acceptable meteorological or operational restrictions and does not require any type of maintenance action, the PIC may continue operations after completing the Corrective Action block in the AML under guidance from Maintenance Control.

Answer 135

The DOT has issued a new rule to reduce lengthy tarmac delays. This rule requires Mesa Airlines, Inc. as a carrier, to provide food and water and other necessities to passengers during lengthy tarmac delays, and deplane passengers when possible before the tarmac delay reaches three hours for domestic flights and four hours for international flights (subject to certain exceptions). We are also required to submit to the Office of Aviation Consumer Protection of the U.S. Department of Transportation a written description of each of the flights we operate that experiences a tarmac delay of more than three hours (on domestic flights) and more than four hours (on international flights) at a U.S. airport no later than 30 days after the tarmac delay occurs.

Answer 136

Aircraft Communications Addressing and Report System (ACARS): A digital data link system for transmission of short, relatively simple messages between aircraft and ground stations via radio or satellite.

Answer 137

Extended Delay Kit (EDK): A Mesa Airlines, Inc. kit comprising of various snack items and water to be offered to passengers during an extended delay. This kit meets the requirements of the DOT regulation.

Answer 138

Proactively manage taxi–out delays to minimize ground holds of more than two hours and prevent those over three hours. 2. Proactively manage taxi–in delays to minimize ground holds of more than 60 minutes and prevent those of over three hours. 3. Proactively manage diversions to prevent those of over three hours on the ground at the diversion station.

Answer 139

IF A FLIGHT RETURNS TO THE GATE FOR ANY REASON (EX. FUEL, LAV) AN ANNOUNCEMENT MUST BE MADE GIVING CUSTOMERS THE OPPORTUNITY TO DEPLANE.

Answer 140

Every 15min

Answer 141

Once the delay reaches 90min AND BEFORE 120min

Answer 142

Dispatch Release Both the flight crew and System Operations Control will obtain a weather briefing prior to all flight operations. Current weather is available on Mesa Airlines, Inc. computer systems, direct/indirect links to the National Weather Service, from Flight Service stations, AWOS facilities and/or Contract Weather Services through System Operations Control.

Answer 143

1. ETA differs more than 15 minutes from ETA at takeoff or last revised ETA. 2. Aircraft deviates more than 100 nautical miles (NM) from flight plan. 3. Cruise altitude varies by 4000 feet or more from flight planned altitude. 4. Significant changes to the planned vertical or horizontal path of the aircraft jeopardizing fuel over destination. 5. Weather conditions are encountered which may affect the safety or conduct of other flights; including: a. Moderate or severe icing. b. Moderate or severe turbulence. c. Winds aloft values, or other operational factors, which vary significantly from the flight plan assumptions. B. When any of the items listed above are communicated to System Operations Control, the dispatcher will evaluate the fuel requirements and establish a new fuel plan, if required. In all cases, the PIC and dispatcher must agree to any changes. C. In cases of emergency, the PIC will advise the dispatcher as soon as practical of any deviation from the proposed route of flight or destination airport.

Answer 144

Under normal operations, the dispatch release is transmitted via SABRE to the flight crew. The dispatch release is queued 90-120 minutes prior to scheduled departure time; however, under certain circumstances the transmission time may be different.

Answer 145

System Operations Control will issue a new dispatch release or will revalidate a previously issued release: A. Before a flight departs an originating station after a delay of more than two hours from the proposed departure time in the air traffic control flight plan. B. Upon being notified by the PIC the aircraft has been returned to service following a maintenance out of service event. At departure airports, a new or amended release will be required if any flight information or minimum fuel changes or if significant weather changes occur. New dispatch release will be issued at the discretion of the PIC or the dispatcher of the flight. C. At intermediate stops, a new or amended release will be required if any flight information or minimum fuel has changed, or if the flight is delayed for more than one hour. D. In the event of an abnormal situation or equipment failure in which performance may be affected, the PIC shall contact SOC for recalculated performance data.

Answer 146

General header information a. Heading - Attention crew ASH (Air Shuttle) flight number. b. Document Information - Release number, time and date prepared. c. Statement of Document Type - DISPATCH RELEASE/IFR. d. Dispatcher Desk and Phone Number - 10/602-685-4198. e. Document ID - Computer generated sequence number/flight number.

Answer 147

Payload Information a. Passenger Only - Planned Passengers and Payload Information 1) Passengers booked – 79 The number of passengers booked is automatically generated by the respective reservation system. 2) Maximum payload – 16717 lbs The maximum payload is the most restrictive (least) weight derived from the following two calculations: a) MAXPL = MZFW - BOW. b) MAXPL = MTOW - (BOW + (MIN FUEL + EXTRA FUEL)). 3) Passenger and Bags – PAX 75 / BAGS 81 a) These two numbers are generated by using a ratio of 1.5 bags per passenger and provide planning information; they do not represent what the flight will actually carry. Passengers will be reduced when necessary to provide a minimum of a 1.0 bag per passenger ratio but the combination of the two will be equal to or less than the Maximum Payload. b. Cargo Only - Payload Information Cargo only flights will include a Maximum Payload number in pounds. Passengers booked, PAX and BAGS will remain blank.

Answer 148

Aircraft configuration This section provides configuration information specific to this aircraft. a. Tail Number - 934 (some aircraft have “M” tail numbers for the American Airlines FOS system to avoid duplicates - MJB). b. Aircraft Type - CL600-2D24. c. Engine Type - CF34-8C5. d. Aircraft Registration Number - N934FJ.

Answer 149

Operational restrictions a. MEL(s) applicable - MEL number, description, expiration date. b. CDL(s) applicable - CDL number, description, expiration date. c. NEF(s) applicable - NEF number, description, expiration date.

Answer 150

a. Aircraft Plot Information - Next scheduled flight information for this aircraft. b. Remarks added by the dispatcher, Takeoff/En Route/Landing Analysis computer generated remarks that indicate nonstandard takeoff, en route, or landing conditions, aircraft specific remarks

Answer 151

a. Scheduled departure station IATA identifier and departure time UTC/local. b. Scheduled arrival station IATA identifier and arrival time UTC/local.

Answer 152

Fuel information a. Planned fuel (PLN FUEL) - 14,942 lbs. PLN FUEL is the quantity of fuel that was planned to be on the aircraft prior to engine start and is calculated as follows: ENROUTE + HOLD + ALT (alternate) + RESERVE + EXTRA + TAXI. b. Minimum Fuel (MIN FUEL) - 13,842 lbs. MIN FUEL is the minimum quantity of fuel that must be on the aircraft prior to brake release on the takeoff roll and is calculated as follows: ENROUTE + HOLD + ALT (alternate) + RESERVE. c. Planned Payload (PLD) - 16,717 lbs. 1) (Passenger Only) PLD is calculated as follows: (PAX BOOKED x Avg. Pax Weight) + ((PAX BOOKED * 1.5) x Avg. Bag Weight). If the1.5 bags per passenger ratio can not be maintained because it exceeds the MAXPL, the PLD (Planned Payload) will be equal to the MAXPL. 2) (Cargo Only) PLD is calculated as follows: Average daily payload for each leg based on three month historical record plus 5,000 pounds of additional cargo. d. Planned Zero Fuel Weight (PZFW) - 64,450 lbs. PZFW is calculated by the following: PZFW = BOW + PLD. e. Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) - 70,000 lbs. f. Maximum Landing Weight (MLDW) - 73,500 lbs.

Answer 153

Origin, destination and alternate information a. Departure Station ICAO Identifier - KPHX. b. Takeoff Alternate ICAO Identifier (if required) - KTUS. c. Destination Station ICAO Identifier - KAUS.

Answer 154

Payload and weight information a. Planned Payload (PLD) – 16,717 lbs. b. Planned Zero Fuel Weight (PZFW) – 64,450 lbs. PZFW is calculated by the following: PZFW = BOW + PLD. c. Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) – 70,000 lbs. d. Maximum Landing Weight (MLDW) – 73,500 lbs.

Answer 155

ATC flight plan information a. Domestic operations 1) Air Shuttle Flight Number - ASH2889. 2) Flight Rules and Type of Flight - IS (I is for IFR, S is for scheduled air service). 3) Aircraft make and model - CRJ 900. 4) ICAO Wake Turbulence Category-/M a) /H- Heavy (300,000 lbs or more). b) /M- Medium (Greater than 15,500 lbs and less than 300,000 lbs). c) /L- Light. 5) Equipment - SDGRW/S, where: a) S - Standard NAV/COM/Approach Aid equipment is available and serviceable i. ILS. ii. ADF (CRJ/B-737 only). iii. VOR. iv. VHF. b) G-GPS. c) R - RNP type certification. d) D-DME. e) W - RVSM certification. f) /S - Transponder with Mode A and Mode C. 6) Departure Airport and Proposed Time (UTC) - KPHX2159. 7) True Airspeed, Cruise Altitude and Route - N0460F330 TFD2 CIE J2 JCT/N0458F350 LLO DCT where: a) N - Knots followed by four digits for the TAS. b) F - Altitude in hundred of feet followed by three digits for the altitude. c) DCT - Designates direct routing between fixes. d) JCT/N0458F350 - Fix followed by speed and/or altitude change at that fix. 8) Destination Airport, Total Flight Time and Alternate Airport - KAUS0157. 9) Other information - Domestic flight plans - RNAV capability a) Aircraft with GPS - PBN/C2D2. b) Aircraft with FMS, but not GPS - PBN/B3B4. c) If the FMS is inop, the PBN/ codes will be removed.

Answer 156

a. Planned taxi weight information Planned Taxi Weight (PTXW) - 79,400 lbs. b. Maximum weight limit information 1) Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) - 79,200 lbs. 2) Limit Code for MTOW - 79.20/O where valid limit codes are as follows: a) F = Field limited weight (takeoff or landing). b) C = Climb limited weight (takeoff or landing). c) O = Obstacle limited weight (takeoff). d) B = Brake Energy limited weight (takeoff or landing). e) T = Tire Speed limited weight (takeoff or landing). f) V = Minimum Control Speed Ground limited weight (takeoff). g) S = Structural limited weight (takeoff or landing). h) E = En Route limited weight (origin to destination or origin to takeoff alternate). i) M = Maximum Fuel Capacity limited weight (volumetric and/or payload/range). c. Planned takeoff weight information 1) Planned Takeoff Weight (PTOW) - 79,200 lbs. 2) Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight (MRTW) - 79,200 lbs where the following default values are used unless otherwise stated in the remarks: a) Dry runway. b) Optimum flaps. c) Bleeds OPEN (CRJ 200 is Bleeds CLOSED). d) Anti-Ice OFF. e) APU OFF (CRJ 200 is APU ON). f) Systems affecting performance are operating (e.g., Anti-skid, Spoilers, etc.). 3) Flap Configuration for MRTW - F08. 4) MRTW Limit Code - O where valid limit codes are as follows: a) F = Field limited weight. b) C = Climb limited weight. c) O = Obstacle limited weight. d) B = Brake Energy limited weight. e) T = Tire Speed limited weight. f) V = Minimum Control Speed Ground limited weight. g) A = AFM limited weight. 5) Wind (KTS) - 0000. 6) Altimeter setting (in. Hg) - 29.92. 7) Temperature (C) - P41 (P = plus and M = minus). 8) Runway - 08.

