GOM Flashcards
How will you determine the currency of your manuals?
APCL Aircraft Publications Currency List
What are the 4 pillars of the Safety Management System SMS?
PRAP Policy Risk Management Assurance Promotion
List all required items in the crewmember flight kit.
Pilot Certificate Medical Certificate FCC Radio Station License Mesa ID Card Passport Logbook Pen Glasses, if required Training Folder, if required Flashlight Jeppesen Inflight Publications Required Manuals
If the FO does not yet have 100hrs SIC in the type of airplane, in what situations must the captain make all takeoffs and landings?
WXCGVORS
Visibility less than 3/4 (Mesa 1SM) RVR less than 4,000’ (Mesa 5,000’) Contaminated Runway Braking Action less than “Good” Crosswind > 15kts Windshear in the vicinity Special Airports Any other condition determined by PIC
After the FO has consolidated (reached 100hrs flight time), when must the captain make the takeoff and/or landing on any given flight?
Visibility less than 1SM or 5,000’ RVR
How long is the temporary certificate issued under Exemption 11152 valid for?
72 hours
In which of the following situations is the flight deck considered sterile? Taxi Boarding at the Gate All flights below 10,000’ MSL Descending through FL180 on a STAR
Taxi
Not All flights below 10,000’ MSL because it could be in cruise below 10,000’
How many LEOs are required to carry 2 low risk prisoners on a flight of 3 hours?
1
How many LEOs are required to carry 1 low risk prisoner on a flight of 4.5 hours?
2
How many LEOs are required to carry 1 high risk prisoner?
2
How many LEOs are required to carry 2 high risk prisoners?
Mesa does not carry more than 1 high risk prisoner.
The CRM cornerstone is
Authority with Participation,
Assertiveness with Respect
Write an example of an assertive statement.
OSSPA Opening, Statement of Concern, State the Problem, Propose a Solution, Achieve an Agreement
What are the 6 components of CRM utilized by Mesa Airlines?
CCDTMS Can’t Call, Damn Too Much School Communication Coordination Decision-Making Task and Information Management Mission Planning Situational Awareness
What is a threat?
An event or error introduced outside of the crew’s influence that, if not managed properly, can reduce safety margins.
Which of the following statements is true regarding takeoff below 1600 RVR?
HIRL and CL lights must be operational
A minimum of 2 operational RVR reporting systems are required
If more than 2 RVR reporting systems are operational, only the TDZ and mid reports are controlling
All are above are true
A minimum of 2 operative RVR reporting systems are required
Which of the following are true regarding Exemption 17347?
The main body of the TAF for all airports must be forecasting at least the required ceiling and visibility.
The conditional phrase for the destination and first alternate must not be forecasting ceiling or visibility lower than 50% of that required.
The second alternate airport TAF must be forecasting at least the derived alternate minimums and not have any conditional phrases indicating lower than that required.
All of the above
When must SMGCS Surface Guidance Movement and Control System procedures be used?
Surface visibility below 1200 RVR
If equipment or components are missing from the aircraft but do not affect safe operation, they can be deferred in accordance with the:
CDL
Which of the following items IS permitted in a passenger’s carry-on baggage only?
Alcoholic beverages exceeding 70% ABV
A lighter which does not contain unabsorbed liquid fuel
Small arms ammunition
Spare lithium batteries for portable electronic devices
a lighter which does not contain unabsorbed liquid fuel
spare lithium batteries for portable electronic devices
What is the maximum amount of small arms ammunition permitted in check baggage per person and in total?
11lbs per package limited to 110lbs per total aircraft
Which statement is true regarding the carriage of motorized wheelchairs powered by lithium ion batteries?
The battery must be removed from the wheelchair and carried carry-on baggage.
T/F The captain is not required to be notified if the aircraft is carrying Category B infectious/biological substances.
False
The preferred configuration for deicing operations is:
Engines running and APU off
How many ARTCCs exist over the continental US?
20
What equipment is required for flight in RVSM airspace?
1 Autopilot, 2 ADCs, 2 Mode-C Transponders, 1 Altitude Alerting System
T/F Canada: No person may operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more that 200kts if the aircraft is below 3,000’ AGL within 10NM of a controlled aerodrome.
True
T/F Canada: No person shall operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than 200kts if the aircraft is below 3,000’ AGL within 10NM of a controlled aerodrome.
T/F ATC can waive the above speed restriction.
True, True
In Canada, the following IAP fix reports are mandatory:
IAP Outbound
IAP Inbound
Intercepting the FAC Inbound
Canada: General declarations
Submitted electronically
Not required from the US to Canada
Mexico: T/F The maximum airspeed is 250kts within 30NM from any airport at or below 10,000’AGL
True
Mexico: T/F The maximum airspeed is 200kts when operating IFR within 10NM of an aerodrome when below 3,000’AGL.
True
Mexico: Change to QNE (29.92) when climbing through
18,500’ MSL
Mexico: Change to QNH (local altimeter setting) when descending through
FL195
Classes of Airspace in Mexico
A FL200and above D TMA Terminal Control Area E Controlled airways which extend from the MEA to FL200 F Advisory Service Areas G Uncontrolled Airspace
During ground deicing, the holdover time begins
At the start of the final application of the deicing/anti-ice process
As a FO, what is the lowest visibility you can perform a takeoff?
1SM
The 3 methods used to defer maintenance discrepancies are
MEL, CDL, and NEF Manuals
As a FO, can you perform a takeoff using less than standard condition, provided the CA is an IOE check airman?
Yes
If a pilot has participated in scuba diving, they must wait to fly until
24hrs
A dispatch release is valid from
2hrs from the proposed time of departure
Marginal Conditions
500-1 Above the lowest landing minimums
Wait __ hrs before returning to work after donating blood
72hrs
T/F: Exemption 17347 - the main body of the forecast must show the required weather
True
T/F Exemption 17347 - The remarks section of the TAF may show no less than 50% of the required weather (per the derived alternate mins)
True
Refueling with one engine running is permitted T/F
False
The major responsibility for Operation Control of a Mesa Airlines aircraft is:
The Director of Operations and the PIC
Pre-takeoff contamination check (related to holdover times) is allowed T/F
False
What limitations exist for a high minimums captain?
add 100’ and 1/2SM to landing minimums, alternate not below 300-1
What limitations exist for a low-time SIC?
WXCGVORS Windsear X-wind over 15kts Contaminated rwy G braking action less than “Good” Visibility less than 3/4 (1 for Mesa) Other per PIC RVR 4,000’ (5,000’ for Mesa) Special Airport
What are the minimum IOE requirements?
25hrs
What does an “O” mean in the remarks of a MEL?
The operation can be completed by a crewmember
T/F Mesa will provide a child restraint system
False
A passenger must be at least ___ years old to occupy an exit row seat
15
The illusion experienced with a nose up pitch during acceleration
stomatogravic illusion
CAT II mins are as low as
1200 RVR
Can CAT II approaches be flown with the tower closed?
No
If there is cargo on board, we must be dispatched within ___ minutes from landing.
60
when conducting a CAT II approach, the DH is determined using the
radar altimeter
Takeoff is authorized down to ___ RVR if 2 transmissometers are operational
500 RVR
the min vis for the FO to takeoff is
1SM
What equipment is required for RVSM?
tbd
What equipment is required for CAT II?
tbd
What is the Mesa Airlines Emergency Procedures ABCs?
ATIS
ATC
Advise FA
Build
Bug - FMS Frequencies, Minimums, Speeds
Brief
Checklist
Security Briefing Items
The security briefing prior to each flight provides the crew with the opportunity to become familiar with the unique circumstances which may affect the flight and how the ISC In-Flight Security Coordinator will handle security issues.
The following must be covered during the security portion of the crew member briefing:
- Passenger manifest review (LEO/SSR)
- FAM, FFDO, and LEO identification
- The preferred methods of signaling duress in the cabin
- Security directives/alerts
- Question/answer
- See something, say something
What are the 4 security threat levels and what triggers each level?
Threat Level 1: Disruptive, Suspicious behavior
Action: lockdown if away from gate
Notify: GSC, SOC, LEO, TSA
Threat Level 2: Physically Abusive behavior
Action: lockdown if away from gate, divert flight
Notify: GSC, SOC, LEO, TSA
Threat Level 3: Life-threatening behavior
Action: at gate disable aircraft and escape, divert flight and lockdown squawk 7700 or 7500
Notify: PA, GSC, SOC, LEO, TSA
Threat Level 4: Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck
Action: same as threat level 3
After a security related incident has been reported, can you depart if it has been resolved?
No. TSA must provide permission to depart whenever a LEO has been requested even if the request is later canceled. Permission is not required for non-security related issues (drunk passenger, smoking passenger…)
LRBL if landing is not possible within 30min
Descend to maintain no more than 1PSI difference, slow to approach speed and configure for landing, disable all non-essential power to the nearby area
As close as possible to the center of the second row window from the last window on the aircraft left.
Pax should be removed from the last row and 4 rows fore of the LRBL.
What direction is RVSM airspace flown?
Odd Altitudes: FL 290-410 fly east
Even Altitudes: FL 300-400 fly west
East is Odd, West is Even
What equipment is required for RVSM operation?
Autopilot, altitude alerting system, 2 transponders (1 must be operational), 2 ADCs (both must be operational)
What is an aircraft upset defined as? Be specific.
Pitch Up > 25deg
Pitch Down > 10deg
Bank Angle > 45deg
Within the above parameters but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions
What is the best method to avoid wake turbulence in flight?
Fly above the flight path or fly 1,000’ below the flight path (depending on aircraft class)
How would you recover from a nose-low inverted stall?
PUSH to reduce AOA, then once the wings are unloaded (and you’re flying inverted), roll wings level
Where are the pilot manual effective dates checked - which documents?
MCL Manual Currency List
APCL Aircraft Publications Currency List
What is required to act as PIC or SIC at Mesa?
No pilot may act as Pilot-in-Command (PIC) or Second-in-Command (SIC) at Mesa Airlines, Inc. unless the pilot:
1. Holds an airline transport pilot (ATP) certificate.
a. A Pilot must be 23 years of age if the ATP certificate was obtained under aeronautical experience requirements of 61.159, 61.161, or 61.163; or
b. A pilot must 21 years of age if an ATP was obtained under aeronautical experience requirements of 61.160.
2. Holds an FAA issued appropriate aircraft type rating for the aircraft being flown.
3. Is employed by Mesa Airlines, Inc.
B. The Pilot-in-Command (PIC) must be at least age 23 and have 1,000 hours as Second-in-Command (SIC) in operations unless qualified prior to July 31, 2013. A pilot may credit 500 hours of military time obtained as Pilot-in-Command (PIC) of a multi-engine turbine-powered, fixed wing airplane in operation requiring more than one pilot.
What currency is required as an ATP holder?
- Mesa Airlines, Inc. requires that no person may serve as PIC or Second- in-Command (SIC) if they have not met the required proficiency and currency requirements. It is the responsibility of crewmembers to advise their supervisors if they are approaching non-currency or flight duty time legality limitations.
No PIC or first officer may serve in that capacity under FAR 121 unless they have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an approved visual simulator or in the type airplane in which that person is to serve within the preceding 90 days, in accordance with FAR 121.439.
Pilots are required to satisfactorily complete the online portion of their Recurrent Ground Training on or before their Due Month; for AQP, on or before the fifth month of any AQP online training cycle (i.e. May and November). Permission must be obtained from the Chief Pilot to extend this training into their Late Grace Month.
When can first officers with less than 100hrs not make any takeoffs or landings?
In accordance with FAR 121.438(a), if the first officer has fewer than 100 hours of flight time as SIC in operations under FAR 121 in the type airplane being flown, and the PIC is not an appropriately qualified check pilot, the PIC must make all takeoffs and landings in the following situations:
WXCGVORS
a. At special airports designated by the Administrator or at special airports designated by the certificate holder.
b. In any of the following conditions:
1 The prevailing visibility value in the latest weather report for the airport is at or below 3⁄4 mile. NOTE: All takeoffs with less than one mile visibility will be made by the PIC.
2 The runway visual range for the runway to be used is at or below 4,000 feet. NOTE: All takeoffs with less than 5,000 RVR will be made by the PIC.
3 The runway to be used has water, snow, slush or similar conditions that may adversely affect airplane performance.
4 The braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be less than “good.”
5 The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots.
6 Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
7 Any other condition in which the PIC determines it to be prudent to exercise the PICs prerogative.
For Special Airport Qualifications refer to section 7.34 Special Airport Qualification Procedures.
What is Mesa’s limit on scuba diving?
Crewmembers shall not participate in scuba diving within a 24 hour period prior to reporting to duty.
What is Mesa’s limitation on blood donations?
It is recommended that crewmembers not donate blood unless it is absolutely necessary. In no case will a crewmember report for duty within 72 hours of giving blood.
What is Mesa’s limitation regarding benadryl?
Crewmembers must not participate in any operation of Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft if they have taken either Benedryl or Phyribenzamine within the preceding 12 hours.
What is Mesa’s limitation regarding the use of antihistamines?
The use of any over-the-counter antihistamine cold remedy or any other over- the-counter antihistamine within 12 hours before flight is prohibited. The use of any prescription antihistamine within 12 hours before flight is prohibited except in consultation with an Aviation Medical Examiner.
What are Mesa’s limitation regarding eye dilation?
Belladonna, aanthine, atrophine or atrophine-like drugs are often given for dilating pupils of the eye for some internal disorders. The dilation of the pupils has a serious effect on vision. Therefore, these drugs should not be used unless absolutely necessary. If they are used, flight crewmembers should not return to flight duty within 12 hours after use unless a medical release is obtained.
What is the FAR limit and Mesa’s limitation regarding the use of alcohol?
According to the FARs, no person will act as a flight crewmember, flight attendant, flight instructor, aircraft dispatcher, ground security coordinator, aviation screener, air traffic controller, or perform aircraft maintenance / preventative maintenance duties:
- While under the influence of alcohol or drugs of any kind, or under the residual effects of alcohol or prescription drugs, that might affect the performance of duties.
- Within eight hours after consumption of any alcoholic beverage.
- While having a 0.04% by weight or greater alcohol in the blood content.