Answer 157

Planned en route information 1) Maximum En Route Takeoff Weight (METW) Origin to Takeoff Alternate (if required) - TUS METW 85.00/1. 2) Maximum En Route Takeoff Weight (METW) Origin to Destination - METW 85.00/1 (The “/1” indicates that Method 1 was used to derive the weight, “2” indicates that Method 2 was used). 3) The flight planning system chooses the most favorable of either Method 1 or Method 2. Generally, Method 2 provides the highest enroute takeoff weight, but requires the most amount of dispatching oversight. As a result, Method 1 is selected by default, if it is not limiting to the flight plan’s takeoff weight. Ice Protection penalties will be applied whenever the temperatures indicate that anti-ice will be required based on applicable Mesa Airlines, Inc. Company Flight Manual procedures. These penalties are applied based solely on temperature, without regard to the presence or absence of visible moisture. The dispatcher may select all anti-ice off if there is no visible moisture on the route of flight. The following example shows a flight that is weight restricted due to enroute performance. When Method 2 is used, the Summary will include information about the drift down diversion airports and decision points. The summary section only appears for Method 2 (see example below). If an engine failure occurs between the FROM and TO point on each line, the diversion will be to the airport on the right under the DD ALT (Driftdown Alternate) column. In some cases, over longer flights, there may be an additional line for other intermediate points.

Answer 158

Planned Landing Information 1) Maximum Landing Weight (MLDW) - 73,500 lbs where the following default values are used unless otherwise stated in the remarks: a) Dry Runway. b) Bleeds CLOSED. c) Anti-Ice ON. d) No En Route Icing Conditions. e) APUOFF. f) Systems Affecting Performance Are Operating (e.g., Anti-skid, Spoilers, etc.). 2) Planned Landing Weight (PLDW) - 71,500 lbs. 3) Flap Configuration for MLDW - F45. 4) MLDW Limit Code - S where valid limit codes are as follows: a) F = Field limited weight. b) C = Climb limited weight. c) S = Structural limited weight. 5) Wind (KTS) - 0000. 6) Altimeter Setting (in. Hg) - 29.92. 7) Temperature (C) - P33 (P = plus and M = minus). 8) Runway - 35L.

Answer 159

Maximum Quick Turnaround reference information 1) Maximum Quick Turnaround Weight (MQTW) - 085.73. If landing weight exceeds the MQTW, a minimum brake cooling may be required and the applicable CFM procedure shall be complied with. 2) Landing flap configuration - F45.

Answer 160

a. Dispatcher name - DX/ DISPATCHER NAME. b. Dispatcher desk number - 10. c. SOC phone number - 888-634-6372. d. Certificate, employee number, captain name - M001234 CA/ NAME. e. Certificate, employee number, first officer name - M012345 FO/ NAME. f. Certificate, employee number, flight attendant name - M034567 FA/NAME. g. Second flight attendant information (if applicable) - M045678 FA/ NAME. h. Captain signature space.

Answer 161

Fitness for duty (Passenger Only) Each flight crewmember must report for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties. As part of the flight release, each flight crewmember must affirmatively state his/her fitness for duty prior to commencing each and every flight.

Answer 162

Takeoff alternate summary a. Takeoff alternate city ICAO identifier - KTUS. Manual: 410 Page: 7.39 Revision: 35 Date: 10/15/21 b. Takeoff alternate fuel burn (x1000lb.) - 1,853 lbs. c. Enroute flight time Origin to Takeoff Alternate in hours and minutes - 0018. d. Route Distance from Origin to Takeoff Alternate (NM) - 0096. e. Average Enroute Wind component (KTS) - T4 (H - Headwind, T - Tailwind). f. Planned Cruise Altitude to the Takeoff Alternate - 19,000 feet. g. Flight Planning System route description to the Takeoff Alternate - DCT. h. The route description will list fixes that were used to calculate the route to the Takeoff Alternate. DCT signifies a direct routing.

Answer 163

Flight plan speed schedules a. CLM - Climb Schedule used in preparation of flight plan. All jet climb schedules are based on 250 KIAS below 10,000 MSL, after which the climb schedule listed under CLM applies. This climb schedule uses the convention of KIAS/MACH for indicated airspeed to the Mach crossover. For example, 290/M74 is 290 KIAS to Mach 0.74. b. HCRZ LCRZ - High and Low altitude cruise schedules used in preparation of flight plan. Cruise schedules can be of four types: KIAS, MACH, Schedule and ECON. If the HCRZ and LCRZ values are specific speeds, these identify normal cruise profile speeds defined in each applicable aircraft type’s CFM (for example the normal cruise speed in the CRJ 200 is 300kts or Mach .74 whichever is the lower indicated airspeed). CI* indicates the flight was planned using a variable Mach cruise/Cost Index schedule. Crews should reference speed guidance from the ACARS Cost Index page or the Takeoff and Landing Report for the applicable speeds to fly at their planned altitude. c. DES - Descent Schedule used in preparation of flight plan. All jet descent schedules are based on 250 KIAS below 10,000 MSL, before which the descent schedule listed under DES applies. This descent schedule uses the convention of MACH/KIAS for Mach to indicated airspeed at the Mach crossover. For example, M74/320 is Mach 0.74 to 320 KIAS.

Answer 164

a. This section contains a summary of flight planned altitudes and where they occur if a step climb is calculated for the flight. Based off the PTOW, altitude selection is optimized for fuel efficiency and climb capability. Crewmembers are responsible for determining when the aircraft is at a weight which will allow a climb to the next planned altitude. b. FL PROFILE - 330 CIE 350 ALIBY 370 In this example the initial cruise altitude is FL330. After passing CIE the aircraft will reach a weight that will allow a climb to FL350 before crossing ALIBY. After passing ALIBY the aircraft will reach a weight that will allow a climb to FL370.

Answer 165

Fuel Summary The Fuel Summary provides a reference for fuel consumption as well as the status of fuel remaining. All fuel quantities are x 1000 lbs and all times are in hours and minutes. a. Enroute – Fuel quantity to be consumed between takeoff and landing including climb, cruise and descent. Based on the planned cruise speed schedule. 1) Enroute Fuel Burn and endurance - 7,702 lbs and 1 hour 57 minutes. 2) Route Distance (NM) - 0813. 3) Average Enroute Wind component (KTS) - T1 (H - Headwind, T - Tailwind) This wind component should not be confused with the FMS wind component summary; this component is for the entire flight including the climb, cruise and descent. 4) Cruise Flight Level - FL330S (S - Step Climb in Flight Plan) FL330 would indicate the entire cruise portion part of the flight was planned at 33,000 feet. FL330S indicates that the initial planned cruise altitude is 33,000 feet and a Step climb is incorporated into the flight plan. b. Hold 1) Holding Fuel and endurance - 1,000 lbs and 18 minutes. 2) Planned Holding Altitude - FL150 In this example 1,000 lbs of hold fuel at 15,000 ft will provide for 18 minutes of holding. c. ALT 1) Alternate City ICAO Identifier - KDFW. 2) Alternate Fuel Burn and endurance - 2,579 lbs and 30 minutes. 3) Route Distance from Destination to Alternate (NM) - 0165. 4) Average Enroute Wind component from Destination to Alternate (KTS) - H10 (H - Headwind, T - Tailwind). 5) Cruise Flight Level to the Alternate - FL170. 6) Flight Planning System route description to the Alternate - DCT. The route description will list fixes that were used to calculate the route to the Destination Alternate. DCT signifies a direct routing. If two alternates are listed, only the burn to the most distant alternate will be added into the total fuel required. d. Reserve Final Reserve Fuel, computed at 45 minutes - 2,561 lbs. e. MIN FUEL 1) Minimum Fuel and endurance of fuel in hours and minutes - 13,842 lbs and three hours 30 minutes. 2) MIN FUEL is the minimum quantity of fuel that must be on the aircraft prior to brake release on the takeoff roll and is calculated by the following: ENROUTE + HOLD + ALT (alternate) + RESERVE. f. EXTRA Extra fuel will be added based on historical fuel data. g. TAXI 1) Taxi Out Fuel and endurance - 200 lbs and 15 minutes. 2) Taxi fuel consumption is calculated for Single Engine Taxi with APU running. The taxi time is based upon the greater of the historic average taxi time for the departure airport at the proposed departure time or a 15 minute taxi. The dispatcher may add more taxi fuel for operations requiring both engines to be used for taxi. h. PLN FUEL 1) Total Planned Fuel Amount - 14,942 lbs. 2) Planned fuel is the sum of ENROUTE, HOLD, ALT, RESERVE, EXTRA and TAXI fuel. This is the quantity that is planned to be on the aircraft prior to engine start.

Answer 166

Burn Factors a. BURN INCREASE/1000LBS 61. For every 1,000 lbs over the planned takeoff weight, the ENROUTE burn will increase by 61 lbs. b. BURN INCREASE/MINUTE 57 For every one minute increase in the enroute flight time, the ENROUTE burn will increase by 57 lbs.

Answer 167

Wind and ISA deviation data These wind and ISA deviation components are to be entered into the FMS for those aircraft that have the capability. a. Average wind components Components are shown for CLB, CRZ and DES. (P - Tailwind, M - Headwind) b. Average temperature deviation The ISA deviation is shown for CLB, CRZ and DES. (P - positive number, M - negative number)

Answer 168

Waypoint summary a. General header information 1) Flight Level - FL. 2) Mach Number - MN. 3) Average Wind between navigation checkpoints (Magnetic Direction and KTS) and Calculated Temperature from International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) (C), P = greater than ISA, M = less than ISA - WIND/ISA. 4) True Airspeed (KTS)/Ground Speed (KTS) - TAS/GS. 5) Fuel Flow (x1000 lbs hr.) - FF. 6) Accumulated Fuel Burn (x1000 lbs) - BURN. 7) Segment Distance (NM) - DIS. 8) Distance To Go (NM) - DTG. 9) Magnetic Course - MAG CRS. 10) Airway Routing/Direct Routing/DP Routing/STAR Routing - RTE. 11) Airway Fix or Checkpoint (Navaid/Waypoint) - WPT. 12) Segment Time in hours and minutes - TIME. 13) Accumulated En Route Time in hours and minutes - ATIM. 14) Estimated Time of Arrival/Actual Time of Arrival (for crew notation) - ETA/ATA. 15) Fuel Remaining (x1000 lbs) - FREM. 16) Actual Fuel Remaining (for crew notation) - ACTUAL FREM.

Answer 169

Climb segment section 1) Flight Level (FL) - CLM is used to indicate climbing through flight levels. 2) Segment Distance (DIS) - Total climb segment distance 131. 3) Magnetic Course (MAG CRS) - 099. 4) Segment Time (TIME) - 0022. 5) Accumulated Fuel Burn (BURN) - 2,500 lbs. 6) Distance To Go (DTG) - 682. 7) Top of Climb - TOC. 8) Accumulated Time of Climb (ATIM) - 0022. 9) Fuel Remaining (FREM) in pounds - 12,200 lbs. The end of the climb segment is defined by the TOC.

Answer 170

1) Flight Level (FL) - 330. 2) WIND/ISA - 00007P12. 3) Fuel Flow - 3,800 lbs/hr. 4) Segment Distance (DIS) - 23 NM. 5) Magnetic Course (MAG CRS) - 099. 6) DP Routing (RTE) - TFD2. 7) Segment Time (TIME) - 0003. 8) Mach Number (MN) - .770. 9) True Airspeed/Ground Speed - 460 KTAS/ 462 KTS. 10) Accumulated Fuel Burn (BURN) - 2,700 lbs. 11) Distance To Go (DTG) - 659 NM. 12) Navaid (WPT) - CIE. 13) Accumulated En Route Time (ATIM) - 0025. 14) Fuel Remaining (FREM) - 12,000 lbs.

Answer 171

Descent segment section 1) Flight Level (FL) - 370. 2) Segment Distance (DIS) - 43. 3) Magnetic Course (MAG CRS) - 069. 4) Partial STAR routing if STAR begins prior to Top of Descent - DCT (Direct). 5) Segment Time (TIME) - 0006. 6) Accumulated Fuel Burn (BURN) - 7,100 lbs. 7) Distance To Go (DTG) - Total descent segment distance 97. 8) Top of Descent - TOD. 9) Accumulated Time at Top of Descent (ATIM) - 0140. 10) Fuel Remaining (FREM) in pounds - 7.6. The beginning of the descent segment is defined by the TOD.

Answer 172

Divert fuel Minimum Diversion Fuel - (Domestic: Alternate Burn + FAR fuel reserve; Flag: Flag Hold + Alternate Burn) MIN DIV FUEL (lbs) - 5,140 lbs.

Answer 173

Flight Crew Notation Section a. Total Flight Time - TTIM 0157. b. Takeoff Time - T/O...... c. Estimated Time of Arrival (TTIM added to Takeoff Time) - ETA KAUS...... d. Arrival Fuel - ARR...... FUEL......

Answer 174

Winds and temperatures section (for en route cruise points) a. Fix/Waypoint Identifiers - CIE/ALIBY. b. Flight Level Applicable to Data Values - FL410 through FL180. c. Wind Direction True - 353. d. Wind Speed (KTS) - 022. e. Temperature (°C) - -58. f. Flight Level of Tropopause at Fix/Waypoint - TROP 520. Winds and temperatures section (for origin and destination) a. ICAO Identifiers - KPHX and KAUS. b. Flight Level Applicable to Data Values - FL070 through FL290. c. Wind Direction True - 131. d. Wind Speed (KTS) - 003. e. Temperature (-C) - +22. f. Flight Level of Tropopause - TROP 490.

Answer 175

The fuel load will consist of the combined amounts of ENROUTE, HOLD, ALTERNATE (when required), RESERVE, EXTRA and TAXI fuel loads which will equal the released PLAN FUEL. The takeoff roll must be commenced prior to reaching a fuel level below planned MIN FUEL (a fuel quantity consisting of only ENROUTE, HOLD, ALTERNATE and FINAL RESERVE fuel). The crew will make every effort to depart with +/- 5% of the PLN FUEL but in no case shall onboard fuel at the OUT event be less than the combination of minimum planned fuel and taxi fuel.

Answer 176

Final reserve fuel is planned in accordance with the Federal Aviation Regulations. No person may dispatch or takeoff an airplane unless it has enough fuel to: 1. Fly to the airport to which it is dispatched. 2. Thereafter, fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (where required) for the airport to which dispatched. 3. Thereafter, fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise fuel consumption. The act of using a portion of the final reserve fuel assigned to a flight is not, in itself, a cause to declare a minimum fuel state with the controlling agency. Regulations require final reserve fuel to enable aircraft to maneuver, due to unforeseen circumstances. Many aircraft arrive safely at their destination having used a portion of the fuel designated as reserve. All Mesa Airlines, Inc. flights operated domestically under Part 121 will be planned to arrive at the destination (or alternate if applicable) airport with at least 60 minutes of fuel onboard.

Answer 177

The PIC shall manage fuel in flight to ensure minimum fuel upon landing will be the greater of the approved minimum quantity or 30 minutes fuel. The PIC will declare “minimum fuel” anytime the flight will land with 45 minutes of fuel or less with further delays possible/imminent. The PIC will declare “minimum fuel” when, in his/her best judgment, any additional delay will result in burning into final reserve fuel. The PIC will declare a “fuel emergency” when, in his/her best judgment, it is necessary to proceed directly to the intended airport, or anytime the onboard fuel is below 30 minutes duration for the condition to be flown. Declaration of a fuel emergency is an explicit statement that priority handling by ATC is necessary and expected.

Answer 178

Index B, C, D, and E (Not A)

Answer 179

1. The Maximum Takeoff Gross Weight based on runway length, gradient, elevation, temperature, obstacle clearance, aircraft structural limitations and wind component. 2. A maximum takeoff weight based on a limiting enroute weight plus the expected fuel burn to that point. The limiting enroute weight is based on either a minimum altitude enroute at a particular point (FAR 121.191 (a)(1)) or by drift down analysis (FAR 121.191 (a)(2)). 3. The maximum takeoff gross weight based on normal fuel burn-off which will permit a landing at either the destination or the alternate at a gross weight not to exceed the maximum landing weight. 4. The maximum takeoff and landing weights may be further restricted by performance losses associated with MELs and CDLs. These adjustments will be noted on the dispatch release. 5. Landing limitations - Turbojets a. The landing weight must be planned such that it allows the aircraft to make a full stop landing at the intended destination within 60% of the effective length of each runway described below from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. b. Wet or slippery runways require that the landing runway has an effective length of at least 115% of the 60% distance required above. c. The landing weight must be planned such that it allows the aircraft to make a full stop landing at any alternate airport listed on the dispatch release within 60% of the effective length from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. d. A landing performance alternate that meets all the requirements of this section must be listed on the dispatch release if a turbojet powered airplane is otherwise prohibited from being taken off because it could not accomplish a full stop landing at the destination airport within 60% of the effective length of the most suitable runway considering: 1) The probable wind velocity and direction. 2) The ground handling characteristics of the airplane. 3) Other conditions such as landing aides and terrain.

Answer 180

certain airports (due to items such as surrounding terrain, obstructions or complex approach or departure procedures) are special airports requiring special airport qualification for a PIC.

Answer 181

``` Gunnison, CO Loreto, Mexico Ashville, NC Ontario, CA Burbank, CA Palm Springs, CA Burlington Int’l., VT Reno, NV Charleston (Kanawha), WV Roanoke, VA Durango, CO San Diego, CA Flagstaff, AZ San Francisco Int’l., CA Guadalajara, Mexico Washington, DC (National) ```

Answer 182

The PIC of any flight operating to or from a special airport must ensure that within the preceding 12 calendar months: 1. The PIC or SIC has made an entry to that airport (including a takeoff and landing) while serving as a pilot flight crewmember; or 2. The PIC has thoroughly reviewed all aspects of the Jeppesen Special Airport Qualification charts published for that airport.

Answer 183

SOC maintains a list of airports to be used as alternates as listed in Section C070 of Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications. A regular airport is also authorized as a provisional, refueling or alternate airport. A provisional airport is also authorized as a refueling or alternate airport.

Answer 184

For all Part 121 operations, a takeoff alternate is required and must be specified if the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums for that airport, as determined by the Operations Specifications. (If lowest landing minimums on the approach we can fly is higher than minimums reported on the current ATIS) The takeoff alternate must be specified on the dispatch release and must be located not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. The weather at the designated takeoff alternate airport, at the estimated time of arrival of the flight, must conform to Operations Specifications standards for an alternate airport as set forth in C055.

Answer 185

Under FAR 121 domestic rules, a destination alternate must be specified in the dispatch release for one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the ceiling will be less than 2,000 feet above the airport or the visibility is less than three miles. Dispatchers shall not list an alternate airport in the dispatch release for a turbine engine powered airplane unless that airplane at the weight anticipated at the time of arrival can be brought to a full stop landing, within 60% of the effective length of the runway. This will be accomplished through AERODATA® performance calculations. If AERODATA® is unavailable, refer to the applicable Mesa Airlines, Inc. Company Flight Manual, Performance chapter.

Answer 186

600-2 and 800-2

Answer 187

No. They will use Ops Spec C055 - Derived Alternate Airport Weather Minimums

Answer 188

Operations Specification C055 authorizes Mesa Airlines, Inc. to derive alternate airport weather minimum from the following criteria: 1. For airports with at least one operational navigational facility providing a straight in non-precision approach procedure, or a straight-in precision approach procedure, or, when applicable, a circling maneuver from an instrument approach procedure, the alternate airport IFR weather minimums will be: a. A ceiling derived by adding 400 feet to the authorized Category I HAT or, when applicable, the authorized HAA. b. A visibility derived by adding one statute mile to the authorized Category I landing minimum. 2. For airports with at least two operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in non-precision approach procedure, or a straight-in precision approach procedure to different, suitable runways. a. A ceiling derived by adding 200 feet to the higher Category I HAT of the two approaches being used. b. A visibility derived by adding 1⁄2 statute mile to the higher authorized Category I landing minimum of the two approaches used. B. In no case shall Mesa Airlines, Inc. use an alternate weather minimum lower than any applicable minimums derived from these criteria, and in determining alternate weather minimums, Mesa Airlines, Inc. will not use any published approach procedure which specifies that alternate airport weather minimums are not authorized.

Answer 189

No. Only the minimums on the chart apply. Derived minimums are for fuel planning purposes only.

Answer 190

When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are marginal, a second alternate will be designated in the dispatch release.

Answer 191

Mesa Airlines, Inc. defines marginal as 500 feet and one mile above the lowest suitable landing minimums for the airport. Both the visibility and the ceiling at both the destination and first alternate airports must be considered marginal for this rule to apply.

Answer 192

A FAR 121 flight may be dispatched to a destination airport and/or alternate airport when the TAF for either one or both of those airports indicate, by the use of conditional phrases in the Remarks Section of such reports, that the weather could be below authorized weather minimums at the ETA. The main body of such forecasts must, however, indicate that the weather will be at or above authorized weather minimums for ETA.

Answer 193

1. Second alternate Manual: 410 Page: 7.67 Revision: 35 Date: 10/15/21 A second alternate airport must be listed on the dispatch release if either the destination airport or the first alternate airport TAF contains conditional phrases indicating weather below authorized weather minimums. 2. For the destination airport, the TAF weather conditions shall not be less than one half of the lowest weather minimum visibility value established for the instrument approach procedure expected to be used. 3. For the first alternate airport, the TAF weather conditions shall not be less than one half of the weather minimum ceiling and visibility values specified in the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications for that airport. 4. For the second alternate airport, the METAR or TAF, or any combination thereof for that airport, must indicate in the main body and remarks section that the weather conditions will be at or above the alternate weather minimum ceiling and visibility values specified in the Operations Specifications for that airport. 5. BECMG Each BECMG TAF that is “deteriorating” must be considered valid at the first minute of the becoming period. Each BECMG TAF that is “improving” will not be valid until the last minute of the becoming period of the TAF. 6. Updated Weather Information The dispatcher will ensure, along with the PIC, that the flight is provided with the most current relevant weather reports and forecasts, for the destination and alternates, while en route.

Answer 194

No. Exemption 17347 may only be used for destinations within the U.S.

Answer 195

Any Mesa Airlines, Inc. captain who has not served at least 100 hours as PIC in that type aircraft is designated under FAR 121 as a “High Minimums Captain”

Answer 196

1. Takeoff “High Minimums Captains” can apply Lower than Standard Minimums for takeoff; however, the need for a takeoff alternate for the departure airport is predicated on HMC landing minimums. 2. Landing Landing minimums for “High Minimums Captains” may be determined by adding, to the published approach procedure, 100 feet to the DH/MDA and by adding one half statute mile to the required minimum visibility or RVR equivalent in C054. 3. Alternates Landing minimums for “High Minimums Captains” at alternate airports are not increased above those minimums applicable to the alternate airports, and lower than standard alternate rules may be applied, but in no case may be less than a 300 foot ceiling and one mile visibility, regardless of the operation.

Answer 197

a. The lower 48 contiguous states (Domestic Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (DRVSM)). b. Alaska. c. Atlantic and Gulf of Mexico High Offshore Airspace. d. San Juan FIR. e. Southern Canada (SDRVSM).

Answer 198

The difference between the published runway elevation and the altimeter display should not exceed 75 feet.

Answer 199

Altitude assignments for direction of flight will follow a scheme of odd altitude assignment for magnetic courses 000-179 degrees and even altitudes for magnetic courses 180-359 degrees for flights up to and including FL410.

Answer 200

Flight crews must determine the aircraft's RVSM status by referencing the RVSM or NON-RVSM status placard installed on the instrument panel below each MFD. Review maintenance logs to assure minimum equipment requirements are met. RVSM operations must not be commenced or continued unless all of the required equipment is operational. During the external inspection of the aircraft, particular attention should be paid to the condition of static sources and the condition of the fuselage skin in the vicinity of each static source, and any other component that affects altimetry system accuracy (i.e., dents, ripples, appearance of burns, paint etc.). Flight crews shall consider all enroute weather including SIGMETS, AIRMETS and PIREPS while planning a flight into RVSM airspace. (Moderate or greater turbulence is a reason to avoid RVSM airspace)

Answer 201

Mountain Wave Activity (MWA) or severe turbulence 1) Significant MWA occurs in RVSM airspace. MWA is generally experienced in the months between late fall and early spring in the vicinity of mountain ranges in western states. Conditions for MWA occur when strong winds blow perpendicular to mountain ranges resulting in up and down or “wave” motions in the atmosphere. This wave action can cause altitude excursions and airspeed fluctuations normally associated with severe turbulence. MWA is difficult to forecast and can be highly localized and short lived. 2) In-flight MWA indicators include: a) Altitude excursions and airspeed fluctuations with or without associated turbulence. b) Pitch and trim changes required to maintain altitude with accompanying airspeed fluctuations. c) Light to severe turbulence depending on the magnitude of the MWA. 3) Pilot actions when experiencing severe turbulence or MWA. a) Pilots should contact ATC and report the situation. b) If experiencing weather induced altitude deviations exceeding +/- 200 feet, the crew will contact ATC and state “unable RVSM due (state reason, i.e. turbulence, mountain wave).” c) If the crew is notified by ATC of an assigned altitude deviation error (AAD) which exceeds +/- 300 feet, the crew should take action to return to the cleared flight level (CFL) as quickly as possible. d) Until the pilot reports clear of the condition, in congested areas ATC will apply “merging target vectors” to one or both passing aircraft. e) The pilot should consider requesting a FL change or a reroute to exit the affected area.

Answer 202

Wake turbulence encounter avoidance a. When compared to current RVSM operations in Europe, it has been found that reports of wake turbulence encounters enroute did not increase significantly with the introduction of RVSM. When encountered, enroute wake turbulence was found to be light to moderate. b. Pilots should be alert for wake turbulence in the following areas: 1) In the vicinity of aircraft climbing and descending through their altitude. 2) Approximately 12-15 miles after passing 1,000 feet below opposite-direction traffic. 3) Approximately 12-15 miles behind and 1,000 feet below same-direction traffic. 4) The FAA will be tracking wake turbulence events as associated with RVSM so pilots should advise ATC of such events. c. If the crew is notified by ATC of an assigned altitude deviation error (AAD) which exceeds +/- 300 feet, the crew should take action to return to the cleared flight level (CFL) as quickly as possible.

Answer 203

Pressure altimeters are calibrated to indicate true altitude under International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) conditions. Any deviation from ISA will result in an erroneous reading on the altimeter. In a case when the temperature is higher than ISA, the true altitude will be higher than the figure indicated by the altimeter, and the true altitude will be lower than indicated when the temperature is lower than ISA. The altimeter error may be significant and becomes extremely important when considering obstacle clearances in very cold temperatures.

Answer 204