Mesa Airlines, Inc. company policy prohibits any employee from performing safety/security sensitive duties while having a 0.02% by weight or greater alcohol in the blood content.
Mesa Airlines, Inc. prohibits all employees in safety sensitive positions from consuming any alcoholic beverage within twelve hours of duty.
When does Mesa require notification of Medical Certificate renewal?
A crewmember’s FAA Medical Certificate that expires in a given month must be renewed by the 25th day of that month unless prior arrangements are made with the Chief Pilot’s office. It is the crewmember’s responsibility to send a legible copy of the new medical certificate to the Manager of Crew Qualifications no later than the 25th day of the month, 23:59 PHX time (unless prior arrangements have been made with the Chief Pilot’s office). It is recommended that the pilot contact the Manager of Crew Qualifications to ensure that the certificate copy has been received. Failure to provide a current medical certificate to Mesa Airlines, Inc. without an extension granted by the crewmember’s supervisor will result in immediate suspension of the pilot from active line status.
a. Fax: (888) 228-4659.
b. Voice: (888) 269-7893.
c. Email: crewquals@mesa-air.com.
Can you work without a passport?
No. All crewmembers are required to have a valid passport in their possession while on duty.
What procedures are in place if a pilot loses/misplaces their airman or medical certificates?
When a pilot loses/misplaces their airman or medical certificate(s) prior to a scheduled departure and insufficient time exists to contact the FAA in Oklahoma City, Airman Certification Branch, the following procedures will apply:
Following positive verification of the pilot’s identity, the Crew Scheduling Supervisor or authorized authority will confirm the pilot’s legality and issue the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Temporary Airman Certification Letter (Form #OP002). This letter will serve as the pilot’s temporary certificate(s) for a period of 72 hours from the time of issue.
A pilot who operates a flight using this procedure must ensure that a request for a legal replacement document from the FAA confirming the applicable certificate is received within 72 hours of the initiation of any flight conducted. The pilot must send a copy of the document received from the FAA to the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Manager of Crew Qualifications within 24 hours of the receipt of that document. This request may be made at the FAA’s website (www.faa.gov).
This procedure may only be exercised when the affected pilot operates totally within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia.
What are the 4 Pillars of Safety (SMS Safety Management System)?
Safety Policy
Safety Policy is a statement of commitment to Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s safety objectives, assigned responsibilities and standards through its management and employees. See the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Safety Policy Statement at the beginning of the manual following the cover page.
Safety Risk Management (SRM)
SRM component provides a decision-making process for identifying hazards and mitigating risk based on a thorough understanding of Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s operating environment. SRM includes decision-making regarding management acceptance of risk to operations. The SRM component is Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s way of fulfilling the commitment to consider risk in operations and to reduce it to an acceptable level. In that sense, SRM is a design process, a way to incorporate risk controls into operations or to redesign controls where existing controls are not meeting expectation.
Safety Assurance (SA) SA provides the necessary processes to meet safety objectives and ensure mitigations, or risk controls, developed under SRM are working. SA is a process to watch what is going on and review what has happened to ensure that objectives are being met. Thus, SA requires monitoring and measuring safety performance of operational processes and continuously improving the level of safety performance.
Safety Promotion
Safety Promotion, the last component, is designed to ensure employees have a solid foundation regarding their safety responsibilities, the safety policies and expectations, reporting procedures, and a familiarity with risk controls. Thus, training and communication are the two key areas of safety promotion.
What is the SMS Safety Management System?
SMS is a CFR Part 5 regulatory requirement and an FAA approved program designed to make commercial aviation safer by allowing the technical information available from various programs to be reviewed on a regular basis to identify trends and potential hazards to safe, efficient operations. Recommendations are made from the review committee which will be integrated into the airline training programs and manual library.
What is FOQA?
The fundamental objective of the Flight Operations Quality Assurance (FOQA) Program is to identify, reduce and eliminate, if necessary, safety risks, as well as improving compliance to Mesa Airlines, Inc. Standard Operating Procedures and the Federal Aviation Regulations. More information about this program can be found in the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Safety Program Manual.
What is AQP Reporting?
The Advanced Qualification Program (AQP) authorizes airlines to develop proficiency-based training programs based on an analysis of those tasks in which a crewmember must be proficient to safely operate transport category aircraft utilizing Crew Resource Management/Threat and Error Management. Data gathered from the results are used to enhance training and awareness.
What is ASAP?
The Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP) is based on a three party agreement and safety partnership between the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), MASA and the Air Line Pilot Association (ALPA). Each party is committed to improving safety by applying a systematic approach comprised of technical operations personnel promptly identifying and correcting potential safety hazards.
b. The primary purpose of the MASA Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP) is to identify safety events and implement corrective measures that reduce the opportunity for safety to be compromised. This ASAP applies to all pilots of MASA and only to events that occur while acting in that capacity. Reports of events involving apparent non-compliance with 14 CFR that is not inadvertent or that appears to involve an intentional disregard for safety, criminal activity, substance abuse, controlled substances, alcohol or intentional falsification are excluded from the program.
c. The ASAP Submitter Guide is available on the company website under the Safety tab. More information about this program can be found in Chapter 3 of the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Safety Program Manual, found on the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Technical Publications website.
d. The Pilot ASAP Memorandum of Understanding (MOU), which includes all information associated with the Pilot ASAP program, is available on the Mesa Airlines, Inc. ASAP home page at: http:// mesa-safety.wbat.org/.
ASAP Reports do not replace Occurrence Reporting requirements.
What is the Continuing Analysis and Surveillance System?
The intent of the Continuing Analysis and Surveillance System is to effectively monitor, analyze and implement changes to processes and procedures related to the performance and effectiveness of the inspection and maintenance programs, and any alterations to those programs.
Performance goals and statistics are set by codeshare partners and satisfaction of these goals is an integral part of providing exemplary customer service to the passengers onboard Mesa Airlines, Inc. flights. The following performance figures are tracked carefully and used to rate Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s performance as an air-carrier:
- Departure D-0 - The departure of flights at or before scheduled departure time.
- STAR/Head Start Flights - The on-time performance of those flights operated as first flights of the day (also defined as all flights departing prior to 0900 LCL time).
- Arrival A-14 - The arrival of flights no later than 14 minutes past scheduled arrival time.
- Minimum Service Times - The maximum amount of time an aircraft turn can be accomplished in for the delay to be coded as a late inbound aircraft. Activities during MST operations should be in accordance with documents provided on the Pilot Lounge. Flights not meeting MST guidelines will be coded as a delayed flight due to the root cause of the delayed turn.
- Controllable Completion Factor - the percentage of flights operated that are not canceled due to circumstance within the control of Mesa Airlines, Inc. This does not include those cancellations due to weather or damage caused to the aircraft by personnel of other than Mesa Airlines, Inc.
- Total Completion Factor - the ratio of flights operated to flights scheduled.
- Customer Service Scores - Feedback provided by passengers booking on Mesa Airlines, Inc. operated flights are compiled and converted into a score based on the likelihood of a passenger to recommend the service of our airline to a friend or acquaintance.
Who is responsible for preflight planning, delay, and dispatch release of a flight?
The Pilot-in-Command (PIC) and the aircraft dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning, delay and dispatch release of a flight in compliance with the Federal Aviation Regulations and the MASA036A Operations Specifications.
- The aircraft dispatcher is responsible for:
a. Monitoring the progress of each flight.
b. Issuing necessary information for the safety of the flight.
c. Canceling or redispatching a flight, if in the opinion of the aircraft dispatcher or the PIC, the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released. - The PIC of an aircraft is responsible for:
a. The command of the aircraft and crew and the safety of the passengers, crewmembers, cargo and airplane.
b. The full operational control and authority in the operation of the aircraft without limitation over other crewmembers and their duties during flight time, whether or not the PIC holds valid certificates authorizing the performance of the duties of those crewmembers.
c. In-flight Security Coordinator for all in-flight events.
d. The PIC is responsible for continuously monitoring navigational performance and verifying present position, by using navigational accuracy, including RNP, FMS alert and/or navigational radio accuracy checks.
e. The PIC is responsible for monitoring weather information during en route phase of flight, to include current weather and forecast for destination airport, or any alternate airport as required.
f. Verification of airworthiness of each aircraft that is assigned.
1) No open discrepancies.
2) ARROW.
a) Airworthiness Certificate
b) Registration
c) Radio License
d) Operating Limitations
e) Weight and Balance
3) AML onboard – tail number verified, weight and balance, VOR check.
Who is responsible for operational control?
Mesa Airlines, Inc. is responsible for Operational Control
Operations always retains full responsibility for these functions. Operational Control is authorized both individually and collectively by the Director of Operations to the following personnel:
a. Chief Pilot.
b. Regional Chief Pilot(s).
c. System Operations Control (Dispatch) who communicate to the personnel listed above.
The specific operational control system utilized by Mesa Airlines, Inc. is the Flight Dispatch System.
1. System Operations Control (SOC)
System Operations Control is the central clearing house for operational information for Mesa Airlines, Inc. All pilots are required to contact System Operations Control when necessary to obtain the most up-to-date information and to provide information that could affect the operations of Mesa Airlines, Inc. Such information will include but is not limited to: severe or unforecast weather, weather below the limits allowed by the FARs or Operations Specifications, any unsafe condition that might affect any Mesa Airlines, Inc. flight, any emergency condition, any condition of a crewmember including the absence of a crewmember if known and any condition of a Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft that would require any maintenance action. Pilots will contact SOC for information concerning the status of flights including cancellations, delays, reassignments and plane swaps. SOC will attempt to notify crewmembers of cancellations and delays as soon as the delay or cancellation is known. However, Mesa Airlines, Inc. procedure requires crewmembers to contact SOC to confirm the cancellation/delay and course of action including reassignment or release from duty. If crewmembers are informed of a cancellation or delay, they are required to contact SOC. No crewmember is released from duty unless released by SOC.
How does SOC maintain contact with flights?
System Operations Control maintains operational air-to-ground communication through the following: 1. Station Frequencies. 2. ARINC. 3. ACARS.
FDP Flight Duty Period
Flight Duty Period (FDP) means a period that begins when a flight crewmember is required to report for duty with the intention of conducting a flight, a series of flights or positioning or ferry flights, and ends when the aircraft is parked after the last flight and there is no intention for further aircraft movement by the same flight crewmember. A FDP includes the duty performed by the flight crew on behalf of Mesa Airlines, Inc. that occurs before a flight segment or between flight segments without a required intervening rest period. Examples of tasks that are part of the FDP include deadhead transportation, training conducted in an aircraft or flight simulator and airport/standby reserve, if the above tasks occur before a flight segment or between flight segments without an intervening rest period.
Theater
Theater means a geographical area in which the distance between the flight crewmember’s FDP departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60° longitude.
Acclimated
Acclimated means a condition in which a flight crewmember has been in a theater for 72 hours or has been given at least 36 consecutive hours free from duty.
Augmented
Augmented flight crew means a flight crew that has more than the minimum number of flight crewmembers required by the airplane type certificate to operate the aircraft to allow a flight crewmember to be replaced by another qualified flight crewmember for in-flight rest. Mesa Airlines, Inc. operates Unaugmented flights only.
Window of Circadian Low
Window of Circadian Low means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between 0200 and 0559 during a physiological night.
Can a crewmember accept an assignment that exceeds the FDP table limits?
Mesa Airlines, Inc. may not assign and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment for a flight operation if the scheduled FDP will exceed the limits in the FDP Table (refer to Table 2-1) in this section.
Except as provided for in 14 CFR Part 117.15, Mesa Airlines, Inc. may not assign and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment for an unaugmented flight operation if the scheduled FDP will exceed the limits of 14 CFR Part 117.13 in the FDP Table in this section.
- If the flight crewmember is not acclimated:
a. The maximum FDP in the FDP Table in this section is reduced by 30 minutes.
b. The applicable FDP is based on the local time at the theater in which the flight crewmember was last acclimated.
Rest Period
- Before beginning any reserve or FDP, a flight crewmember must be given at least 30 consecutive hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive hour period.
- Mesa Airlines, Inc. will not assign, and no crewmember may accept, a Mesa Airlines, Inc. flight unless the pilot has been given a rest period of 10 consecutive hours immediately before beginning the reserve or FDP, measured from the time the flight crewmember is released from duty. The 10 hour rest period must provide the flight crewmember with a minimum of eight uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity.
- Mesa Airlines, Inc. may not assign and no flight crewmember may accept assignment to any reserve or duty with Mesa Airlines, Inc. during any required rest period.
- If a flight crewmember determines that a rest period under paragraph E.(2) of this section will not provide eight uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity, the flight crewmember must notify Mesa Airlines, Inc. immediately. The flight crewmember cannot report for the assigned FDP until he or she receives a rest period specified in paragraph E.(2) of this section.
- If a flight crewmember engaged in deadhead transportation exceeds the applicable FDP in the FDP Table, the flight crewmember must be given a rest period equal to the length of the deadhead transportation but not less than the required rest in paragraph E.(2) of this section before beginning a FDP.
What is the report time based on for the FDP?
- Mesa Airlines, Inc. may not schedule and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment or continue an assigned FDP, if the total flight time will exceed (14 CFR Part 117.11):
The report time is based on the time at the crewmember’s home base. For example, if the crew was assigned to show at 0530L in CLT, but they are based in PHX, their show time would be adjusted to 0230 (during standard time) or 0330 (during Daylight Saving Time). In either case, they could only fly for eight hours.
3. A flight is not permitted to depart if any ground delay will cause the flight crew to exceed flight time limitations upon landing at the destination. If unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff that are beyond Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s control, such as weather deviations, ATC delays and/ or holding, a flight crewmember may exceed the maximum flight time specified in the Maximum Flight Time Table in this section and the cumulative flight time limits described previously to the extent necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate, as appropriate.
The maximum FDP hours for line holders per the FDP Table is based on the number of flight segments and the scheduled report time. As with flight time limitations, the report time is based on the time at the crewmember’s home base.
*Deadheads do not count as flight segments. *Deadheads prior to flight segments count as part of flight duty period.
For purposes of Table B, the number of flight segments refers to number of scheduled flight segments. Diversions, gate returns and air returns do not count as a flight segment for Table B purposes.