``` Procedure Turn 8000 ft 3527 ft + 342.7 ft 1 8400 ft 2 FAF 6800 ft 2327 ft + 229.4 ft 7100 ft MDA Straight-In 4860 ft 387 ft + 38.7 ft 4900 ft DA/H 4643 ft 170 ft + 17 ft 4660 ft Circling MDA (CAT C/D) 4940/5040 ft 467/567 ft + 46.7/56.7 ft 5000/5100 ft 1 CORRECTION derived as follows: Procedure turn altitude 8000 feet - Airport elevation 4473 = 3527 (3000 ft at -10°C) = 290 and (4000 ft at -10°C) = 390 = 100 Altitude difference of above (4000-3000) = 1000 Error per foot difference (100/1000) = .1 HAA = 3527 Error at 3527 = (3527-3000) x .1 = 52.7 + 290 (error -10°C at 3000) = 342.7 2 INDICATED ALTITUDE derived as follows: Calculated error at 3527 HAA from above = 342.7 Procedure turn altitude (8000) + error (342.7) = 8342.7 INDICATED ALTITUDE rounded to the next highest 100 ft increment = 8400 ``` Values should be added to published minimum IFR altitudes. The TEMP COMP function in the FMS indicates the compensated altitude for the DA/MDA. However, corrections to DA/H require DA/ MDA BARO to be manually set. In this example set DA/MDA to 4660. (4643 + 17 = 4660 to be set with the MDA knob. (Rounded up by 10 foot increments as applicable)

Answer 205

FAR 121.191 requires Mesa Airlines, Inc. to plan each flight with consideration given to an engine failure enroute. Compliance with this regulation is primarily a pre-flight/dispatching function. This regulation specifies two sets of requirements of which Mesa Airlines, Inc. must comply with at least one on each flight. The two sets of requirements will be referred to as “Method 1” and “Method 2.” Both methods measure performance based on aircraft net flight path (or net altitude). For a two-engine airplane, net altitude is the altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a 1.1% climb gradient based on its current weight. The airplane’s actual altitude capability (service ceiling or 0% climb gradient) is approximately 5,000 feet higher than the net altitude capability. The difference between the net and actual altitude is the operating safety margin. This operating safety margin accounts for factors such as: a. Not being on the planned route of flight. b. Ice accumulation on unheated surfaces. c. The use of anti-ice when it was not planned. d. The unavailability of an APU when it was planned. e. Flying at other than optimum speeds and enroute temperatures greater than forecast. Aircraft altitude capability is based on enroute climb speed or driftdown speed. Altitude capability at Long Range Cruise (LRC) speed is significantly lower.

Answer 206

Method 1 requires the aircraft to takeoff at a weight that ensures that if an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircraft’s net altitude capability will clear all obstructions 5 SM either side of the intended route by 1,000 feet until reaching the destination. The aircraft must also have a positive net gradient at 1,500 feet above the destination airport. Under optimum conditions, these requirements provide actual aircraft altitude capability of approximately 6,000 feet over the most critical obstruction and 6,500 feet above the destination field elevation when operating at enroute climb speed and planned conditions. 2. Method 1 Maximum Enroute Takeoff Weight (M1METW) Method 1 analysis provides a Maximum Enroute Takeoff Weight (M1METW) based on the forecast winds and temperatures aloft, bleed configuration and anti-ice configuration. M1METW is the maximum allowable weight at which the aircraft can takeoff and still comply with Method 1 requirements. This calculation is factored into the Planned Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight (PMRTW) found in header section of the Takeoff and Landing Report (TLR).

Answer 207

Method 2 (driftdown) requires that if an engine failure occurs, the aircraft be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from normal cruise altitude and the aircraft’s net driftdown altitude will clear all obstructions 5 SM either side of the route of flight by 2,000 feet until reaching the diversion airport. The aircraft must also have a positive net gradient at 1,500 feet above the diversion airport. Under optimum conditions, these requirements provide actual aircraft altitude capability of approximately 7,000 feet over the most critical obstruction and 6,500 feet above the destination field elevation when operating at optimum driftdown speed and planned conditions. 4. Method 2 Maximum Enroute Takeoff Weight (M2METW) Method 2 analysis provides a Maximum Enroute Takeoff Weight (M2METW) based on the forecast winds and temperatures aloft, bleed configuration and anti-ice protection configuration. M2METW is the maximum allowable weight at which the aircraft can takeoff and still comply with Method 2 requirements. Additionally, Method 2 analysis provides a list of driftdown suitable airports for one or more segments along the route of flight. Each segment is defined by start and end points referenced from either the origin airport, the destination airport or navaids along the route of flight. 5. MEL/CDL Penalties When an MEL/CDL item associated with an inoperative or missing component requires an enroute performance penalty, the penalty is entered by the dispatcher into the flight planning system for consideration. The penalty is then noted in the remarks section of the release.

Answer 208

The flight planning system chooses the most favorable of either Method 1 or Method 2. Generally, Method 2 provides the highest enroute takeoff weight but requires the most amount of dispatching oversight. As a result, Method 1 is selected by default if it is not limiting to the flight plan’s takeoff weight. If Method 1 is limiting, the lesser of M1METW or M2METW is selected. Generally, M2METW is greater than M1METW, but in cases where there are few driftdown airports available, M1METW can be greater than M2METW.

Answer 209

If an engine failure occurs, FAR 121.565(a) requires that “the pilot-in- command shall land the airplane at the nearest suitable airport, in point- of-time, at which a safe landing can be made.” Therefore, if an engine failure occurs, the flight crew will then determine the nearest suitable airport. The selected suitable airport may not necessarily be any of those selected for dispatching requirements.

Answer 210

Takeoff Limit Reason 1) O - Obstacle Limited. 2) T - Tire Speed Limited. 3) C - Climb Limited. 4) V - Vmcg (Minimum Control Speed Ground). 5) B - Brake Energy Limited. 6) D - Dry Runway Check. 7) F - Field Length Limited. 8) P - Policy (Specific Weight). 9) TS - Structural Max TOW. 10) RS - MAX Ramp Weight. 11) TO - Takeoff Obstacle Limited. 12) TT - Takeoff Tire Speed Limited. 13) TC - Takeoff Climb Limited. 14) TV - Takeoff Vmcg. 15) TB - Takeoff Brake Energy Limited. 16) TD - Takeoff Dry Runway Check. 17) TF - Takeoff Field Length Limit. 18) TP - Takeoff Policy (Specific user weight). 19) TA - Takeoff Limited Due to METW to the T/O Alternate. 20) TW - Takeoff Limited Due to Max Takeoff Weight (Taxi Weight). 21) EE - Enroute Limited Due to METW. 22) EZ - Takeoff Limited Due to Max Zero Fuel Weight. 23) EL - Takeoff Limited Due to Max Landing Weight and Burnoff. 24) EM - Takeoff Limited Due to Max Fuel Tank Capacity. 25) LS - Landing Limited Due to Max Structural LDW. 26) AC - Approach Climb.

Answer 211

Landing Weight (LDW) Limit Reason 1) A - AFM Maximum Chart Weight. 2) R - Runway. 3) F - Field Length Limit. 4) T - Tires.

Answer 212

Aircraft Operator Standard Security Program

Answer 213

Authorized local or federal Law Enforcement Officers (LEO) and Federal Flight Deck Officers (FFDO) only

Answer 214

HR Badging Department Immediately - complete the lost/stolen badge form The pilot can fly if they cannot be replaced by another pilot while on a trip (not before) and must be authorized by dispatch with an authorization letter and must be escorted in sterile areas

Answer 215

above the waist on the outermost garment - when a person is not displaying ID they MUST be challenged

Answer 216

GSC Ground Security Coordinator and LEO Law Enforcement Officer Stay with the person

Answer 217

When icing conditions exist. Icing conditions are present when OAT is 10deg C or less and any of the following conditions exist: Visible moisture such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals. Ice, snow, slush, or standing water on ramps, taxiways or runway.

Answer 218

All doors and compartments should be closed and the ramp/stairs should be closed, unless using a jet bridge, the jet bridge can stay attached and the cabin door open as long as the jet bridge door is closed.

Answer 219

Full aircraft search procedures

Answer 220

Manually override mechanical latch to the locked position

Answer 221

No. 2 crewmembers must be in the flight deck at all times.

Answer 222

Ground Personnel

Answer 223

The PIC or SIC if conducting the preflight walk around

Answer 224

Federal Flight Deck Officer - a trained airline pilot allowed to carry firearms

Answer 225

The last row if possible

Answer 226

People being deported can board without an escort. Prisoners must have an escort on board.

Answer 227

First when practical, in the last row on the window side if possible

Answer 228

For a single low-risk prisoner, 1 LEO on a flight of 4hrs or more For 2 low-risk 2 prisoners, 1 LEO on a flight of 4hrs or less (For single LEOs controlling 2 low-risk prisoners, the LEO must sit between the prisoners and any aisle, so on the EJET, there can only be 1 LEO per prisoner)

Answer 229

No, as long as there is a LEO for each prisoner (again because the EJET only has 2 seats before the aisle), whereas a 3 seat configuration could have 1 LEO for 2 prisoners on flights of 4hrs or less

Answer 230

Department of Defense Couriers may travel under official orders which grant exemptions to specific Transportation Security Administration Protocol concerning physical or other examination of courier material. Department of Defense Couriers will travel with an official letter bearing the seal of the Department of Defense which identifies the Courier by Name and Identification Number. The documentation also contains specific instructions for the PIC regarding handling of the Department of Defense courier with regard to aircraft access.

Answer 231

TSA must give permission to depart

Answer 232

Descend to attain no more than 1PSI difference while maintaining the existing cabin pressure altitude until the suspect device is in place at the LRBL. Discontinue the use of electronic devices. Request FA move passengers at least 4 rows away from the LRBL Taxi to a remote site and deplane the aircraft immediately

Answer 233

- Current AML Aircraft Maintenance Log (Form M007) - Previous AML - Weight and Balance (Form M035) - Blank MEL/CDL placards (Form M011) - 30 day VOR Accuracy (GOM Form 306)

Answer 234

To verify the aircraft airworthiness status

Answer 235

- AML Form M007 containing the maintenance log and maintenance release sections - Current airworthiness release (sign-off) - DDL Deferred Discrepancy Log Form M008

Answer 236

Blue or Black Ink

Answer 237

The first sheet, white, will be removed and kept for maintenance records. The second sheet, yellow, will remain onboard in the booklet.

Answer 238

Deferred Discrepancy Log - which records and tracks items that are deferred under procedures other than the MEL, NEF, or CDL programs. Examples include items deferred using Repair Orders or manufacturer guidance material. All discrepancies recorded on the DDL must be transferred back to the AML for corrective action.

Answer 239

The PIC or a mechanic will clear the nuisance message or fault in accordance with the QRH and/or the GRP within the CFM. If the nuisance message or fault is not listed or cleared by the GRP, the PIC shall contact maintenance operational control via dispatch.

Answer 240

ONLY THE PIC ORIGINATING THE DISCREPANCY can clear the entry by writing in all caps ENTERED IN ERROR, and will date/time and sign the entry

Answer 241

Non-Essential Furnishings Items - another means of deferring damaged, inoperative, or sometimes missing equipment that are not covered by the MEL/CDL, such as paint chips, passenger convenience items…

Answer 242

Form M011 will be placed on the outside of the AML Log Can Form M011B will be detached from Form M011 and affixed adjacent to the control or indicator for the item affected The MEL placard will be used for NEF items.

Answer 243

The MEL is derived from the MMEL issued by the FAA. | What can be broken and how long it can be broken for.

Answer 244

Items in this category shall be repaired within the interval specified in the Remarks column.

Answer 245

Repaired within 3 days excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the AML.

Answer 246

Repaired within 10 days excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the AML.

Answer 247

Repaired within 120 days excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the AML.

Answer 248

NEFs have specific time frames for each NEF

Answer 249

NEF items are required to be on the dispatch release however no pilot action is required in referencing the NEF

Answer 250

Category B - 3 days Category C - 10 days Maintenance Control Management

Answer 251

Any flight conducted for purposes other than the ordinary transport of people or property (all flights not involving common carriage) - in-flight functional evaluation of aircraft systems - functional check flights following maintenance flights conducted for crew member training or qualification - ferry flights (special flight permit) - sales or customer demo flights

Answer 252

Group 1 includes: 1) Normal operating of airplane systems such as the normal retraction and extension of the aircraft’s landing gear. 2) A flight to confirm the proper functioning of the aircraft’s communication or navigation radios and/or a flight to confirm the proper functioning of the aircraft’s autopilot. 3) Operations conducted under a Special Flight Permit (Ferry Flight). Group 1 NRFOs shall consist of fully qualified, current PIC and a first officer. Group 2 consists of: 1) Any flight that involves de-powering of any of the aircraft's electric, hydraulic or pneumatic systems. 2) Alternate extension of the aircraft's landing gear. 3) Alternate extension of the aircraft's flaps. 4) A flight that involves approach or actual entry into a stall. 5) Actual shut down of an engine. 6) De-powering of any flight control power input. 7) Operation of the plane's wing flaps following certain procedures. Group 2 NRFOs shall consist of a PIC that is a qualified instructor, Check Pilot or fully qualified, current PIC authorized by the Director of Operations, or designee, and a first officer.

Answer 253

14 CFR 21.197 states: “A Special Flight Permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight, for the following purposes: 1) Flying the aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage. 2) Delivering or exporting aircraft. 3) Production flight testing new production aircraft. 4) Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger. 5) Conducting customer demonstration flights in new production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests.”

Answer 254

A Special Flight permit is not required to non-revenue reposition of an airworthy aircraft for the purpose of repositioning that aircraft.

Answer 255

Only flight crewmembers and persons essential to the operation of the aircraft are carried aboard during ferry flights if the aircraft flight characteristics are appreciably changed or the aircraft's performance in flight substantially affected. Authorization to carry additional Mesa Airlines, Inc. personnel must be pre-approved by both the Maintenance approver and Flight Operations notified personnel identified in block 18 of the Special Flight Permit. The additional approved personnel accompanying the flight must be listed on the Special Flight Permit (Form #M109A).

Answer 256

Supplemental Operations are nonscheduled, charter flights conducted between airports that are on the Domestic route system or between airports off the route system, but are within an area approved by the FAA. Mesa Airlines, Inc. is authorized to conduct charter flights in the contiguous 48 states in accordance with the FARs, Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications (OpSpec) and procedures set forth in the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Dispatch Operations Manual.

Answer 257

No. All flights conducted under supplemental regulations will operate under an IFR flight plan.

Answer 258

No. A pilot serving as a crewmember on a passenger charter being operated under domestic regulations will comply with the duty and rest requirements of FAR Part 117 and the Mesa Airlines, Inc. General Operations Manual regardless of whether the airports used are listed in C070 of the Operations Specifications.

Answer 259

Weapons On supplemental operations carrying only military personnel, unloaded weapons may be carried onboard and stowed under the seat. Experience Requirements a. Except for aircraft new to the company, PICs and first officers assigned to DOD supplemental operation passenger flights will possess at least 250 hours of combined experience in the aircraft being operated. b. Dispatchers will confirm the experience requirements are met by conferring with Crew Scheduling and the flight crew. 3. Weight and Balance All Department of Defense charter flights will use actual passenger and cargo weights in calculating aircraft weight and balance. Baggage weights for these flights will be actual weights, including: personal carry- on items, plane-side checked baggage and checked baggage (Operations Specifications A098 and A099).

Answer 260

International Operations

Answer 261

Mesa Airlines, Inc. Domestic Operation is any FAR Part 121 operation conducted as follows: 1. Between any points within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia. 2. Operations solely within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia. 3. Operations entirely within any State, territory, or possession of the United States. 4. When specifically authorized by the Administrator, operations between any point within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia and any specifically authorized point located outside the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia.

Answer 262

Mesa Airlines, Inc. Flag Operation is any FAR Part 121 operation conducted as follows: 1. Between any point within the State of Alaska or the State of Hawaii or any territory or possession of the United States and any point outside the State of Alaska or the State of Hawaii or any territory or possession of the United States, respectively. 2. Between any point within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia and any point outside the 48 contiguous States of the United States and the District of Columbia. 3. Between any point outside the U.S. and another point outside the U.S.

Answer 263

The specific FAR Part 121 Flag Operations regulations that are applicable to Mesa Airlines, Inc. flights have been incorporated into this chapter. Whenever possible and in an effort to maintain simplicity, FAR Part 121 Domestic Operations regulations that are more conservative than their Flag Operations counterparts shall be followed. However, please note the specific instances when Flag Operations regulations are required to be followed.

Answer 264

Found in GOM Appendix B (Forms): A. General Declaration form. The PIC is authorized to sign the General Declaration Form (CBP Form 7507) in the field “Signature Authorized Agent or Pilot-in-Command.” B. Welcome to the United States Customs Declaration Card. C. Welcome to U.S I-94 Immigration and Naturalization Card. D. Welcome to U.S I-94 Immigration and Naturalization Card for non-immigrant Visa Waiver. E. Crewmember Declaration form. F. Aircraft/Vessel Report form. G. Air Cargo Manifest form.

Answer 265

Takeoff is authorized down to 500 RVR with two transmissometers (touchdown and midpoint). Both must be operative.

Answer 266

Diverting to Alternate Airports 1. United States to Canada If diverting to an alternate airport in Canada, obtain Customs service at that airport. 2. Canada to United States If diverting to an alternate airport in the United States, obtain Customs service at that airport.

Answer 267

Arrival Control is used instead of Approach Control

Answer 268

CIRCUIT may be used instead of TRAFFIC PATTERN. Other features, such as Airport Terminal Information Service, Pre-taxi Clearance Delivery, etc. are standard.