If a known delay (i.e., late boarding, late arriving aircraft with subsequent late departure) will take the crew beyond the FDP limit, but not to exceed 2 hours (120 minutes), prior to push back:
a. The captain will confirm with the first officer that both crewmembers are “fit for duty.”
b. The PIC MUST contact dispatch
If an unknown delay will take the crew beyond the FDP limit after pushback:
a. The PIC will confirm with the first officer that both crewmembers are “fit for duty.”
1) The PIC MUST contact dispatch
If after pushback where an extension of FDP has been issued/ accepted, and an unforeseen further delay is encountered, and the flight crew feels that the FDP extension is no longer possible, the PIC MUST contact dispatch via telephone, email, ACARS, text message or any other suitable method that indicates a time stamp with the statement, “We are not fit for duty, and we can no longer accept a FDP extension.” After returning to gate, and when time permits, the flight crew will contact Crew Tracking.
If an unknown delay will take the crew beyond FDP limit after takeoff:
a. After all critical phases of flight have been accomplished and safety permitting, the PIC will confirm with the first officer that both crewmembers are “fit for duty.”
b. After all critical phases of flight have been accomplished and safety permitting, the PIC MUST contact Dispatch. If the FDP extension will exceed 2 hours (120 minutes), the flight may continue to the destination, or alternate, if delays are encountered after departure due to weather deviations, ATC delays and/or holding and the flight crew will exceed the extended FDP.
An FDP extension greater than 30 minutes may occur only once prior to receiving the prescribed rest period (at least 30 hours rest within the past 168 consecutive hour period).
What is the FDP limit for short call reserve?
For short call reserve:
a. The reserve availability period may not exceed 14 hours.
b. For a flight crewmember who has completed a reserve availability period, a pilot cannot be scheduled and no flight crewmember may accept an assignment of a reserve availability period unless the flight crewmember receives the required rest in 14 CFR Part 117.25(e). Reference paragraph E.(2) of this section.
c. For an unaugmented operation, the total number of hours a flight crewmember may spend in a FDP and a reserve availability period may not exceed the lesser of the maximum applicable FDP in the FDP Table in this section plus four hours, or 16 hours, as measured from the beginning of the reserve availability period.
4. For long call reserve, if Crew Tracking contacts a flight crewmember to assign him or her to a FDP that will begin before and operate into the flight crewmember’s window of circadian low, the flight crewmember must receive a 12 hour notice of report time from Mesa Airlines, Inc.
5. A pilot’s reserve status may be shifted from long-call to short-call only if the flight crewmember receives a rest period as provided in E.(2) of this section. (14 CFR Part 117.25(e))
What is a Split Duty?
Split Duty (14 CFR Part 117.5)
For an unaugmented operation only, if a pilot is provided with a rest opportunity (an opportunity to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her FDP, the time that the pilot spends in the suitable accommodation is not part of their FDP if all of the following conditions are met:
1. The rest opportunity is provided between the hours of 22:00 and 05:00 local time.
2. The time spent in the suitable accommodation is at least three hours, measured from the time that the crew reaches the suitable accommodation.
3. The rest opportunity is scheduled before the beginning of the FDP in which that rest opportunity is taken.
4. The rest opportunity that the pilot is actually provided may not be less than the rest opportunity that was scheduled.
5. The rest opportunity is not provided until the first segment of the FDP has been completed.
6. The combined time of the FDP and the rest opportunity provided in this section does not exceed 14 hours.
All flight crewmembers share a joint responsibility with Mesa Airlines, Inc. to track accurate time and duty records. How should you verify the times are accurate?
b. All flight crewmembers will be granted access to Crew Web through Mesa Airlines, Inc.’s website, www.mesa-air.com.
c. All flight crewmembers are required to log into crew web to reconcile flight times, verify codings and report any discrepancies. Any discrepancy must be reported within five days.
When must a FDP exceedance be reported to the FAA?
The Director of Operations, or designee, must report the following to the FAA within 10 days:
a. Any FDP that exceeded the maximum FDP permitted in the FDP Table in this section, as applicable, by more than 30 minutes; and
b. Any flight time that exceeded the maximum flight time limits permitted in the FDP Table in this section and in the Maximum Flight Time Table in this section and 14 CFR Part 117.11, as applicable.
c. Any FDP or flight time that exceeded the cumulative limits specified in 14 CFR Part 117.23.
When and where should crewmembers check in for a scheduled flight?
Crewmembers will check in for their trips up to 24 hours in advance of their scheduled show time, but no later than two hours prior to scheduled show time via Crew Web.
What should be done if the captain doesn’t arrive at the gate 45min prior to departure?
In the event that the PIC has not reported at the time and location specified on the schedule within 10 minutes of the assigned showtime, the first officer will be responsible for contacting System Operations Control.
It is suggested that crews should plan to arrive at the aircraft at least one hour prior to departure on days where deice operations are probable. If conditions warrant, stations will deice the aircraft 45 minutes prior to departure at the gate. Pooling or dripping deice fluid can cause a safety hazard while performing preflight duties.
What are the components of the preflight briefing?
a. Crew coordination
1) Introductions (FULL).
2) Verification of crewmembers with release (FULL/ ABBREVIATED).
3) Passenger load expected/expected passenger distribution (FULL/ABBREVIATED).
4) Review of emergency signals (FULL/ABBREVIATED).
5) Cargo load expected (if applicable).
b. Mission planning
1) Flight time (FULL/ABBREVIATED).
2) Anticipated delays (FULL/ABBREVIATED).
3) Anticipated turbulence (FULL/ABBREVIATED).
4) Anticipated weather (enroute, destination) (FULL/ ABBREVIATED).
5) Special equipment in use/to be used (FULL/ ABBREVIATED).
c. Aircraft specific information
1) Repairs (FULL/ABBREVIATED).
2) MEL (FULL/ABBREVIATED).
3) Cabin equipment preflight status (FULL/ABBREVIATED-IF AIRCRAFT SWAP).
d. Security Information
1) Passenger manifest review (LEO/SSR) (FULL/ ABBREVIATED).
2) FFDO on mission (FULL/ABBREVIATED).
3) Security directives/alerts (FULL/ABBREVIATED).
4) Question/answer (FULL/ABBREVIATED).
5) Flight Deck Communication signals for use in abnormal situations or if intercom becomes inoperative (FULL).
When is sterile cockpit required?
The sterile cockpit phase of flight begins when the parking brake is released for aircraft movement and terminates after climbing through 10,000 feet MSL.
What are the levels of turbulence?
Turbulence is separated into four levels of intensity. Each different level of intensity can be described from both “reaction of the aircraft,” as well as the “reaction inside the aircraft.”
a. If turbulence is anticipated on climb out, the PIC will brief the flight attendant(s) to remain seated with seat belt and shoulder harness fastened until advised by interphone when it is safe to get up.
b. The levels of intensity are as follows:
Light - Turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude (pitch, roll, yaw). - Unsecured objects may be displaced slightly. Food service may be conducted. Little or no difficulty is encountered when walking.
Moderate - Changes in altitude and/or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. It usually causes variations in indicated airspeed. - Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. Food service must cease.
Severe - Large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. It usually causes large variations in indicated airspeed. Aircraft may be momentarily out of control. - Unsecured objects are tossed about. Food services and walking are impossible. Food service must cease immediately.
Extreme - Turbulence in which the aircraft is violently tossed about and is impossible to control. - All unsecured objects could become projectiles. Walking in the cabin is not possible. Emergency may be declared.
What is the Standard Emergency Briefing?
“If we have an engine fire or failure prior to V1, the pilot noting the malfunction will call, ‘ABORT, ABORT,’ and I (captain) will abort the takeoff. If you see any
other malfunction, bring it to my attention and I (captain) will state, ‘ABORT, ABORT,’ or ‘CONTINUE’.”
Can the first officer give the takeoff brief?
If the PIC elects to delegate the takeoff briefing to the first officer, the PIC retains full responsibility for ensuring the briefing is complete in accordance with the guidelines above.
For the takeoff brief: The first officer will inform the PIC if he has less than 100 hours in the aircraft for the purpose of compliance with FAR 121.438(a) for SIC limitations. Refer to Chapter 1 of this manual for a list of limitations.
When should the DP be referenced for rate of climb requirements?
Crews will review any Rate of Climb (ROC) requirements for the SID (DP) to be used based on anticipated ground speed by referencing the appropriate table for the chart. Briefing will include the requirement to monitor ROC until reaching the applicable altitude on the chart. The conversion equation is: ground speed divided by 60 multiplied by climb gradient in feet per nautical mile is equal to vertical speed required (GS/60xFPNM=VS).
What items are required to be in the pilot’s flight bag?
Airman Certificate Medical Certificate FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operating Permit Mesa ID EFB - FD Pro Manuals Training Folder Flashlight Extra Pair of Corrective Lenses Passport Pen Logbook
What kind of flashlights must be onboard the aircraft?
There must be at least two flashlights (two “D” cell or equivalent) onboard the aircraft.
How must the iPad be operated?
The iPad must be operated in “Airplane Mode” only, with the orientation lock activated.
4. The iPad must be operated using the most current version of Apple iOS.
When the EFB is not in use, it must be stowed in the storage bin only, it is never permitted to be loose in the flight deck.
Apple iBooks or Adobe Reader applications may be accessed for Mesa Airlines, Inc. manuals reference during non-critical phases of flight only, including when the aircraft is stationary with the parking brake applied. Only Mesa- supplied applications are permitted to be used.
EFBs must be brought to the flight deck at the beginning of each working day with a full charge (95% charge or greater). No crewmember may commence any flight segment with less than a 40% charge. EFB internal batteries will be considered as primary power. The AC outlet on the aircraft shall not be used to charge or power the EFB. Reference the Failure procedure in this section if the EFB is not sufficiently charged.
Use of Wi-Fi, data, cellular network and/or Bluetooth (uploading or downloading) is not permitted after the main cabin door has been closed.
a. In the event that one crewmember’s EFB or iPad mount fails in flight, the crew shall rely on the use of the of the other crewmember’s EFB and/or paper charts (as applicable) for enroute navigation and approach phases of flight.
1) Once on the ground if not in domicile, the crewmember will print the necessary charts to complete the flight(s) to a domicile and advise SOC that charts will be carried according to the approved procedure. This will be logged in the remarks section on the crewmember’s Flight Release of those flights as; “Captain or First Officer’s EFB is inoperative, paper charts have been provided for this leg.”
2) Once in a domicile, the crewmember must contact a Regional Chief Pilot for a spare iPad if available. If a spare iPad is unavailable, the crewmember will be replaced.
MASA 036A Operations Specifications on iPad EFB are for reference only. The official copy of the MASA 036A Operations Specifications resides in electronic form on the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Technical Publications Website.
Can crewmembers stow bags behind the CA and FO seats or between the aft center pedestal and the cockpit door?
No. Flight crews are prohibited from storing their carry-on bags (i.e. lunch boxes, laptop bags, etc.) behind the flight compartment seats or between the pedestal and the flight deck door. Rollerboards or luggage is prohibited from being stored anywhere in the flight deck.
How many lap children can be held per adult?
There may only be one lap child per adult.
How can the seat be used as a floatation device?
Each passenger bottom seat cushion serves as a flotation device for use after ditching. To operate:
A. Pull up on the cushion to remove it from the seat.
B. Take the cushion to the nearest usable exit.
C. Place arms through the straps to hug it to chest when exiting the aircraft.
Unaccompanied Minor
A UM is a minor (or child) who has not reached their thirteenth birthday, but who is five years or older. Those who have reached their thirteenth birthday travel as an adult without restrictions in accordance with Domestic General Rule 50.
B. Children under five years of age are not accepted for unaccompanied travel.
Can the jumpseat be occupied if there are seats available in the main cabin?
No, unless otherwise indicated in this section, the flight deck jumpseat may only be occupied by authorized individuals if no seat is available in the aircraft cabin. (with exceptions including non-line pilots and dispatchers)
If a person is denied flight deck access in the interest of safety, what must be done?
A Mesa Airlines, Inc. Safety Report Form must be completed any time flight deck access is denied in the interest of safety.
Can flight attendants sit in the pilot seats?
No. Flight attendants are not permitted to occupy either the Captain’s or First Officer’s seat.
What form will an ASI present to jumpseat a flight?
ASI must present valid FAA Form 110A (Aviation Safety Inspector’s Credential).
c. The ASI must be given free and uninterrupted access to the pilot’s compartment of that aircraft.
d. The ASI is not required to state the purpose of the observation nor are crewmembers allowed to question the purpose of the jumpseat occupation.
e. The ASI is NOT restricted from international flights and may occupy the Flight Deck jumpseat on any international flight.
The Form 110A consists of:
- Name and picture of the ASI.
- Form number.
- A blue text background.
- An expiration date.
Who is responsible for briefing a jumpseater?
The PIC is responsible for determining that all individuals using the jumpseat have complied with the pertinent provisions of this section and, further, that jumpseat riders are thoroughly briefed prior to flight on sterile cockpit procedures, evacuation, oxygen use, the selection of personal electronic devices to the off position, and any other information pertinent to the flight.
When is the priority cutoff for a jumpseater?
The priority cutoff for the jumpseat will be 15 minutes prior to departure (i.e. a junior pilot reports 55 minutes prior to departure, then a senior pilot arrives 10 minutes prior). The junior pilot will get the jumpseat.
What is the jumpseat priority on Mesa aircraft dba United?
Jumpseat Priority United Express Flights (Mesa operated)
1) Mesa pilots D.O.H.
2) Mesa dispatchers D.O.H.*
3) United Express / United Airlines / Continental Airlines pilots T.O.C.
4) OAL pilots T.O.C.
5) United Express / United Airlines / Continental Airlines dispatchers T.O.C.
6) OAL dispatchers T.O.C.
* Dispatchers may only bump pilots when doing their required FAA observation rides.
The following are not authorized to occupy the Flight Deck jumpseat on international flights:
a. Mesa Airlines, Inc. pilots who are not conducting company business.
b. Mesa Airlines, Inc. maintenance personnel.
c. Dispatch personnel.
d. Pilots, dispatchers, or maintenance personnel of other airlines.
What must be done if the crew is notified of dangerous goods onboard?
The crew is notified of dangerous goods, the PIC must advise Dispatch via ACARS or telephone of the contents.
Can COMAIL and COMAT be used as ballast?