Answer 269

Turbine-powered aircraft, if cleared on departure to a point other than the airport of first intended landing, shall proceed maintaining the last assigned altitude or flight level or the minimum enroute IFR altitude, whichever is the higher, until 10 minutes beyond the point specified in the clearance. Then proceed at the filed flight plan altitude or flight levels. If a communications failure occurs while an aircraft is being vectored, the pilot shall proceed by a direct route from the point of communications failure to the fix, course or airway specified in the vector instructions.

Answer 270

The following airspeed limitations apply in Canadian controlled airspace: 1. No person shall: a. Operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots if the aircraft is below 10,000 feet ASL; or b. Operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots if the aircraft is below 3,000 feet AGL within 10 nautical miles of a controlled aerodrome unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance. 2. If the minimum safe airspeed for the flight configuration of an aircraft is greater than the airspeed describe above, the aircraft shall be operated at the minimum safe airspeed.

Answer 271

When flying published instrument approach procedures, transmitting passage over the following fixes is mandatory: 1. Initial approach fix outbound. 2. Initial approach fix inbound. 3. Intercepting the final approach track on straight-in (no procedure turn) approaches.

Answer 272

Reserve fuel for flights between U.S. airports and Canadian airports will be in accordance with domestic rules. Use pounds or liters instead of gallons. 1 U.S. gallon equals 3.8 liters.

Answer 273

Terminating and through flights with more than 90 minutes of scheduled ground time requires all crewmembers clear both Canadian and U.S. Customs with personal baggage.

Answer 274

If the scheduled ground time is less than 90 minutes, the flight crewmembers may remain onboard the aircraft in order to complete normal duties and a crewmember may perform a preflight inspection of the aircraft. At some locations, crews must clear Canadian Customs prior to entering flight operations or the terminal. Subtle differences exist at various locations in Canada, therefore, check with local personnel if there is any question about Customs or the local rules about entering the terminal building or flight operations. Flight attendants should refer to the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Flight Attendant Manual for Customs/Immigration requirements. Normally, crewmembers stay onboard or in the immediate vicinity of the aircraft during the turnaround time. If they desire to enter the terminal building, it is necessary to pass through Canadian Customs and Immigrations and then be reprocessed when reboarding. This procedure pertains to all crewmembers as a group. If one crewmember goes through Customs, ALL MUST GO THROUGH. If the decision is to remain at the aircraft, ALL MUST REMAIN.

Answer 275

electronically, except paper General Declarations documents will be required for maintenance ferries, repositioning flights and extra sections.

Answer 276

If a crewmember exits the aircraft and needs to clear Customs, then the Welcome to Canada Card (Form E-311) needs to be completed.

Answer 277

Crewmembers, who need to clear Customs going into the United States must complete a Crewmember Declaration Form (Form 5129). In cities where there is U.S. Customs and Immigration preclearance, the 5129 form is completed and delivered to U.S. Customs at the foreign city.

Answer 278

The Air Cargo Manifest is a U.S. Customs form that is required on every flight carrying cargo (flights carrying no cargo must indicate “NIL” on the Manifest). This form is prepared by personnel in the gateway city and is attached to the General Declaration (Form 7507) and stamped by U.S. Customs prior to departure. The form accompanies the flight and is turned in to Customs on arrival.

Answer 279

U.S. Customs requires all passengers entering the United States to complete a Welcome to the United States Card (Form 6059B). Declaration cards for children or handicapped passengers may be included in the family members or fellow travelers’ declaration. Those passengers departing from a pre-cleared city will complete the Declaration and hand in the card to U.S. Customs prior to leaving Canada.

Answer 280

This card is essentially the Canadian equivalent of the Welcome to the United States Card. This form must be completed for every passenger on the flight. This includes children and each member of a family even if traveling together. Unless the passenger has received the Canadian Customs Form before boarding the flight, the flight attendant will give this form to each passenger before landing in Canada.

Answer 281

The U.S. Crew Declaration form is a U.S. Customs form required to be completed by each crewmember and presented with crewmember identification. Deadheading crewmembers are considered passengers. In cities where there is U.S. Customs and Immigration preclearance, the 5129 form is completed and delivered to U.S. Customs at the foreign city.

Answer 282

Meters and Feet

Answer 283

Distance used in navigation, position reporting, etc. are in nautical miles. Tenths of NM are used when distance is less than 10 miles and more than 2 miles. Short distances such as runways are in meters and feet. a. Altitudes, elevations and heights are in meters and feet. Vertical speed calls will be in feet per minute. b. Wind directions will be in degrees magnetic. Visibility and runway visual values will be in statue miles and meters. c. Altimeter settings are in millibars or inches of mercury, with inches of mercury given on request. d. Temperatures are in degrees Celsius. e. Weights are in metric tons, kilograms and pounds. f. Times are in hours and minutes with the day beginning at UTC midnight.

Answer 284

Unless specified, holding pattern circuits are limited to one minute inbound. 1. Turbo Jet aircraft up to 6,000 feet is 200 kts. 2. Turbo Jet aircraft above 6,000 to 14,000 feet is 210 kts. 3. Turbo Jet aircraft above 14,000 feet is 230 kts.

Answer 285

Aircraft operating IFR shall not exceed speeds listed. a. Maximum airspeed is 250 KIAS below 10,000 feet in the national airspace. b. Maximum airspeed is 250 KIAS within 30 NM from any airport at or below 10,000 feet AGL of the airport elevation. c. Maximum airspeed of 200 KIAS when operating IFR within 10 NM of an aerodrome when below 3,000 feet AGL above that aerodrome’s elevation.

Answer 286

1. Class “A” All airspace FL 200 and above except for that airspace designated as part of the Mazatlan Oceanic Flight Information Region (FIR) and the Merida Pacific FIR. Consult enroute charts provided by Mesa Airlines, Inc. 2. Class “D” Controlled airspace established within the limits of the Terminal Control Area (TMA). TMAs are located over select airports with high traffic volume. 3. Class “E” Controlled airways which extend form the indicated MEA to FL 200. 4. Class “F” Advisory Service Areas. 5. Class “G” All uncontrolled airspace with the Merida, Mazatlan, Monterrey and Mexico FIRs from the surface to FL 200 designated as part of the MAZATLAN Oceanic FIR and the Merida Pacific FIR.

Answer 287

If departing an airport that is uncontrolled, call broadcasting intentions and monitor for other aircraft will be conducted on 122.5 MHz. When operating within 15 miles of non-controlled airports, Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft should select and maintain a listening watch on frequency 122.5 MHz. Broadcast position and pilot intentions a minimum of 10 miles from the airport, at entry and each point in the traffic circuit.

Answer 288

Mexico law requires all aircraft entering Mexico be equipped with the 406 MHz ELT. a. Aircraft Routing Department will assign aircraft equipped with the 406 MHz ELT in accordance with Mexico Regulations. 1) To meet Mexico requirements aircraft not equipped with a fixed automatic 406 MHz ELT may be dispatched to Mexico provided two portable 406 ELTs are installed. Aircraft post production 2008 with one fixed 406 ELT installed may be dispatched with the addition of one portable ELT installed. a) Portable ELT will be installed inside the forward compartment. The ELT is powered by a lithium battery

Answer 289

Change to QNE during the climb when passing 18,500 feet MSL.

Answer 290

Change to QNH (local) during the descent when passing FL195.

Answer 291

Following are differences a pilot operating outside the U.S. may see in METAR reports, be vigilant for these nuances: a. Wind reports variable in nature may be listed as VaRiaBle (VRB). b. Speed values can be listed in Kilometers Per Hour (KPH) or Meters Per Second (MPS). c. Prevailing visibility listed may be a four digit minimum visibility in meters. d. Runway visual range listed in meters with four digit value and a tendency value Down, Up or No Change. e. Altimeter settings are in Q-Hecto Pascals (e.g., Q1013 millibars). f. For the purpose of intensity or proximity of severe weather in the US 5 and 10 SM of the point of observation. In ICAO terms this designates 8,000N of reporting point. g. Some international weather forecasts, TAF, may include temperature forecast such as: TN25/12Z TX34/18Z. This can be read as Temperature at 12Z is expected to be 25°C and Temperature at 18Z is expected to be 34°C.

Answer 292

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Answer 293

a. List of Passengers b. Air Cargo Manifest c. General Declaration Form There will be three copies of each form for departure and three for arrival (a total of six copies). The station personnel will distribute as required to the appropriate personnel in the departure and arrival stations. The crew needs to verify that all four copies are onboard before departure to Mexico.

Answer 294

No. Crewmembers must remain on the aircraft during the turn or they will have to be cleared through customs. The station advised that crewmembers should not even go onto the jet bridge. However, flight crewmembers are allowed off the aircraft to conduct their required walk-around. 1. With the exception of a flight deck officer conducting a post-flight walk- around, crewmembers operating turn flights must remain on the aircraft during the turn or they will have to be cleared through customs. Crewmembers who deplane, even to access the jet bridge, will be required to enter and clear Bahamian Customs and subsequently U.S. Customs in NAS before returning to the aircraft. 2. If a flight deck officer needs to make a phone call for operational reasons they must contact NAS operations via radio or the agent on the jet bridge for an escort to the Operations office.

Answer 295

Airspace in the vicinity of the Bahamas below 6,000’MSL is controlled by Nassau Approach. Airspace above 6,000 ft MSL is in the Miami Oceanic Control Area and is controlled by Miami Center. Transition altitude for the Bahamas is FL180.