Comail and Comat used as ballast must be counted as actual weight and recorded only as “Comail” or “Comat”.
Can service animals be seated in an exit row?
Service animals and the passenger may not be seated in an exit seat.
Service animals may need to be in a person’s lap to perform a service and therefore may sit in that person’s lap for all phases of flight including ground movement, take off and landing provided that the service animal is no larger than a lap-held child (a child who has not reached his or her second birthday).
What are some limitations on refueling?
Aircraft engines must never be operated or running during fuel servicing (also referred to as “Hot Refueling”). All engines must be shut down during fueling.
The APU should not be started or shutdown intentionally during refueling. Should an auto shutdown occur ground power should be connected to continue or stop the refueling and restart the APU if possible.
Can the cabin door be closed if the aircraft is still being fueled?
No. At all times during fueling with passengers onboard the aircraft, a means of egress must be available and maintained. When at the gate, the main cabin door must remain open and the jetbridge or airstairs connected, or the door-stairs and handrails extended, if equipped.
External power should not be connected or disconnected during fuel servicing.
In the event of a medium or large fuel spill:
1. The fueler will alert the crew to evacuate during a spill or fire.
When must personal electronic devices be OFF per GOM?
Both the captain and first officer shall verify that personal electronic devices are selected to the OFF position during taxi, takeoff, landing and operations other than cruise below 10,000 feet MSL.
If it becomes necessary to contact Dispatch or Maintenance Control while taxing, the crew is permitted to use an electronic device provided the airplane is not in motion. Both crewmembers must verify the electronic device is selected to the OFF position before the airplane is allowed to taxi.
Who should be contacted in order to use the EEMK?
When directed by MedLink, contents of the EEMK may be accessed. In the event that MedLink cannot be contacted, the flight attendant may access the blue airways compartment of the EEMK.
Who can use the EEMK?
Other than the flight attendants, Mesa Airlines, Inc. restricts the use of the EEMK to a licensed MD, DO or licensed medical professional. Proper identification and credentials of the medical professional must be documented by the medical professional on forms located within the EEMK.
Where is the EEMK located?
E-175: Overhead bin, row 24, aircraft left.
Who is responsible for the AED seal?
The flight attendant will ensure that the AED is sealed. If seal is not present or if the seal is broken, the flight attendant will notify the PIC and take inventory of the AED contents. If all contents are present, re-seal with the seal located in the Fly-Away kit.
When could flights be operated under part 91?
E. Positioning Flights
The purpose of a positioning flight is to relocate an airworthy aircraft for future use. If a positioning flight is operated between cities regularly served by Mesa Airlines, Inc., customers may be carried. If revenue is generated during the flight, the flight must be operated under FAR Part 121. If revenue is not generated, the flight will be operated under FAR Part 91 and the remarks section of the release will be annotated “FAR Part 91 flight”. If the flight is operated under Part 91, the PIC must ensure System Operations Control and Crew Scheduling are provided the out, off, on and in times.
F. All Other Non-Revenue Flights
All ferry flights, non-revenue positioning and training flights shall be operated in accordance with Part 91 Flight Rules. System Operations Control will issue a release for these flights. Time will be allowed for a pre-flight briefing regarding the flight for any persons who will occupy the flight deck seats and their roles.
What is the prohibition on use of PEDs?
During all flight time, which commences at taxi (movement of aircraft under its own power) and ends when the aircraft is parked at the gate, no flight crewmember may use, nor may any PIC permit the use of, a personal wireless communications device (as defined in 49 U.S.C. 44732(d)) or laptop computer while at a flight crewmember duty station unless the purpose is directly related to operation of the aircraft, or for emergency, safety-related or employment-related communications, in accordance with approved air carrier procedures.
2. The PIC may allow the use of PEDs by individuals who occupy the flight deck jumpseat at the appropriate times.
Regulations allow for the use of small Portable Electronic Devices (PEDs) during all phases of flight to include taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, landing and taxi to the gate. Portable electronic devices must be in airplane mode and not able to transmit or receive signals. Larger items over two pounds (laptops, etc.) must be stowed prior to closing the main cabin door until reaching 10,000 feet and after descending through 10,000 feet until the aircraft is at the gate. Portable electronic devices cannot be unsecured (must be hand held or secured, not loose or on the seat beside them). The flight attendants must ensure that cords or accessories do not impede emergency egress. Electronic devices prohibited for use at any time during all phases of flight are radios, televisions, remote control and GPS devices.
How does aircraft WiFi work?
On E-175 the control button is located in the FWD galley above the PRA system.
1. Aircraft with Wi-Fi installed have an automatic system which enables data above 10,000 feet and automatically disables data below 10,000 feet.
2. The Wi-Fi is always on and enabled. When on, ON is illuminated green. When off, OFF is illuminated white. The flight attendant(s) will notify the captain prior to turning system on any time it has been turned off.
Wi-Fi is intended for passenger use only. All crewmembers are strictly forbidden to use Wi-Fi while on duty.
What are the prohibitions regarding lithium ion batteries?
Batteries not installed in electronic devices are not permitted in checked baggage. The rule limits passengers to not more than two large spare rechargeable lithium-ion batteries in carry-on baggage.
Carry-on baggage containing lithium-ion batteries which do not fit in the cabin must never be moved to the cargo compartment.
When will the FA open the cabin door on the EJET?
Never. A crewmember will always open and close the main cabin door with the exception of the E-JET where the door is opened by ground personnel and closed by the flight attendant.
When should the OUT/OFF/ON/IN times be transmitted to SOC?
Flight crews shall ensure their OUT, OFF, ON and IN (OOOI) times have been transmitted to SOC within 15 minutes of the triggering event. This will allow System Operations Control, Station Operations and Mesa Airlines, Inc. partners to better ascertain the status of all flight operations.
When should SMGCS charts be used? What are the 2 levels?
Whenever surface visibility is <1200 RVR, flight crews must follow the taxi routes and procedures depicted on the appropriate Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) charts for the airport (if available). They will be addressed at two levels; operations < 1200 to 600 RVR and < 600 RVR. SMGCS charts are found in the Jeppesen manual when applicable.
- In any case, during low visibility taxi (< 1200 RVR), adhere to the
following procedures:
a. All crewmembers (including jumpseat riders), will be heads up during aircraft movement.
b. System checks and tests which are normally accomplished during taxi, should be accomplished while the aircraft is stationary. Maximize holding time on a ramp or taxiway to efficiently complete required task.
c. All crewmembers must be familiar with the taxi route prior to aircraft movement. If in doubt, stop the aircraft and query ATC.
What are Runway Status Lights (RWSL)?
RWSL tell pilots and vehicle operators to stop when runways are not safe. Embedded in the pavement of runways and taxiways the lights automatically turn red when other traffic makes it dangerous to enter, cross, or begin takeoff.
Flight crews must not ignore the illuminated red in-pavement RWSLs when issued a clearance by ATC. Illuminated RWSLs mean that aircraft/ vehicles must stop or remain stopped and contact ATC for further direction relaying to ATC that the RWSLs are illuminated.
When checking the MDCU FMS page during taxi, what is important to tell the PIC?
Keep other crewmembers in the loop by announcing when going “heads down” and also reporting “back up – are there any changes?”
What lights should be illuminated for line up and wait and for takeoff?
If cleared to “Line Up and Wait,” turn on all exterior lights, except landing lights.
When “Cleared For Takeoff,” turn on all exterior lights, including landing lights.
What is a rejected takeoff above 80kts recommended for?
A rejected takeoff above 80 knots is recommended for items such as a configuration warning, any indication of fire, engine failure, thrust reverser deployment or the perception that the aircraft is unsafe, unable to fly or will collide with another aircraft.
If the rejection was due to an EICAS message or anything aircraft related a maintenance write up is required.
If a rejection was due to non aircraft related issues a write up is not required.
However, an occurrence report is always required for a rejected takeoff.
A rejected takeoff above 80 knots is not recommended solely for illumination of a MASTER CAUTION light, blown tire or nose gear vibration.
When should the lower than standard takeoff criteria be referenced?
Weather minimums used for takeoff will in no case be less than the minimums specified in the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications. (Standard conditions for takeoff under FAR 121 flight rules (two engines) are one statute mile visibility or 5000 feet Runway Visual Range (RVR).) If actual weather conditions at the departure airport are below these minimums, takeoff may be accomplished providing actual weather conditions comply with the “Lower than Standard” take off criteria set forth in Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications.
The certificate holder is authorized to use lower than standard takeoff minima in accordance with limitations and provisions of the operations specifications.
What are the RVR requirements for takeoff?
Runway Visual Range (RVR) Requirements: RVR reports, when available for a particular runway, shall be used for all takeoff operations on that runway. All takeoff operations, based on RVR, must use RVR reports from locations along the runway as follows:
- For operations at or above RVR 1600 (500m):
a. The touchdown zone (TDZ) RVR report, if available, is controlling.
b. The mid RVR report may be substituted for an unavailable TDZ report. - For operations below RVR 1600 (500m)
a. A minimum of two operative RVR reporting systems are required.
b. All available RVR reports are controlling.
Extremely long runways (e.g., DEN 16R) utilize four RVR sensors: TDZ, mid, rollout and far end. When a fourth far-end RVR value is reported, it is not controlling and is not to be used as one of the two required operative RVR systems.
TDZ RVR 1600 (500m) (beginning of takeoff roll) or visibility or Runway Visibility Value (RVV) 1/4 statute mile, provided one of the following visual aids are available:
1) High intensity runway lights (HIRL)
2) Operative runway centerline (CL) lights
3) Serviceable runway centerline marking (RCLM)
In circumstances when none of the above visual aids are available, visibility or RVV 1/4 statute mile may still be used, provided other runway markings or runway lighting provide pilots with adequate visual reference to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control throughout the takeoff roll.
For operations below RVR 1600 (500m), a minimum of two operative RVR reporting systems are required. All available RVR reports are controlling, except a far-end RVR report, which is advisory only.
The certificate holder authorizations listed in the table above are dependent upon the following criteria:
1) TDZ RVR 1200 (350m) (beginning of takeoff roll), mid-RVR 1200 (350m) (if installed) and rollout RVR 1000 (300m), if authorized, may be used provided RVR equipment and one of the following visual aids combinations are available:
a) Daylight Hours: Serviceable RCLM or HIRL or operative CL lights.
b) Night Time Hours: HIRL or operative runway CL lights.
2) TDZ RVR 1000 (300m) (beginning of takeoff roll), mid-RVR 1000 (300m) (if installed) and rollout RVR 1000 (300m), if authorized, may be used provided RVR equipment and one of the following visual aids combinations are available:
a) Operative runway CL lights, or
b) HIRL and serviceable RCLM.
3) TDZ RVR 600 (175m) (beginning of takeoff roll), mid-RVR 600 (175m) (if installed) and rollout RVR 600 (175m), or TDZ RVR 500 (150m) (beginning of takeoff roll), mid-RVR 500 (150m) (if installed) and rollout RVR 500 (150m), if authorized, may be used provided RVR equipment and all of the following visual aids are available.
a) HIRL.
b) Operative runway CL lights.
When will the sterile cockpit signal be turned on or off?
On E-JET aircraft, the sterile cockpit signal will be generated with a single tone, achieved by turning the Sterile switch to off position. The flight attendant(s) shall remain seated until 10,000 feet MSL, unless briefed otherwise by the PIC.
The critical phase of flight is reentered when descending through 10,000 feet MSL. On E-JET aircraft, the PM will turn the Sterile switch on, which will generate a single tone.
What pitch should be maintained for .82M, 250kts below 10k, and approach below 200kts?
Technique for RA flying
.82 Mach - Pitch 2deg
250kts below 10k - Pitch 4deg
Approach below 200kts - pitch 5-7deg
How should a RA be flown and how much time is allotted to maneuver?
To achieve the required vertical rate (normally 1,500 feet per minute climb or descent) first adjust the aircraft’s pitch using the suggested guidelines shown in the table below then refer to the VSI and make all necessary pitch adjustments to place the VSI in the green arc:
For the TCAS to provide safe vertical separation initial VS response is required within five seconds of when the RA is first displayed.
Evasive maneuvering must be limited to the minimum required to comply with the RA. Excessive responses to RAs are not desirable or appropriate because of other potential traffic and ATC consequences. From level flight, proper response to an RA typically results in an overall altitude deviation of 300 to 500 feet in order to successfully resolve a traffic conflict.
If a TCAS RA response requires deviation from an ATC clearance, expeditiously return to the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is resolved, the TCAS “clear of conflict” message is heard or follow any subsequent change to clearance as advised by ATC.
When can Mesa EJET pilots hand fly?
Pilots are encouraged to exercise manual flying skills during low workload situations. Some examples are: flying into or out of an outstation, flying a visual approach at any airport. RNAV departures and arrivals, RVSM, etc. must still be flown with the autopilot engaged.
When can a crewmember leave the cockpit and at what altitude will the other crewmember don and use oxygen?
During non-critical phases of the flight, and not below 10,000 feet mean sea level (msl), one crewmember at a time may leave the flight station for physiological needs only. Such absence from the flight deck will be as brief as possible. If a crewmember leaves the flight deck above FL 410, the other crewmember will don and use the oxygen mask.
When should 121.5 be monitored?
The flight crew will monitor VHF emergency frequency (121.5 MHz), except when carrying out communications on other VHF channels, or when airborne equipment limitations or flight deck duties do not permit simultaneous guarding of two channels.
What is ARINC?
ARINC Air-to-Ground Voice Network
1. Mesa Airlines, Inc. is authorized access to the ARINC domestic air to ground voice network. This is accomplished by calling an ARINC operations center on the appropriate frequency for the area in which the aircraft is currently operating. The ARINC VHF radio network chart located in the aircraft lists all appropriate frequencies. When contacting the ARINC operator provide call sign. This service should only be used for non-routine matters related to the operation of the aircraft.
What is ACARS Free Text?
For aircraft equipped with an operable ACARS unit, the “free text” function should be utilized as the primary transmission method for all pertinent communication matters relating to the flight.
What is SELCAL?
Function of the Selective Calling System (SELCAL) is similar to an ordinary paging device. SELCAL hardware alerts an aircraft’s flight crew of an incoming radio transmission without requiring the flight crew to continuously monitor voice transmissions on that radio frequency. The hardware consists of a ground based audio tone encoding device and an aircraft installed decoder that monitors the audio output of both COM radios. The ground-based audio tone encoding device transmits a duplex tone code corresponding to the four letter SELCAL designation of the desired aircraft decoder. When the aircraft decoder receives its unique tone code, an alert tone (chime) and flashing lights are activated thus alerting the flight crew. Decoder reception and alerts operate regardless of flight crew volume selection, thus precluding the need for the flight crew to continuously monitor the radio frequency.
The flight crew is responsible to tune the appropriate radio frequency for the geographical area in which the flight is operating to ensure reception of a SELCAL page. Flight crews in aircraft with operating ACARS are not required to have SELCAL in the active frequency but are encouraged to do so as a backup. However, when ACARS is inoperative or on aircraft without SELCAL installed, the crews must comply with the item above.
In aircraft without SELCAL installed, the appropriate ARINC frequency will be monitored at all times during cruise flight without operative ACARS.
When should the no smoking and fasten seal belt signs be illuminated?
The “No Smoking” sign will remain illuminated at all times.
The “Fasten Seat Belt” sign will be illuminated at all times except:
1. When the aircraft has come to a complete and final stop at a boarding gate, the left engine has been shut down and it is safe for passengers to start deplaning.
2. Inflight cruise altitudes when smooth air conditions are met and expected to continue.
3. At the discretion of the PIC during extended ground delays.
In the event the PIC turns off the seat belt sign in-flight, the appropriate announcement is made by the PIC, SIC or Flight Attendants:
“Ladies and Gentlemen, the captain has turned off the seat belt sign; however, when in your seat, we recommend for your added safety that you keep your seat belt securely fastened.”
When leaving cruising altitude and beginning a gradual descent, the Pilot Monitoring (PM) shall ensure that the fasten seat belt sign is illuminated and indicate that the cabin must be secured for landing by issuing the following PA announcement: “Flight attendant(s) please secure the cabin for arrival.” In addition and time/work load permitting, the flight crewmember who advises the flight attendant(s) to secure the cabin shall first provide the arrival airport conditions (weather, gate assignment, etc.), flight progress (ETA) and any other specific information that furthers good customer service.
A friendly, informal and cordial tone should be used at all times. Do not begin a message with “Your attention, please” or other such phrases unless immediate attention of all cabin occupants is needed.
What should vertical speed be limited to below 2,500’AGL?
When operating an aircraft below 2500 feet AGL, vertical speed should not exceed 1500 FPM to restrict rates of descent for the purposes of reducing terrain closure rate and increasing recognition/response time in the event of an unintentional conflict with terrain.
What is the stabilized approach criteria? Be specific.
- Flights will be stabilized by 1,000 feet HAT.
- An approach is considered to be stable when all of the following conditions are met:
a. All appropriate briefings and checklists have been accomplished.
b. The aircraft is in the planned landing configuration. (The planned landing configuration is gear down and locked, final landing flaps, and flight spoilers are retracted.)
c. The aircraft is on the correct track.
The correct track includes normal maneuvering required to align with the final approach course. In VMC conditions this may include turns below 1,000 feet (HAT) but must be aligned by 500 feet (HAT). However, all of the criteria for stabilized approach must be met by 1,000 feet (HAT).
d. The aircraft is not more than the planned approach speed +10 KIAS, while correcting to the proper speed, and not less than VREF.
Adjustments may be made for ground speed when applicable. Momentary excursions (deviations which last only a few seconds with every indication that it will return to a stabilized criteria) are acceptable.
e. The power setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration.
At no point except for rollout and flare should the thrust levers be reduced to idle below 1,000 feet AGL. If this occurs then a go- around is mandatory.
f. The rate of descent is no greater than 1,000 fpm.
If an expected rate of descent greater than 1,000 fpm. is planned, a special approach briefing should be performed.
If an unexpected sustained rate of descent greater than 1,000 fpm. is encountered during the approach, a missed approach or go- around should be performed.
g. After glidepath intercept, or after the FAF, the pilot flying (PF) requires no more than normal corrections to maintain the correct track and desired profile to landing within the touchdown zone.
Normal bracketing corrections relate to bank angle of not more than 30°, rate of descent ±300 fpm. deviation from target, and power management in the range required to maintain a constant rate of descent and speed. Normal bracketing corrections occasionally involve momentary overshoots made necessary by atmospheric conditions. Such overshoots are acceptable. Frequent or sustained overshoots caused by poor pilot technique are not normal bracketing corrections.
E. Stabilized Approach Requirements
- At 1,000 feet AGL if the criteria in Stabilized Approach Criteria are not met then a go-around shall be executed unless:
a. The proper speed is not met but can reasonably be expected to be achieved by 500 feet AGL (VMC conditions only) and the power is set appropriately. - The PM will verify the Stabilized Approach Criteria and if all conditions are met will call “1000 feet above _____, stabilized” (visual or instrument approaches). If conditions are not met the PM will call “1,000 feet, go- around.”
- The PM should call out any deviations approaching 1,000’ HAT to help mitigate the necessity of a go-around.
What external lights should be ON on the ground, crossing a taxiway, or inflight below 10,000’?
When operating on the ground, all Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft will illuminate, at a minimum, position and anticollision lights.
Turn on all exterior lighting when crossing any runway.
While inflight, the PIC (Pilot-in-Command) shall consider illuminating all lights practical while operating in congested airspace and while below 10,000 feet MSL.
Can CAT II approaches be flown without an operational control tower? Or SE?
No. Category II approaches are not authorized without an operating control tower. Single engine Category II approaches are not authorized.
What exterior lights should be on for CAT II approaches?
Use of landing lights during Category II approaches, particularly at night, significantly reduces contrast. This can make identification of required visual elements difficult, if not impossible. It is recommended that the landing lights and taxi lights to remain off for all Category II approaches until desired for landing. High ambient light levels on the flight deck reduce contrast and make identification of required visual elements difficult. Flight deck lighting should not be set brighter than is required for instrument legibility.
When can the Inner Marker be inoperative on a CAT II Approach?
CAT II Inner Marker
An Inner Marker must be installed to assist in the determination of DH. The Inner Marker may be inoperative for operations at or above 1600 RVR or for aircraft with operative radar altimeters.
Can a high minimums captain conduct a CAT II approach?
No High Minimums Captain may conduct a Category II approach, except with a company check pilot who is authorized to conduct Category II operations.
Qualifications/Currency
Both pilots must be currently Category II qualified.
What aircraft category is the E175?
Category C
Landing minimums are based on the Aircraft Approach Category, a grouping of aircraft based on a speed of 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight. An aircraft shall only fit in one category. However, if it is necessary to maneuver at speeds in excess of the upper limit of speed range for a category, the minimums for the next higher category shall be used. For example, a category B aircraft circling to land at a speed greater than 121 KTS shall use the approach category C minimums for landing.
When can’t the interphone system be used for pushback and what must be done if the interphone cannot be used?
When thunderstorms are in the vicinity of the airport, the interphone system used for ground-to-flight deck communications during pushback is not to be used. Applicable ground personnel will advise the crew that the interphone system will not be used and that appropriate hand signals will apply.
Prior to initiating a pushback without interphone communications, the Captain must advise the controlling agency (Ramp Control, Ground Control, etc.) that pushback will be conducted with hand signals and changes to holding positions are not feasible during the pushback without sufficient warning. This should alert the controller to provide the aircraft sufficient warning in case the pushback must be stopped enroute. Do not use Silent Push procedures during hand signals only pushbacks.
What are the standard interphone calls to the pushback vehicle/marshaller?
When clearance is obtained, the PIC will instruct the marshaller, “Nosewheel steering OFF, brakes OFF, you are cleared to push.” The marshaller will respond with, “Cleared to push.”
2. If the start is to be made during the pushback, the marshaller will advise the PIC, “Cleared to start #1 or #2.” The captain will respond, “Starting #1 or #2.” At the discretion of the captain, the first officer should start the engine(s) during pushback or anytime the aircraft is in motion on the ground. If the start is made after pushback is complete, at the end of pushback, the marshaller will advise, “Set brakes and cleared to start #1 or #2.” PIC will respond, “Brakes ON, starting #1 or #2.”
3. When complete, the marshaller will state, “Towbar/ Lektro disconnected, area being cleared” (if applicable).
4. The PIC will advise marshaller, “Cleared to disconnect interphone.” Marshaller will state, “Disconnecting interphone.”
The PIC will give the thumbs up or flash the taxi light once when ready to taxi. Marshaller will visually clear the area and give departure salute indicating to the PIC that it is clear to taxi. PIC will flash the taxi light three times if necessary to recall marshaller to the interphone.
What are the interphone calls to the pushback vehicle/marshaller if an engine must be started at the gate with the air start unit?
In the event an engine must be started at the gate for operational purposes, the following procedure will apply:
- Marshaller will advise the PIC, “Set brakes, all secure below.” This indicates all doors closed, chocks are removed, loading bridge retracted, and/or plane mate(s) clear.
- When ready to start engines, the PIC will state, “Brake set. I would like to start #1 or #2.” The marshaller will ensure that the area is clear then state, “Cleared to start #1 or #2.” The right (#2) engine will not be started with the cargo door open.
- The PIC will advise the marshaller when to disconnect external power and/or external air supply.
- After external power and/or external air supply is removed, marshaller will advise the PIC, “All secure below, loading bridge retracted and the ramp is clear.” When ready to pushback, the PIC will check the door alerts extinguished, then obtain the pushback clearance where required. At this time the crew will follow appropriate pushback procedure as advised in this section.
In the event of an engine start at the gate, can baggage be loaded?
Baggage may be loaded in the baggage compartments when the left (#1) engine is running or being started. If the right (#2) engine is running baggage may not be loaded.
What is a SE turn?
Flight crews may elect to conduct ground operations with the right engine running continuously. This operation will be referred to as a Single-Engine Turn. Prior coordination with the station is required. During the in-range call flight crews will notify Station Operations that a single-engine turn is requested. Station Operations will acknowledge and relay any special requirements or restrictions.
The following restrictions will always apply to single-engine ground operations:
Any time an aircraft engine is operating, at least one flight crewmember must be seated in a pilot seat monitoring the ramp operations for potential emergencies. The crewmember will immediately shut down the engine when there is any risk of injury or damage.
Crews will brief danger areas prior to exiting aircraft.
Refueling/defueling with engine(s) operating (Hot Fueling) operations are prohibited.
What is the electronic marshaller called at newer gates?
The Safedock Advanced-Visual Docking System (A-VDGS) provides both pilots with guidance for maneuvering aircraft into the gate to the correct lead-in-line and stop bar/line under all operational conditions. Safedock includes a built-in computer integrated to a low-intensity infrared laser that scans the gate area for the approaching aircraft.
Should aircraft doors be closed while on the ground?
No. Low pressure air from an A/C cart is being utilized to condition an aircraft cabin without the auxiliary power unit (APU) or an engine running, and if cabin doors and flaps are closed, the cabin may pressurize since the flight crew cannot control the cabin outflow valves without the APU or an engine.
Given these conditions, some cabin doors can still be opened on the ground, even if significant differential pressure exists between the cabin and the outside atmosphere. If a door is opened when significant differential pressure is present, the internal air pressure may accelerate the door opening, possibly ejecting or striking and injuring the person opening or standing close to the door.
Flight crew and ground crew personnel should leave at least one airplane door or flap open when an A/C cart is providing heated or cooled air to the cabin, to prevent cabin pressurization.
Who is responsible for the post-flight walk around?
The PIC is responsible for ensuring an adequate and vigilant postflight inspection is completed prior to departing from duty. Particular attention will be made to aircraft tires, control surfaces and/or any aircraft damage. Any discrepancy will be called into maintenance control and logged in the AML.
When is ground cart AC air recommended?
Summer temperatures can cause aircraft interiors to surpass acceptable levels when not adequately cooled. An inoperative APU inhibits aircraft cooling when on the ground because the packs cannot be used to cool the cabin. Ground conditioned air is recommended when temperatures exceed 75° F, especially when the APU is inoperative and cannot power the pack air. Conditioned air may be supplied by an air conditioning cart or by a loading bridge air hook-up.
Who has responsibility to delay or cancel a flight?
B. Each dispatcher has, according to FAR 121.533:
- Co-responsibility with the pilot-in-command (PIC) to dispatch and operate any flight in accordance with applicable regulations.
- Responsibility to delay or cancel any flight which, in the dispatcher’s judgment, should be delayed or canceled.
- Responsibility to initiate a change in release when, in the dispatcher’s opinion, such a change is in the interest of safety or an improved operation.
- Responsibility to reroute or redirect a flight as necessary. This may include, but is not limited to, instructions pertaining to special routings, passenger convenience, aircraft and crew utilization. In these cases, PICs will comply with all instructions and requests of the dispatcher which are compatible with safety.
Describe the process for mechanical issues found?
a. Upon discovery, the PIC will contact the dispatcher and provide information concerning the discrepancy and/or possible delay. If a discrepancy is discovered by a mechanic, the mechanic will notify Maintenance Control who will advise dispatch that the aircraft is out of service. Refer to Chapter 9 for procedures on documenting discrepancy in the Aircraft Maintenance Logbook.
b. The dispatcher will transfer, conference or direct the PIC to Maintenance Control. If a flight delay is expected the dispatcher will contact the Aircraft Router who will advise the station of a possible delay. The Aircraft Router will normally get this information by monitoring the aircraft plot.
c. Maintenance Control will issue a control number to the PIC/ mechanic. Maintenance Control and the PIC/mechanic will determine the course of action.
d. The PIC will contact Dispatch to amend the release if a discrepancy is deferred and/or for operational considerations.
e. If a discrepancy is to be repaired, Maintenance Control will coordinate the repair process and will advise dispatch that the aircraft is Out-of-Service. This would normally be accomplished via an Out-of-Service bar unless special circumstances require direct communication.
f. Upon completion of a repair, Maintenance Control shall advise dispatch that the discrepancy is cleared and lift the Out-of-Service bar.
g. The PIC will confirm with dispatch that the aircraft is cleared. An Aircraft Router will advise the gate/station that the aircraft has been returned to service
The PIC will immediately and directly report any factor which may delay a flight. The dispatcher will be responsible for coordinating corrective actions with the Aircraft Router, crew scheduling etc., for possible solutions and communications.