Answer 296

``` General Declarations (electronic) Immigration form (if clearing customs) ```

Answer 297

If flight crewmembers need to make a phone call for operational reasons, they can contact Operations via radio. Operations personnel will bring a cell phone that is capable of calling numbers in the United States.

Answer 298

Visibility is reported in meters. Pressure is reported in HectoPascals (hPa).

Answer 299

1. All flight routings and possible diversions are dispatched and planned to remain within 50 NM of shore at any point in time. Passenger briefings, emergency equipment and crewmember training associated with extended overwater operations are not required. 2. Flight crews must always navigate the aircraft within 50 NM of shore unless deviating in accordance with the captain's emergency authority. 3. Transition altitude is 4000 feet. 4. Most airspace between the Florida Keys and Cuba is Warning or Restricted airspace. Do not file or fly through these areas unless requested by ATC. Aircraft must be routed via specific route segments which can be found in Ops Spec B050. 5. Cuban regulations require an alternate for all flights landing at a Cuban airport. Mesa Airlines, Inc. policy is that any planned alternate will be a United States airport due to customs issues and lack of support services. 6. Airspace over the entire Cuban island is controlled by Havana Center. 7. Airspace in the vicinity of Havana (HAV/MUHA) is controlled by HAV approach control and tower. 8. It is Mesa Airlines, Inc. policy that all aircraft used for flights to and from Cuba will be capable of flying advanced RNAV (PRNAV). All equipment necessary for PRNAV will be installed and operable. 9. On arrival, expect to ask for lower altitude, STAR waypoint directions and approach clearance. 10. When cleared for an approach, expect to fly the full approach procedure unless proceeding direct to an IAF. 11. Runway 6 is the preferred runway. 12. Havana Tower will not tell the pilot to switch to departure frequency after takeoff. It is the pilots' responsibility to change frequencies.

Answer 300

Cuban Immigration landing card (for entering customs) | General Declaration - paper for entry into Cuba, electronic for entry back to U.S.

Answer 301

Aircraft require two 406 MHz ELTs to operate in Cuban airspace. If either of these units is on MEL, the aircraft may not be routed to Cuban destinations.

Answer 302

Three security personnel will ride on all flights to and from a Cuban airport. They will occupy regular passenger seats. A Mesa Airlines, Inc. mechanic will ride on all flights to and from Havana.

Answer 303

An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch release for each destination airport when the destination weather is below the requirements listed below. However, no alternate airport is required if the flight is scheduled for not more than six hours and, for at least one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate: 1. At least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling MDA, if a circling approach is required and authorized for that airport. 2. At least 1,500 feet above the lowest published instrument approach minimum or 2,000 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is greater. 3. The visibility at that airport will be at least three miles, or two miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums, whichever is greater, for the instrument approach procedures to be used at the destination airport.

Answer 304

Light Moderate Heavy Extreme

Answer 305

A braking action report of nil, combined with a MU value of 40 or less will suspend airline operations at that location. A braking action report of nil alone, reported by similar aircraft under circumstances similar to what is expected at the time of operation, will be sufficient to suspend operations on that runway as well.

Answer 306

1. Trace of Ice An ice accumulation which does not affect the performance of the aircraft, but should be reported by Mesa Airlines, Inc. pilots for meteorological purposes. 2. Light Ice An icing condition which can be handled safely by the aircraft deicing equipment. On encountering ice, it is assumed the aircraft can be flown indefinitely, provided the deicing equipment is used. 3. Moderate Ice An icing condition which deicing equipment will safely handle, but for practical flight purposes, can be considered a signal for the pilot to alter the flight path so as to avoid operation in that condition. 4. Severe Ice An icing condition which deicing equipment cannot handle.

Answer 307

The following weather conditions may be conducive to severe inflight icing: Visible rain at temperatures below 0°C ambient air temperature. Droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below 0°C ambient air temperature.

Answer 308

Procedures for exiting the severe icing environment: These procedures are applicable to all flight phases from takeoff to landing. Monitor the ambient air temperature. While severe icing may form at temperatures as cold as -18°C, increased vigilance is warranted at temperatures around freezing with visible moisture present. If visual cues specified in the limitations section of the CFM for identifying severe icing conditions are observed, accomplish the following: a) Immediately request priority handling from air traffic control to facilitate a route or an altitude change to exit the severe icing conditions in order to avoid extended exposure to flight conditions more severe than those for which the airplane has been certificated. b) Avoid abrupt and excessive maneuvering that may exacerbate control difficulties. c) Do not engage the autopilot. d) If the autopilot is engaged, hold the control wheel firmly and disengage the autopilot. e) If an unusual roll response or uncommanded roll control movement is observed, reduce angle-of- attack. f) Do not extend flaps during extended operation in icing conditions. Operation with flaps extended can result in a reduced wing angle-of-attack with the possibility of ice forming on the upper surface of the wing, AFT of the protected area. g) If flaps are extended, do not retract until the airframe is clear of ice. h) Report these weather conditions to air traffic control.

Answer 309

When braking action is reported as “NIL,” no Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft will attempt to taxi, takeoff or land.

Answer 310

When a flight is terminated as a result of an incident or accident, the Flight Recorder and CVR circuit breakers must be pulled immediately upon landing to preserve the last 30 minutes of recorded tape in the CVR and the last 25 hours of tape for the FDR. If the incident or accident happens on the ground, circuit breakers must be pulled immediately following the incident or accident. For example, incidents include, but are not limited to, hard landings, leaving a paved surface during taxi, takeoff or landing, etc. It is against Mesa Airlines, Inc. internal policy to intentionally or knowingly erase/ switch off any pertinent FDR and /or CVR data or the FDR/CVR itself

Answer 311

The aircraft should be evacuated if there is any risk of fire or toxic fumes.

Answer 312

Once a flight attendant has made contact with the flight deck, the following information shall be given: 1. Type of Emergency The flight crew will inform the flight attendant(s) of the nature of the emergency. 2. Evacuation Required The flight crew will inform the flight attendant(s) if an emergency evacuation is expected. The evacuation command from the flight deck is “evacuate, evacuate, evacuate” over the PA. 3. Special Instructions The flight crew will inform the flight attendant(s) if, and when, a brace command will be required. Review the evacuation signals and exits to use. Review any other peculiarities related to the situation and arrival. 4. Time Remaining The flight crew will inform the flight attendant of the time remaining to prepare the cabin prior to arrival. The flight attendant receiving the emergency information from the flight deck is expected to communicate that information with the remaining flight attendant (on applicable aircraft).

Answer 313

It shall be the responsibility of the first officer assigned to a flight to assume responsibility of command of the aircraft at any time the PIC may so direct. In the event that the PIC becomes obviously ill during the flight or otherwise incapable of conducting the flight and is unable to delegate command, it shall be the responsibility of the first officer to assume command of the aircraft and to perform the duties and responsibilities of the PIC

Answer 314

1. Ensure autopilot is engaged. 2. Call flight attendant to flight compartment. 3. Check that incapacitated pilot does not interfere with flight controls. It is preferable to have the incapacitated pilot removed from the flight compartment. 4. If unable to remove the incapacitated pilot, instruct a flight attendant to lock the shoulder harness of the incapacitated pilot and move the seat rearward. 5. If an immediate landing is imperative, obtain advice on the most suitable airport where medical assistance can be readily rendered. 6. Check the possibility of obtaining assistance from pilots who may be traveling as passengers on board the airplane.

Answer 315

This program allows qualified law enforcement officers, firefighters and emergency medical technicians to offer their assistance during in-flight emergencies. Only the flight's crewmembers should be advised that there is a VPES volunteer onboard and no one, ground or in-flight crew, may divulge the identity, seat number and itinerary or personal/professional information about the volunteer.

Answer 316

MedLink provides 24 hour medical consultation service for any in-flight medical emergency or medical condition when the crew deems medical advice is necessary. MedLink may also be used to answer questions regarding travel of customers with special medical needs. Prior to any medical diversions, the PIC will contact MedLink and the dispatcher. If MedLink cannot be contacted, the captain will coordinate with the dispatcher for a diversion if required as per normal procedures. When MedLink services are used, MedLink assumes all liability for the emergency care giver as well as the recommended emergency first aid. The PIC should immediately contact AIRINC to establish a phone patch between the PIC, a MedLink emergency room physician (602-239-3627) and the dispatcher. AIRINC will contact the emergency room physician first to facilitate medical services.

Answer 317

At 10min past the ETA, the dispatcher will telephone the controlling agency. At 20min past the ETA, without prior coordination with ATC or SOC, the aircraft is considered overdue.

Answer 318

a. FAR 91.185(b) VFR Conditions. If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. b. FAR 91.185(c) IFR Conditions. If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if Paragraph 91.185(b) cannot be complied with, each pilot shall continue the flight to the original destination according to the following: 1) Route a) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received. b) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route or airway specified in the vector clearance. c) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance. d) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan. 2) Altitude At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown: a) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received. b) The minimum altitude converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level as prescribed in FAR 91.121(c) for IFR operations. c) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance. 3) Leaving holding fix If holding instructions have been received, leave the holding fix at the expect further clearance time received. 4) Descent for approach Begin descent from the enroute altitude or flight level upon reaching the fix from which the approach begins, but not before: a) The expect further clearance time (if received). b) If no expect further clearance time has been received, at the estimated time of arrival, shown on the flight plan, as amended with ATC. 3. The requirements of FAR 91.185(c) are basic in nature and additional instructions are shown in Part 1 of the Aeronautical Information Manual.

Answer 319

Fires caused by lithium type batteries commonly found in portable electronic devices. The extinguishing of these fires is a two phase process: 1. Utilize a Halon, Halon replacement or water extinguisher to extinguish the fire and prevent its spread to additional flammable materials. 2. After extinguishing the fire, douse the device with water or other non- alcoholic liquids to cool the device and prevent additional battery cells from reaching thermal runaway. Do not cover the device or use ice to cool the device. Ice or other materials insulate the device, increasing the likelihood that additional battery cells will reach thermal runaway. Once the device is extinguished, place the device into the thermal containment bag (passenger only) using the procedures in the Thermal Containment Bag (TCB) section. Refer to the appropriate aircraft Quick Reference Handbook for further procedures.

Answer 320

Once the device is extinguished and has shown no signs of burning, smoking or any evidence of overheating for 15 minutes, the device can then be placed inside the thermal containment bag (TCB) located in the cabin. A. Operation: 1. Remove velcro carry-strap surrounding the TCB. 2. Break seal, forcefully pull open zipper using black zipper pull-strap. 3. Don thermal gloves. 4. Open top of the TCB and insert device inside the bag, ensuring the device is placed below the pink baffle separator. 5. Pull red tab labeled “pull” to remove pink baffle separator. 6. Seal the TCB by sliding hands across the velcro seam. 7. Forcefully pull zipper closed using black zipper pull-strap to fully seal TCB. 8. Stow bag in aft galley cart. If an aft galley cart is not available, place the bag in the AFT lavatory, and lock the lavatory. 9. The flight attendant will contact the PIC to arrange removal of the bag/ device once the flight lands. B. During Preflight Inspection: 1. Sealed. 2. Present. C. EFB Fires in the Cockpit Thermal gloves are located in the cockpit on United aircraft only and should be used in the event a fire occurs from an iPad. After following procedures in the QRH and the fire is out, the device should be handed to a flight attendant using the thermal gloves, where available. The flight attendant will then follow the Inflight procedures for use of the thermal containment bag.

Answer 321

Flight Crew Announcements

Answer 322

Deicing Procedures and Cold Weather Operations

Answer 323

No aircraft will takeoff until the captain has visually inspected the aircraft and is satisfied that the aircraft is adequately deiced for a safe flight. Takeoff with the following accumulation of frost, due to cold soaked fuel, on the underside (bottom) of the wing fuel tank area is permissible: Maximum 1/8 inch layer of frost.

Answer 324

Preferably not. Alternately, if the preferred method of de/anti-icing with the engines operating cannot be achieved due to station constraints, the following methods can be used (in order of most preferred to least preferred): 1. Alternating engines. When braking action in the deice pad is determined to be no better than poor, additional safety precautions will be implemented. At the discretion of the ground supervisor, deicing will be conducted only on the side of the aircraft without an operating engine. The process is completed by alternating the operating engine after the first half of the aircraft is deiced. Coordination between ground and flight personnel must be accomplished before this procedure is used. 2. With the GPU connected to provide power and the APU and engine off. 3. As a last choice: with the engine off and the APU running.

Answer 325

A. Type I fluids are Newtonian, non-thickened fluids used primarily for deicing, but may also be used for anti-icing with associated HOTs. Deicing fluid is a mixture of glycol and water. When glycol is mixed with water, the freezing point of the solution is lowered. As the percentage of glycol increases in the glycol/water mixture, the freezing point of the solution is lowered until the percentage of glycol reaches approximately 60% glycol. Above 60% glycol mixture, the freezing point of the solution will increase, making the mixture less effective against precipitation. B. The appropriate percentage of glycol to water (when using Type I fluid) is determined by knowing the ambient (or current) outside temperature and by following the "Mixture/Temperature Freeze Point Table" in this chapter. C. Type I fluids are thin fluids and are primarily used as deicing agents only. They form a very thin wetting film on aircraft surfaces and typically contain a minimum of 40% glycol. Diluted with water and heated prior to application, they provide very limited holdover protection during frozen precipitant conditions. This fluid is orange or clear in color.

Answer 326

A. Type II fluid is a special product having a glycol content of at least 50% plus a thickener system which forms a pseudo-plastic film on the aircraft surface. This film is shear sensitive to airstream flow and its performance depends on that property. During takeoff, the shearing force of the airstream causes the fluid viscosity to rapidly decrease at speeds above 30 knots. The thinning fluid then flows off the aircraft, leaving only a minimal residue, when sustained speeds above 80 knots and rotation speeds above 100 knots are attained. B. SAE Type II deicing/anti-icing fluids (thickened type) provide protection against refreezing under falling precipitation. Fluids available in the United States that meet SAE Type II Category are SPCA AD 104 and Hoechst 1704LTV (DOW Chemical Flightguard 2000). D. Anti-icing will normally be accomplished with 100% concentrate Type II fluid. When anti-icing is required, the minimum application will be to the wings and empennage (the tail assembly of the airplane, including the fin, rudder, elevator, etc.) of the aircraft. Application to the fuselage is restricted to aircraft departing Canada, overnight or extended holds only. Under no circumstances can an aircraft that has been anti-iced, receive another coat of Type II/IV fluid on top of the existing film of anti-ice fluid. Surfaces must be deiced with a hot deicing mixture of Type I fluid and water, before another application of Type II/IV fluid is made.

Answer 327

Type III is a thickened fluid which has properties that lie between Types I and II. Therefore, it provides a longer holdover time than Type I but less than Type II.

Answer 328

Green 1. Type IV fluid is a special product having a glycol content of at least 50% plus a thickener system which forms a pseudo-plastic film on the aircraft surface. The fluid when delivered from the manufacturer has a 50% glycol concentrate content and is to be considered 100% for holdover calculations and therefore cannot be diluted with water. This film is shear sensitive to airstream flow and its performance depends on that property. During takeoff, the shearing force of the airstream causes the fluid viscosity to rapidly decrease at speeds above 30 knots. The thinning fluid then flows off the aircraft, leaving only minimal residue. Fluids with this characteristic are called non-Newtonian fluids. 2. Type IV fluids have been shown to have significantly better holdover times when compared to Type I and II fluids. These increased holdover time characteristics are attributable, in part, to the addition of thickeners and/or other additives which require a ticker application of the fluid. 1. Anti-icing will normally be accomplished with 100% concentrate Type IV fluid. When anti-icing is required, the minimum application will be to the wings and empennage (the tail assembly of the airplane, including the fin, rudders, elevator, etc.) of the aircraft. Application to the fuselage is restricted to aircraft departing Canada, overnight or extended holds only.

Answer 329

Holdover Time Holdover Time (HOT) is the estimated time de/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the critical surfaces of an aircraft.

Answer 330

HOT starts at the beginning of the application with one-step de/anti-icing and with the beginning of the anti-icing process with two-step de/anti-icing.

Answer 331

This chapter contains the Holdover Time Table which is used as a guide in the selection of the anti-ice fluid to be used in the two-step deice/anti- ice operation.

Answer 332

Many factors influence the effectiveness and protection time provided by anti- icing fluids: 1. Temperature of aircraft surfaces and outside air. 2. Fluid type, amount, strength and application method. 3. Precipitation type and rate. 4. Wind velocity and direction.

Answer 333

The higher the fluid to water ratio, the lower the freeing point of the fluid.

Answer 334

A Type I mixture of 40% glycol with 60% water is the leanest fluid mixture approved for use on Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft and can only be used in locations where the ambient or current outside temperature is at least 14°F or greater. The glycol to water mixture will always be expressed with the percentage of glycol stated first (e.g., a 40/60 mix refers to 40% glycol to 60% water).

Answer 335

Visual inspection may be accomplished in accordance with the "Holdover Time" criteria explained in this section. The visual inspection procedure will consist of the following: a. The flight crew (PIC and SIC) will look at respective wings (visible from the cockpit) and visually ensure the wing is free from contamination. If necessary, the PIC will turn on the ice lights to aid the check. b. If conditions exist where the wings are not visible from the cockpit, a flight crewmember will proceed into the cabin and illuminate the wing with a flashlight to determine if contamination exists. c. If visibility from inside the aircraft will not conclusively determine that wings and other critical surfaces are free from contamination, the aircraft will return to a designation location for additional deicing. Pre-takeoff Check This check is required anytime that ground-icing conditions exist and the aircraft has been de/antiiced and a HOT established. It is accomplished within HOT range and normally can be accomplished by the flight crew from inside the cockpit. The aircraft’s wings are checked for contamination prior to takeoff. The pre-takeoff check is integral to the use of HOTs. Because of the variables involved in the determination of HOTs, it is necessary for the flight crew to look outside the aircraft to assess current weather conditions and the aircraft condition, and not rely on the HOT as the sole determinate that the aircraft is free of contaminates.

Answer 336

Mesa Airlines, Inc. does not have a procedure for pre-takeoff contamination checks therefore when the holdover is exceeded a return for subsequent de/anti-icing is required. Pre-takeoff contamination checks (visual/tactile inspection after HOT is exceeded) are not authorized. If takeoff is conducted within the holdover time, at least one pre-takeoff check of the wings is to be completed by the flight crew within the holdover time range from inside the cockpit just before taking the runway. The pre-takeoff check requires the flight crew to check the aircraft’s wings for contamination as well as to assess the current weather conditions or other situational conditions. The pre-takeoff check is integral to the use of holdover times.

Answer 337

No. Research has determined that fluid degradation is accelerated by the steeper angles of the flaps/slats in the takeoff configuration. If flaps and slats are extended for de/anti-icing 76% holdover and allowance tables must be used.

Answer 338

Ice Pellets HOTs are applicable to most forms of precipitation with the exception of ice pellets. Due to their physical characteristics, ice pellets tend to become partially embedded in fluids and can take longer to melt compared to snow or other forms of precipitation. For this reason, the visual indicators conventionally used in developing HOTs cannot be applied to ice pellets. Tests have shown that ice pellets generally remain in the frozen state embedded in Types III and IV anti-icing fluid, and are not absorbed and dissolved by the fluid in the same manner as other forms of precipitation. Using current guidelines for determining anti-icing fluid failure, the presence of a contaminant not absorbed by the fluid (remaining embedded) would be an indication that the fluid has failed. These embedded ice pellets are generally not readily detectable by the human eye during pre-takeoff contamination inspection procedures. Therefore, a visual pre-takeoff contamination inspection in ice pellet conditions may not be of value and is not required.

Answer 339

As a means to address ice pellet precipitation, a test protocol was developed that uses a combination of aerodynamic fluid flow off performance of ice pellet-contaminated fluids in combination with visual inspection and evaluation of a wing model test surface. Since 2005, guidance has been derived from this testing protocol and is known as “Allowance Times.” This guidance is also applicable to small hail due to inherent similarities to ice pellets. Operationally, both HOTs and allowance times provide the times for an aircraft to safely depart following proper deicing/anti-icing. The main difference between the two is the applicability of the pre-takeoff contamination check to HOTs, which cannot be used with allowance times. The only scenario for which an allowance time can be extended is if the precipitation stops and does not restart while still within the allowance time and the allowable 90-minute extension time.

Answer 340