What if there is a mechanical discrepancy after push-back but prior to takeoff? What should be done?
- In the event of an equipment or instrument failure after the aircraft has left the gate or ramp area but prior to takeoff, the pilot in command (PIC) must communicate the discrepancy to dispatch and maintenance control.
- The PIC, dispatcher and Maintenance Control will determine an appropriate course of action before the flight is allowed to continue operations.
a. If the discrepancy reported requires a maintenance action or repair to be carried out, the aircraft must return to the gate.
b. If the PIC, dispatcher and Maintenance Control, by reference to the approved aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Configuration Deviation List (CDL), determine that the MEL or CDL allows for continued operation under acceptable meteorological or operational restrictions and does not require any type of maintenance action, the PIC may continue operations after completing the Corrective Action block in the AML under guidance from Maintenance Control.
What is the Tarmac Delay Contingency Plan?
The DOT has issued a new rule to reduce lengthy tarmac delays. This rule requires Mesa Airlines, Inc. as a carrier, to provide food and water and other necessities to passengers during lengthy tarmac delays, and deplane passengers when possible before the tarmac delay reaches three hours for domestic flights and four hours for international flights (subject to certain exceptions). We are also required to submit to the Office of Aviation Consumer Protection of the U.S. Department of Transportation a written description of each of the flights we operate that experiences a tarmac delay of more than three hours (on domestic flights) and more than four hours (on international flights) at a U.S. airport no later than 30 days after the tarmac delay occurs.
ACARS
Aircraft Communications Addressing and Report System (ACARS): A digital data link system for transmission of short, relatively simple messages between aircraft and ground stations via radio or satellite.
EDK
Extended Delay Kit (EDK): A Mesa Airlines, Inc. kit comprising of various snack items and water to be offered to passengers during an extended delay. This kit meets the requirements of the DOT regulation.
What should pilots consider regarding the Tarmac Delay Contingency Plan?
Proactively manage taxi–out delays to minimize ground holds of more than two hours and prevent those over three hours.
- Proactively manage taxi–in delays to minimize ground holds of more than 60 minutes and prevent those of over three hours.
- Proactively manage diversions to prevent those of over three hours on the ground at the diversion station.
If a flight has to return to the gate, can passengers deplane?
IF A FLIGHT RETURNS TO THE GATE FOR ANY REASON (EX. FUEL, LAV) AN ANNOUNCEMENT MUST BE MADE GIVING CUSTOMERS THE OPPORTUNITY TO DEPLANE.
If there is a delay, how often should the PIC provide customers with an update?
Every 15min
When should food and water be offered to customers during a lengthy ground delay?
Once the delay reaches 90min AND BEFORE 120min
Pilots are required to obtain a weather brief prior to the flight per 121.101. How is this accomplished?
Dispatch Release
Both the flight crew and System Operations Control will obtain a weather briefing prior to all flight operations. Current weather is available on Mesa Airlines, Inc. computer systems, direct/indirect links to the National Weather Service, from Flight Service stations, AWOS facilities and/or Contract Weather Services through System Operations Control.
When should a route change be communicated to dispatch?
- ETA differs more than 15 minutes from ETA at takeoff or last revised ETA.
- Aircraft deviates more than 100 nautical miles (NM) from flight plan.
- Cruise altitude varies by 4000 feet or more from flight planned altitude.
- Significant changes to the planned vertical or horizontal path of the aircraft jeopardizing fuel over destination.
- Weather conditions are encountered which may affect the safety or conduct of other flights; including:
a. Moderate or severe icing.
b. Moderate or severe turbulence.
c. Winds aloft values, or other operational factors, which vary significantly from the flight plan assumptions.
B. When any of the items listed above are communicated to System Operations Control, the dispatcher will evaluate the fuel requirements and establish a new fuel plan, if required. In all cases, the PIC and dispatcher must agree to any changes.
C. In cases of emergency, the PIC will advise the dispatcher as soon as practical of any deviation from the proposed route of flight or destination airport.
When is a dispatch release available to the flight crew?
Under normal operations, the dispatch release is transmitted via SABRE to the flight crew. The dispatch release is queued 90-120 minutes prior to scheduled departure time; however, under certain circumstances the transmission time may be different.
If the PIC wants to change something on the dispatch release who should be contacted?
SOC
When will a dispatch release be revalidated?
System Operations Control will issue a new dispatch release or will revalidate a previously issued release:
A. Before a flight departs an originating station after a delay of more than two hours from the proposed departure time in the air traffic control flight plan.
B. Upon being notified by the PIC the aircraft has been returned to service following a maintenance out of service event.
At departure airports, a new or amended release will be required if any flight information or minimum fuel changes or if significant weather changes occur. New dispatch release will be issued at the discretion of the PIC or the dispatcher of the flight.
C. At intermediate stops, a new or amended release will be required if any flight information or minimum fuel has changed, or if the flight is delayed for more than one hour.
D. In the event of an abnormal situation or equipment failure in which performance may be affected, the PIC shall contact SOC for recalculated performance data.
What information is on the dispatch release general header?
General header information
a. Heading - Attention crew ASH (Air Shuttle) flight number.
b. Document Information - Release number, time and date prepared.
c. Statement of Document Type - DISPATCH RELEASE/IFR.
d. Dispatcher Desk and Phone Number - 10/602-685-4198.
e. Document ID - Computer generated sequence number/flight number.
What information is on the dispatch release payload information section?
Payload Information
a. Passenger Only - Planned Passengers and Payload Information
1) Passengers booked – 79
The number of passengers booked is automatically generated by the respective reservation system.
2) Maximum payload – 16717 lbs
The maximum payload is the most restrictive (least) weight derived from the following two calculations:
a) MAXPL = MZFW - BOW.
b) MAXPL = MTOW - (BOW + (MIN FUEL + EXTRA FUEL)).
3) Passenger and Bags – PAX 75 / BAGS 81
a) These two numbers are generated by using a ratio of 1.5 bags per passenger and provide planning information; they do not represent what the flight will actually carry. Passengers will be reduced when necessary to provide a minimum of a 1.0 bag per passenger ratio but the combination of the two will be equal to or less than the Maximum Payload.
b. Cargo Only - Payload Information
Cargo only flights will include a Maximum Payload number in pounds. Passengers booked, PAX and BAGS will remain blank.
What information is on the dispatch release aircraft configuration section?
Aircraft configuration
This section provides configuration information specific to this aircraft.
a. Tail Number - 934 (some aircraft have “M” tail numbers for the American Airlines FOS system to avoid duplicates - MJB).
b. Aircraft Type - CL600-2D24.
c. Engine Type - CF34-8C5.
d. Aircraft Registration Number - N934FJ.
What information is on the dispatch release operational restrictions section?
Operational restrictions
a. MEL(s) applicable - MEL number, description, expiration date.
b. CDL(s) applicable - CDL number, description, expiration date.
c. NEF(s) applicable - NEF number, description, expiration date.
What information is on the dispatch release remarks information section?
a. Aircraft Plot Information - Next scheduled flight information for this aircraft.
b. Remarks added by the dispatcher, Takeoff/En Route/Landing Analysis computer generated remarks that indicate nonstandard takeoff, en route, or landing conditions, aircraft specific remarks
What information is on the dispatch release flight plan information section?
a. Scheduled departure station IATA identifier and departure time UTC/local.
b. Scheduled arrival station IATA identifier and arrival time UTC/local.
What information is in the dispatch release fuel information section?
Fuel information
a. Planned fuel (PLN FUEL) - 14,942 lbs.
PLN FUEL is the quantity of fuel that was planned to be on the aircraft prior to engine start and is calculated as follows: ENROUTE + HOLD + ALT (alternate) + RESERVE + EXTRA + TAXI.
b. Minimum Fuel (MIN FUEL) - 13,842 lbs.
MIN FUEL is the minimum quantity of fuel that must be on the aircraft prior to brake release on the takeoff roll and is calculated as follows: ENROUTE + HOLD + ALT (alternate) + RESERVE.
c. Planned Payload (PLD) - 16,717 lbs.
1) (Passenger Only) PLD is calculated as follows: (PAX BOOKED x Avg. Pax Weight) + ((PAX BOOKED * 1.5) x Avg. Bag Weight). If the1.5 bags per passenger ratio can not be maintained because it exceeds the MAXPL, the PLD (Planned Payload) will be equal to the MAXPL.
2) (Cargo Only) PLD is calculated as follows: Average daily payload for each leg based on three month historical record plus 5,000 pounds of additional cargo.
d. Planned Zero Fuel Weight (PZFW) - 64,450 lbs.
PZFW is calculated by the following: PZFW = BOW + PLD.
e. Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) - 70,000 lbs.
f. Maximum Landing Weight (MLDW) - 73,500 lbs.
What information is in the dispatch release origin, destination and alternate information section?
Origin, destination and alternate information
a. Departure Station ICAO Identifier - KPHX.
b. Takeoff Alternate ICAO Identifier (if required) - KTUS.
c. Destination Station ICAO Identifier - KAUS.
What information is in the dispatch release payload and weight information section?
Payload and weight information
a. Planned Payload (PLD) – 16,717 lbs.
b. Planned Zero Fuel Weight (PZFW) – 64,450 lbs.
PZFW is calculated by the following: PZFW = BOW + PLD.
c. Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) – 70,000 lbs.
d. Maximum Landing Weight (MLDW) – 73,500 lbs.
What information is in the dispatch release ATC flight plan information section?
ATC flight plan information
a. Domestic operations
1) Air Shuttle Flight Number - ASH2889.
2) Flight Rules and Type of Flight - IS (I is for IFR, S is for scheduled air service).
3) Aircraft make and model - CRJ 900.
4) ICAO Wake Turbulence Category-/M
a) /H- Heavy (300,000 lbs or more).
b) /M- Medium (Greater than 15,500 lbs and less than 300,000 lbs).
c) /L- Light.
5) Equipment - SDGRW/S, where:
a) S - Standard NAV/COM/Approach Aid equipment is available and serviceable
i. ILS.
ii. ADF (CRJ/B-737 only).
iii. VOR.
iv. VHF.
b) G-GPS.
c) R - RNP type certification.
d) D-DME.
e) W - RVSM certification.
f) /S - Transponder with Mode A and Mode C.
6) Departure Airport and Proposed Time (UTC) - KPHX2159.
7) True Airspeed, Cruise Altitude and Route - N0460F330 TFD2 CIE J2 JCT/N0458F350 LLO DCT where:
a) N - Knots followed by four digits for the TAS.
b) F - Altitude in hundred of feet followed by three digits for the altitude.
c) DCT - Designates direct routing between fixes.
d) JCT/N0458F350 - Fix followed by speed and/or altitude change at that fix.
8) Destination Airport, Total Flight Time and Alternate Airport - KAUS0157.
9) Other information - Domestic flight plans - RNAV capability
a) Aircraft with GPS - PBN/C2D2.
b) Aircraft with FMS, but not GPS - PBN/B3B4.
c) If the FMS is inop, the PBN/ codes will be removed.
What information is in the dispatch release performance summary section?
a. Planned taxi weight information
Planned Taxi Weight (PTXW) - 79,400 lbs.
b. Maximum weight limit information
1) Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) - 79,200 lbs.
2) Limit Code for MTOW - 79.20/O where valid limit codes are as follows:
a) F = Field limited weight (takeoff or landing).
b) C = Climb limited weight (takeoff or landing).
c) O = Obstacle limited weight (takeoff).
d) B = Brake Energy limited weight (takeoff or landing).
e) T = Tire Speed limited weight (takeoff or landing).
f) V = Minimum Control Speed Ground limited weight (takeoff).
g) S = Structural limited weight (takeoff or landing).
h) E = En Route limited weight (origin to destination or origin to takeoff alternate).
i) M = Maximum Fuel Capacity limited weight (volumetric and/or payload/range).
c. Planned takeoff weight information
1) Planned Takeoff Weight (PTOW) - 79,200 lbs.
2) Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight (MRTW) - 79,200 lbs where the following default values are used unless otherwise stated in the remarks:
a) Dry runway.
b) Optimum flaps.
c) Bleeds OPEN (CRJ 200 is Bleeds CLOSED).
d) Anti-Ice OFF.
e) APU OFF (CRJ 200 is APU ON).
f) Systems affecting performance are operating (e.g., Anti-skid, Spoilers, etc.).
3) Flap Configuration for MRTW - F08.
4) MRTW Limit Code - O where valid limit codes are as follows:
a) F = Field limited weight.
b) C = Climb limited weight.
c) O = Obstacle limited weight.
d) B = Brake Energy limited weight.
e) T = Tire Speed limited weight.
f) V = Minimum Control Speed Ground limited weight.
g) A = AFM limited weight.
5) Wind (KTS) - 0000.
6) Altimeter setting (in. Hg) - 29.92.
7) Temperature (C) - P41 (P = plus and M = minus).
8) Runway - 08.
What information is on the dispatch release Planned enroute information section?
Planned en route information
1) Maximum En Route Takeoff Weight (METW) Origin to Takeoff Alternate (if required) - TUS METW 85.00/1.
2) Maximum En Route Takeoff Weight (METW) Origin to Destination - METW 85.00/1 (The “/1” indicates that Method 1 was used to derive the weight, “2” indicates that Method 2 was used).
3) The flight planning system chooses the most favorable of either Method 1 or Method 2. Generally, Method 2 provides the highest enroute takeoff weight, but requires the most amount of dispatching oversight. As a result, Method 1 is selected by default, if it is not limiting to the flight plan’s takeoff weight. Ice Protection penalties will be applied whenever the temperatures indicate that anti-ice will be required based on applicable Mesa Airlines, Inc. Company Flight Manual procedures. These penalties are applied based solely on temperature, without regard to the presence or absence of visible moisture.
The dispatcher may select all anti-ice off if there is no visible moisture on the route of flight.
The following example shows a flight that is weight restricted due to enroute performance. When Method 2 is used, the Summary will include information about the drift down diversion airports and decision points.
The summary section only appears for Method 2 (see example below). If an engine failure occurs between the FROM and TO point on each line, the diversion will be to the airport on the right under the DD ALT (Driftdown Alternate) column.
In some cases, over longer flights, there may be an additional line for other intermediate points.
What information on the dispatch release is in the Planned Landing Information section?
Planned Landing Information
1) Maximum Landing Weight (MLDW) - 73,500 lbs where the following default values are used unless otherwise stated in the remarks:
a) Dry Runway.
b) Bleeds CLOSED.
c) Anti-Ice ON.
d) No En Route Icing Conditions.
e) APUOFF.
f) Systems Affecting Performance Are Operating (e.g., Anti-skid, Spoilers, etc.).
2) Planned Landing Weight (PLDW) - 71,500 lbs.
3) Flap Configuration for MLDW - F45.
4) MLDW Limit Code - S where valid limit codes are as follows:
a) F = Field limited weight.
b) C = Climb limited weight.
c) S = Structural limited weight.
5) Wind (KTS) - 0000.
6) Altimeter Setting (in. Hg) - 29.92.
7) Temperature (C) - P33 (P = plus and M = minus).
8) Runway - 35L.
What information on the dispatch release is in the Maximum Quick Turnaround Reference Information section?
Maximum Quick Turnaround reference information
1) Maximum Quick Turnaround Weight (MQTW) - 085.73.
If landing weight exceeds the MQTW, a minimum brake cooling may be required and the applicable CFM procedure shall be complied with.
2) Landing flap configuration - F45.
What information is on the dispatch release in the Approval Section and Crew Information section?
a. Dispatcher name - DX/ DISPATCHER NAME.
b. Dispatcher desk number - 10.
c. SOC phone number - 888-634-6372.
d. Certificate, employee number, captain name - M001234 CA/ NAME.
e. Certificate, employee number, first officer name - M012345 FO/ NAME.
f. Certificate, employee number, flight attendant name - M034567 FA/NAME.
g. Second flight attendant information (if applicable) - M045678 FA/ NAME.
h. Captain signature space.
What information is on the dispatch release in the Fitness for Duty section?
Fitness for duty (Passenger Only)
Each flight crewmember must report for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties. As part of the flight release, each flight crewmember must affirmatively state his/her fitness for duty prior to commencing each and every flight.
What information on the dispatch release is in the Takeoff Alternate summary section?
Takeoff alternate summary
a. Takeoff alternate city ICAO identifier - KTUS.
Manual: 410 Page: 7.39 Revision: 35 Date: 10/15/21
b. Takeoff alternate fuel burn (x1000lb.) - 1,853 lbs.
c. Enroute flight time Origin to Takeoff Alternate in hours and minutes - 0018.
d. Route Distance from Origin to Takeoff Alternate (NM) - 0096.
e. Average Enroute Wind component (KTS) - T4 (H - Headwind, T - Tailwind).
f. Planned Cruise Altitude to the Takeoff Alternate - 19,000 feet.
g. Flight Planning System route description to the Takeoff Alternate - DCT.
h. The route description will list fixes that were used to calculate the route to the Takeoff Alternate. DCT signifies a direct routing.
What information on the dispatch release is in the flight plan speed schedules section?
Flight plan speed schedules
a. CLM - Climb Schedule used in preparation of flight plan. All jet climb schedules are based on 250 KIAS below 10,000 MSL, after which the climb schedule listed under CLM applies. This climb schedule uses the convention of KIAS/MACH for indicated airspeed to the Mach crossover. For example, 290/M74 is 290 KIAS to Mach 0.74.
b. HCRZ LCRZ - High and Low altitude cruise schedules used in preparation of flight plan. Cruise schedules can be of four types: KIAS, MACH, Schedule and ECON. If the HCRZ and LCRZ values are specific speeds, these identify normal cruise profile speeds defined in each applicable aircraft type’s CFM (for example the normal cruise speed in the CRJ 200 is 300kts or Mach .74 whichever is the lower indicated airspeed). CI* indicates the flight was planned using a variable Mach cruise/Cost Index schedule. Crews should reference speed guidance from the ACARS Cost Index page or the Takeoff and Landing Report for the applicable speeds to fly at their planned altitude.
c. DES - Descent Schedule used in preparation of flight plan. All jet descent schedules are based on 250 KIAS below 10,000 MSL, before which the descent schedule listed under DES applies. This descent schedule uses the convention of MACH/KIAS for Mach to indicated airspeed at the Mach crossover. For example, M74/320 is Mach 0.74 to 320 KIAS.
What information on the dispatch release is in the flight level profile section?
a. This section contains a summary of flight planned altitudes and where they occur if a step climb is calculated for the flight. Based off the PTOW, altitude selection is optimized for fuel efficiency and climb capability. Crewmembers are responsible for determining when the aircraft is at a weight which will allow a climb to the next planned altitude.
b. FL PROFILE - 330 CIE 350 ALIBY 370
In this example the initial cruise altitude is FL330. After passing CIE the aircraft will reach a weight that will allow a climb to FL350 before crossing ALIBY. After passing ALIBY the aircraft will reach a weight that will allow a climb to FL370.
What information on the dispatch release is in the fuel summary section?
Fuel Summary
The Fuel Summary provides a reference for fuel consumption as well as the status of fuel remaining. All fuel quantities are x 1000 lbs and all times are in hours and minutes.
a. Enroute – Fuel quantity to be consumed between takeoff and landing including climb, cruise and descent. Based on the planned cruise speed schedule.
1) Enroute Fuel Burn and endurance - 7,702 lbs and 1 hour 57 minutes.
2) Route Distance (NM) - 0813.
3) Average Enroute Wind component (KTS) - T1 (H - Headwind, T - Tailwind)
This wind component should not be confused with the FMS wind component summary; this component is for the entire flight including the climb, cruise and descent.
4) Cruise Flight Level - FL330S (S - Step Climb in Flight Plan)
FL330 would indicate the entire cruise portion part of the flight was planned at 33,000 feet. FL330S indicates that the initial planned cruise altitude is 33,000 feet and a Step climb is incorporated into the flight plan.
b. Hold
1) Holding Fuel and endurance - 1,000 lbs and 18 minutes.
2) Planned Holding Altitude - FL150
In this example 1,000 lbs of hold fuel at 15,000 ft will provide for 18 minutes of holding.
c. ALT
1) Alternate City ICAO Identifier - KDFW.
2) Alternate Fuel Burn and endurance - 2,579 lbs and 30 minutes.
3) Route Distance from Destination to Alternate (NM) - 0165.
4) Average Enroute Wind component from Destination to Alternate (KTS) - H10 (H - Headwind, T - Tailwind).
5) Cruise Flight Level to the Alternate - FL170.
6) Flight Planning System route description to the Alternate - DCT.
The route description will list fixes that were used to calculate the route to the Destination Alternate. DCT signifies a direct routing. If two alternates are listed, only the burn to the most distant alternate will be added into the total fuel required.
d. Reserve
Final Reserve Fuel, computed at 45 minutes - 2,561 lbs.
e. MIN FUEL
1) Minimum Fuel and endurance of fuel in hours and minutes - 13,842 lbs and three hours 30 minutes.
2) MIN FUEL is the minimum quantity of fuel that must be on the aircraft prior to brake release on the takeoff roll and is calculated by the following: ENROUTE + HOLD + ALT (alternate) + RESERVE.
f. EXTRA
Extra fuel will be added based on historical fuel data.
g. TAXI
1) Taxi Out Fuel and endurance - 200 lbs and 15 minutes.
2) Taxi fuel consumption is calculated for Single Engine Taxi with APU running. The taxi time is based upon the greater of the historic average taxi time for the departure airport at the proposed departure time or a 15 minute taxi. The dispatcher may add more taxi fuel for operations requiring both engines to be used for taxi.
h. PLN FUEL
1) Total Planned Fuel Amount - 14,942 lbs.
2) Planned fuel is the sum of ENROUTE, HOLD, ALT, RESERVE, EXTRA and TAXI fuel. This is the quantity that is planned to be on the aircraft prior to engine start.
What information on the dispatch release is in the burn factors section?
Burn Factors
a. BURN INCREASE/1000LBS 61.
For every 1,000 lbs over the planned takeoff weight, the ENROUTE burn will increase by 61 lbs.
b. BURN INCREASE/MINUTE 57
For every one minute increase in the enroute flight time, the ENROUTE burn will increase by 57 lbs.
What information on the dispatch release is in the wind and ISA deviation data section?
Wind and ISA deviation data
These wind and ISA deviation components are to be entered into the FMS for those aircraft that have the capability.
a. Average wind components
Components are shown for CLB, CRZ and DES. (P - Tailwind, M - Headwind)
b. Average temperature deviation
The ISA deviation is shown for CLB, CRZ and DES. (P - positive number, M - negative number)
What information on the dispatch release is in the waypoint summary section?
Waypoint summary
a. General header information
1) Flight Level - FL.
2) Mach Number - MN.
3) Average Wind between navigation checkpoints (Magnetic Direction and KTS) and Calculated Temperature from International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) (C), P = greater than ISA, M = less than ISA - WIND/ISA.
4) True Airspeed (KTS)/Ground Speed (KTS) - TAS/GS.
5) Fuel Flow (x1000 lbs hr.) - FF.
6) Accumulated Fuel Burn (x1000 lbs) - BURN.
7) Segment Distance (NM) - DIS.
8) Distance To Go (NM) - DTG.
9) Magnetic Course - MAG CRS.
10) Airway Routing/Direct Routing/DP Routing/STAR Routing - RTE.
11) Airway Fix or Checkpoint (Navaid/Waypoint) - WPT.
12) Segment Time in hours and minutes - TIME.
13) Accumulated En Route Time in hours and minutes - ATIM.
14) Estimated Time of Arrival/Actual Time of Arrival (for crew notation) - ETA/ATA.
15) Fuel Remaining (x1000 lbs) - FREM.
16) Actual Fuel Remaining (for crew notation) - ACTUAL FREM.
What information on the dispatch release is in the climb segment section?
Climb segment section
1) Flight Level (FL) - CLM is used to indicate climbing through flight levels.
2) Segment Distance (DIS) - Total climb segment distance 131.
3) Magnetic Course (MAG CRS) - 099.
4) Segment Time (TIME) - 0022.
5) Accumulated Fuel Burn (BURN) - 2,500 lbs.
6) Distance To Go (DTG) - 682.
7) Top of Climb - TOC.
8) Accumulated Time of Climb (ATIM) - 0022.
9) Fuel Remaining (FREM) in pounds - 12,200 lbs.
The end of the climb segment is defined by the TOC.
What information on the dispatch release is in the cruise segment section?
1) Flight Level (FL) - 330.
2) WIND/ISA - 00007P12.
3) Fuel Flow - 3,800 lbs/hr.
4) Segment Distance (DIS) - 23 NM.
5) Magnetic Course (MAG CRS) - 099.
6) DP Routing (RTE) - TFD2.
7) Segment Time (TIME) - 0003.
8) Mach Number (MN) - .770.
9) True Airspeed/Ground Speed - 460 KTAS/ 462 KTS.
10) Accumulated Fuel Burn (BURN) - 2,700 lbs.
11) Distance To Go (DTG) - 659 NM.
12) Navaid (WPT) - CIE.
13) Accumulated En Route Time (ATIM) - 0025.
14) Fuel Remaining (FREM) - 12,000 lbs.
What information on the dispatch release is in the descent segment section?
Descent segment section
1) Flight Level (FL) - 370.
2) Segment Distance (DIS) - 43.
3) Magnetic Course (MAG CRS) - 069.
4) Partial STAR routing if STAR begins prior to Top of Descent - DCT (Direct).
5) Segment Time (TIME) - 0006.
6) Accumulated Fuel Burn (BURN) - 7,100 lbs.
7) Distance To Go (DTG) - Total descent segment distance 97.
8) Top of Descent - TOD.
9) Accumulated Time at Top of Descent (ATIM) - 0140.
10) Fuel Remaining (FREM) in pounds - 7.6.
The beginning of the descent segment is defined by the TOD.
What information on the dispatch release is in the divert fuel section?
Divert fuel
Minimum Diversion Fuel - (Domestic: Alternate Burn + FAR fuel reserve; Flag: Flag Hold + Alternate Burn) MIN DIV FUEL (lbs) - 5,140 lbs.
What information on the dispatch release is in the flight crew notation section?
Flight Crew Notation Section
a. Total Flight Time - TTIM 0157.
b. Takeoff Time - T/O……
c. Estimated Time of Arrival (TTIM added to Takeoff Time) - ETA KAUS……
d. Arrival Fuel - ARR…… FUEL……
What information on the dispatch release is in the winds and temperatures section?
Winds and temperatures section (for en route cruise points)
a. Fix/Waypoint Identifiers - CIE/ALIBY.
b. Flight Level Applicable to Data Values - FL410 through FL180. c. Wind Direction True - 353.
d. Wind Speed (KTS) - 022.
e. Temperature (°C) - -58.
f. Flight Level of Tropopause at Fix/Waypoint - TROP 520. Winds and temperatures section (for origin and destination)
a. ICAO Identifiers - KPHX and KAUS.
b. Flight Level Applicable to Data Values - FL070 through FL290. c. Wind Direction True - 131.
d. Wind Speed (KTS) - 003.
e. Temperature (-C) - +22.
f. Flight Level of Tropopause - TROP 490.
How much fuel should flight crews attempt to leave the gate with?
The fuel load will consist of the combined amounts of ENROUTE, HOLD, ALTERNATE (when required), RESERVE, EXTRA and TAXI fuel loads which will equal the released PLAN FUEL. The takeoff roll must be commenced prior to reaching a fuel level below planned MIN FUEL (a fuel quantity consisting of only ENROUTE, HOLD, ALTERNATE and FINAL RESERVE fuel). The crew will make every effort to depart with +/- 5% of the PLN FUEL but in no case shall onboard fuel at the OUT event be less than the combination of minimum planned fuel and taxi fuel.
What is the final reserve fuel?
Final reserve fuel is planned in accordance with the Federal Aviation Regulations. No person may dispatch or takeoff an airplane unless it has enough fuel to:
- Fly to the airport to which it is dispatched.
- Thereafter, fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (where required) for the airport to which dispatched.
- Thereafter, fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise fuel consumption.