``` GR Hail GR with remarks “less than 1/4”” Small Hail PL Ice Pellets SG Snow Grains GS Snow Pellets SHGS Snow Pellets with Showers ``` Snow Pellets: Use Snow Holdover Times Snow Grains: Use Snow Holdover Times Ice Pellets: Use Ice Pellet Allowance Times Small Hail: Use Small Hail Allowance Times Hail: No Holdover Times or Allowance Times

Answer 341

If operating in the United States or Canada and METAR code “GS” is reported, the precipitation type is snow pellets and the snow HOTs can be used. If operating in the United States and METAR code “GR” is reported with “less than 1/4” in the remarks, the precipitation type is small hail and the ice pellet and small hail allowance times should be used.

Answer 342

1 Step Deicing Process: After deicing is complete and the aircraft post-deice check is complete, the deicing personnel will communicate the following to the PIC: A. Fluid type. B. Fluid manufacturer name. C. The start time of the final de/anti-ice application. D. Verification that post-deice check is complete. E. Any change in conditions that have affected the aircraft anti-icing treatment since the application. Ground: “Captain, is your aircraft ready for de/anti-icing?” Flight Crew: “Mesa (aircraft number) is configured and ready for Type 1 fluid on the wings and tail.” Ground: “Mesa (aircraft number), Safewing, Type I deicing is complete, start time of final fluid application was (military time), post-deice check complete.” Flight Crew: “Mesa (aircraft number) understand post-deice check complete.” 2 Step Deicing Process: Ground: “Captain, is your aircraft ready for de/anti-icing?” Flight Crew: “Mesa (aircraft number) is configured and ready for Type I fluid on the wings and tail.” Ground: “Mesa (aircraft number), anti-icing is complete, Safewing, Type IV fluid was used at a 100% mixture, start time of final fluid application was (military time), post- deice check complete.” Flight Crew: “Mesa (aircraft number) understand post-deice check complete.”

Answer 343

Pilots may not act based on their own assessment of precipitation intensity except in the following instances where their actions are more conservative than the actions prescribed by the reported conditions. (METAR) If, in the PIC's judgement, the intensity is greater than that being reported, the pilots will request that a new observation be taken. If a new observation is not taken or the new observation remains grossly different from that which is obviously occurring, then the applicable HOTs or allowance times for the higher intensity precipitation must be applied (e.g., if precipitation is being reported as light ice pellets and the pilot assessment is that it is moderate ice pellets, then the pilot must apply the allowance time for moderate ice pellets). Pilots are not to use Runway Visual Range (RVR) for determining visibility used with the HOT tables during snowfall. In addition, flight crews are to use Surface Visibility instead of Tower Visibility for determining visibility during snowfall.

Answer 344

GOM Appendix C

Answer 345

No. The METAR must be used to determine snowfall intensity based on visibility.

Answer 346

PG Propylene Glycol

Answer 347

EG Ethylene Glycol

Answer 348

No. Deicing fluids cannot be applied below their lowest operational use temperature.

Answer 349

The higher (warmer) of: a) The lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test for a given aircraft type; or b) The actual freezing point of the fluid plus a freezing point buffer of 10deg C NOTE: THIS IS DIFFERENT FOR TYPE II, III, IV fluids

Answer 350

These tables are for use when flaps/slats are deployed prior to de/anti-icing. Holdover and allowance times have been adjusted to 76 percent of standard times. Standard holdover and allowance times can be used if flaps and slats are deployed as close to departure as safety allows.

Answer 351

Exit Seat Program - information about the crew briefing to passengers seated in an exit row

Answer 352

NORAD (North American Aerospace Defense Command) Intercept Procedures ICAO Standard Intercept Signals (AIM)

Answer 353

Turn in the direction of the flares

Answer 354

Green-on-green is not allowed. For operations under 14 CFR Part 121, either the PIC or SIC must have at least 75 hours of line operating flight time in that aircraft type. Deviations from this requirement may only be granted by an amendment to the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications A005.