The act of using a portion of the final reserve fuel assigned to a flight is not, in itself, a cause to declare a minimum fuel state with the controlling agency. Regulations require final reserve fuel to enable aircraft to maneuver, due to unforeseen circumstances. Many aircraft arrive safely at their destination having used a portion of the fuel designated as reserve. All Mesa Airlines, Inc. flights operated domestically under Part 121 will be planned to arrive at the destination (or alternate if applicable) airport with at least 60 minutes of fuel onboard.
Per Mesa policy, when will the PIC declare minimum fuel v fuel emergency?
The PIC shall manage fuel in flight to ensure minimum fuel upon landing will be the greater of the approved minimum quantity or 30 minutes fuel.
The PIC will declare “minimum fuel” anytime the flight will land with 45 minutes of fuel or less with further delays possible/imminent.
The PIC will declare “minimum fuel” when, in his/her best judgment, any additional delay will result in burning into final reserve fuel.
The PIC will declare a “fuel emergency” when, in his/her best judgment, it is necessary to proceed directly to the intended airport, or anytime the onboard fuel is below 30 minutes duration for the condition to be flown.
Declaration of a fuel emergency is an explicit statement that priority handling by ATC is necessary and expected.
For the EJET, which ARFF Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting index group airports can be used for takeoff and landing per FAR 121.590?
Index B, C, D, and E (Not A)
What are the different Maximum Takeoff and Landing Gross Weights based on?
- The Maximum Takeoff Gross Weight based on runway length, gradient, elevation, temperature, obstacle clearance, aircraft structural limitations and wind component.
- A maximum takeoff weight based on a limiting enroute weight plus the expected fuel burn to that point. The limiting enroute weight is based on either a minimum altitude enroute at a particular point (FAR 121.191 (a)(1)) or by drift down analysis (FAR 121.191 (a)(2)).
- The maximum takeoff gross weight based on normal fuel burn-off which will permit a landing at either the destination or the alternate at a gross weight not to exceed the maximum landing weight.
- The maximum takeoff and landing weights may be further restricted by performance losses associated with MELs and CDLs. These adjustments will be noted on the dispatch release.
- Landing limitations - Turbojets
a. The landing weight must be planned such that it allows the aircraft to make a full stop landing at the intended destination within 60% of the effective length of each runway described below from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway.
b. Wet or slippery runways require that the landing runway has an effective length of at least 115% of the 60% distance required above.
c. The landing weight must be planned such that it allows the aircraft to make a full stop landing at any alternate airport listed on the dispatch release within 60% of the effective length from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway.
d. A landing performance alternate that meets all the requirements of this section must be listed on the dispatch release if a turbojet powered airplane is otherwise prohibited from being taken off because it could not accomplish a full stop landing at the destination airport within 60% of the effective length of the most suitable runway considering:
1) The probable wind velocity and direction.
2) The ground handling characteristics of the airplane.
3) Other conditions such as landing aides and terrain.
What are Special Airports?
certain airports (due to items such as surrounding terrain, obstructions or complex approach or departure procedures) are special airports requiring special airport qualification for a PIC.
What special airports is Mesa Airlines authorized to fly to per Ops Spec C070?
Gunnison, CO Loreto, Mexico Ashville, NC Ontario, CA Burbank, CA Palm Springs, CA Burlington Int’l., VT Reno, NV Charleston (Kanawha), WV Roanoke, VA Durango, CO San Diego, CA Flagstaff, AZ San Francisco Int’l., CA Guadalajara, Mexico Washington, DC (National)
What pilot rules are required to operate at a special airport, besides specific training?
The PIC of any flight operating to or from a special airport must ensure that within the preceding 12 calendar months:
- The PIC or SIC has made an entry to that airport (including a takeoff and landing) while serving as a pilot flight crewmember; or
- The PIC has thoroughly reviewed all aspects of the Jeppesen Special Airport Qualification charts published for that airport.
Where can Mesa’s approved alternate airports be found?
SOC maintains a list of airports to be used as alternates as listed in Section C070 of Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications.
A regular airport is also authorized as a provisional, refueling or alternate airport. A provisional airport is also authorized as a refueling or alternate airport.
When will dispatch put a takeoff alternate on the dispatch release?
For all Part 121 operations, a takeoff alternate is required and must be specified if the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums for that airport, as determined by the Operations Specifications. (If lowest landing minimums on the approach we can fly is higher than minimums reported on the current ATIS)
The takeoff alternate must be specified on the dispatch release and must be located not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
The weather at the designated takeoff alternate airport, at the estimated time of arrival of the flight, must conform to Operations Specifications standards for an alternate airport as set forth in C055.
When will dispatch put a destination alternate on the flight release?
Under FAR 121 domestic rules, a destination alternate must be specified in the dispatch release for one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the ceiling will be less than 2,000 feet above the airport or the visibility is less than three miles.
Dispatchers shall not list an alternate airport in the dispatch release for a turbine engine powered airplane unless that airplane at the weight anticipated at the time of arrival can be brought to a full stop landing, within 60% of the effective length of the runway. This will be accomplished through AERODATA® performance calculations. If AERODATA® is unavailable, refer to the applicable Mesa Airlines, Inc. Company Flight Manual, Performance chapter.
What are standard alternate minimums?
600-2 and 800-2
How will dispatchers determine the standard alternate minimums? Will they use 600-2 and 800-2?
No. They will use Ops Spec C055 - Derived Alternate Airport Weather Minimums
What are derived alternate minimums?
Operations Specification C055 authorizes Mesa Airlines, Inc. to derive alternate airport weather minimum from the following criteria:
- For airports with at least one operational navigational facility providing a straight in non-precision approach procedure, or a straight-in precision approach procedure, or, when applicable, a circling maneuver from an instrument approach procedure, the alternate airport IFR weather minimums will be:
a. A ceiling derived by adding 400 feet to the authorized Category I HAT or, when applicable, the authorized HAA.
b. A visibility derived by adding one statute mile to the authorized Category I landing minimum. - For airports with at least two operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight-in non-precision approach procedure, or a straight-in precision approach procedure to different, suitable runways.
a. A ceiling derived by adding 200 feet to the higher Category I HAT of the two approaches being used.
b. A visibility derived by adding 1⁄2 statute mile to the higher authorized Category I landing minimum of the two approaches used.
B. In no case shall Mesa Airlines, Inc. use an alternate weather minimum lower than any applicable minimums derived from these criteria, and in determining alternate weather minimums, Mesa Airlines, Inc. will not use any published approach procedure which specifies that alternate airport weather minimums are not authorized.
Do derived alternate minimums apply in flight?
No. Only the minimums on the chart apply. Derived minimums are for fuel planning purposes only.
When will dispatch assign a 2nd alternate airport on the release?
When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are marginal, a second alternate will be designated in the dispatch release.
What are marginal conditions defined as, in reference to second alternate requirements?
Mesa Airlines, Inc. defines marginal as 500 feet and one mile above the lowest suitable landing minimums for the airport. Both the visibility and the ceiling at both the destination and first alternate airports must be considered marginal for this rule to apply.
What is Exemption 17347 per Op Spec A005?
A FAR 121 flight may be dispatched to a destination airport and/or alternate airport when the TAF for either one or both of those airports indicate, by the use of conditional phrases in the Remarks Section of such reports, that the weather could be below authorized weather minimums at the ETA. The main body of such forecasts must, however, indicate that the weather will be at or above authorized weather minimums for ETA.
What are the limitations of Exemption 17347 for Conditional Phrases?
- Second alternate
Manual: 410 Page: 7.67 Revision: 35 Date: 10/15/21
A second alternate airport must be listed on the dispatch release if either the destination airport or the first alternate airport TAF contains conditional phrases indicating weather below authorized weather minimums. - For the destination airport, the TAF weather conditions shall not be less than one half of the lowest weather minimum visibility value established for the instrument approach procedure expected to be used.
- For the first alternate airport, the TAF weather conditions shall not be less than one half of the weather minimum ceiling and visibility values specified in the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications for that airport.
- For the second alternate airport, the METAR or TAF, or any combination thereof for that airport, must indicate in the main body and remarks section that the weather conditions will be at or above the alternate weather minimum ceiling and visibility values specified in the Operations Specifications for that airport.
- BECMG
Each BECMG TAF that is “deteriorating” must be considered valid at the first minute of the becoming period. Each BECMG TAF that is “improving” will not be valid until the last minute of the becoming period of the TAF. - Updated Weather Information
The dispatcher will ensure, along with the PIC, that the flight is provided with the most current relevant weather reports and forecasts, for the destination and alternates, while en route.
Can Exemption 17347 be used for flights in Mexico?
No. Exemption 17347 may only be used for destinations within the U.S.
What is a High Minimums Captain?
Any Mesa Airlines, Inc. captain who has not served at least 100 hours as PIC in that type aircraft is designated under FAR 121 as a “High Minimums Captain”
What are High Minimums Captain limitations?
- Takeoff
“High Minimums Captains” can apply Lower than Standard Minimums for takeoff; however, the need for a takeoff alternate for the departure airport is predicated on HMC landing minimums. - Landing
Landing minimums for “High Minimums Captains” may be determined by adding, to the published approach procedure, 100 feet to the DH/MDA and by adding one half statute mile to the required minimum visibility or RVR equivalent in C054. - Alternates
Landing minimums for “High Minimums Captains” at alternate airports are not increased above those minimums applicable to the alternate airports, and lower than standard alternate rules may be applied, but in no case may be less than a 300 foot ceiling and one mile visibility, regardless of the operation.
What airspace is RVSM implemented in?
a. The lower 48 contiguous states (Domestic Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (DRVSM)).
b. Alaska.
c. Atlantic and Gulf of Mexico High Offshore Airspace.
d. San Juan FIR.
e. Southern Canada (SDRVSM).
When checking the altimeters before takeoff, what is the maximum difference allowed between the altimeter and known field elevation?
The difference between the published runway elevation and the altimeter display should not exceed 75 feet.
What is the max altimeter miscompare during flight before one should be reported to maintenance?
200’
What altitudes are used for RVSM? In which directions for which altitudes?
Altitude assignments for direction of flight will follow a scheme of odd altitude assignment for magnetic courses 000-179 degrees and even altitudes for magnetic courses 180-359 degrees for flights up to and including FL410.
How will pilots know the aircraft is RVSM certified?
Flight crews must determine the aircraft’s RVSM status by referencing the RVSM or NON-RVSM status placard installed on the instrument panel below each MFD.
Review maintenance logs to assure minimum equipment requirements are met. RVSM operations must not be commenced or continued unless all of the required equipment is operational.
During the external inspection of the aircraft, particular attention should be paid to the condition of static sources and the condition of the fuselage skin in the vicinity of each static source, and any other component that affects altimetry system accuracy (i.e., dents, ripples, appearance of burns, paint etc.).
Flight crews shall consider all enroute weather including SIGMETS, AIRMETS and PIREPS while planning a flight into RVSM airspace. (Moderate or greater turbulence is a reason to avoid RVSM airspace)
What is a mountain wave and when is it most likely to occur?
Mountain Wave Activity (MWA) or severe turbulence
1) Significant MWA occurs in RVSM airspace. MWA is generally experienced in the months between late fall and early spring in the vicinity of mountain ranges in western states. Conditions for MWA occur when strong winds blow perpendicular to mountain ranges resulting in up and down or “wave” motions in the atmosphere. This wave action can cause altitude excursions and airspeed fluctuations normally associated with severe turbulence. MWA is difficult to forecast and can be highly localized and short lived.
2) In-flight MWA indicators include:
a) Altitude excursions and airspeed fluctuations with or without associated turbulence.
b) Pitch and trim changes required to maintain altitude with accompanying airspeed fluctuations.
c) Light to severe turbulence depending on the magnitude of the MWA.
3) Pilot actions when experiencing severe turbulence or MWA.
a) Pilots should contact ATC and report the situation.
b) If experiencing weather induced altitude deviations exceeding +/- 200 feet, the crew will contact ATC and state “unable RVSM due (state reason, i.e. turbulence, mountain wave).”
c) If the crew is notified by ATC of an assigned altitude deviation error (AAD) which exceeds +/- 300 feet, the crew should take action to return to the cleared flight level (CFL) as quickly as possible.
d) Until the pilot reports clear of the condition, in congested areas ATC will apply “merging target vectors” to one or both passing aircraft.
e) The pilot should consider requesting a FL change or
a reroute to exit the affected area.
How should pilots avoid wake turbulence?
Wake turbulence encounter avoidance
a. When compared to current RVSM operations in Europe, it has been found that reports of wake turbulence encounters enroute did not increase significantly with the introduction of RVSM. When encountered, enroute wake turbulence was found to be light to moderate.
b. Pilots should be alert for wake turbulence in the following areas:
1) In the vicinity of aircraft climbing and descending through their altitude.
2) Approximately 12-15 miles after passing 1,000 feet below opposite-direction traffic.
3) Approximately 12-15 miles behind and 1,000 feet below same-direction traffic.
4) The FAA will be tracking wake turbulence events as associated with RVSM so pilots should advise ATC of such events.
c. If the crew is notified by ATC of an assigned altitude deviation error (AAD) which exceeds +/- 300 feet, the crew should take action to return to the cleared flight level (CFL) as quickly as possible.
When do pressure altimeters indicate true altitude?
Pressure altimeters are calibrated to indicate true altitude under International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) conditions. Any deviation from ISA will result in an erroneous reading on the altimeter. In a case when the temperature is higher than ISA, the true altitude will be higher than the figure indicated by the altimeter, and the true altitude will be lower than indicated when the temperature is lower than ISA. The altimeter error may be significant and becomes extremely important when considering obstacle clearances in very cold temperatures.
Correct the KBZN ILS RWY 12 for cold temperatures given the airport temperature is -10deg C.
Procedure Turn 8000 ft 3527 ft \+ 342.7 ft 1 8400 ft 2 FAF 6800 ft 2327 ft \+ 229.4 ft 7100 ft MDA Straight-In 4860 ft 387 ft \+ 38.7 ft 4900 ft DA/H 4643 ft 170 ft \+ 17 ft 4660 ft Circling MDA (CAT C/D) 4940/5040 ft 467/567 ft \+ 46.7/56.7 ft 5000/5100 ft 1 CORRECTION derived as follows: Procedure turn altitude 8000 feet - Airport elevation 4473 = 3527 (3000 ft at -10°C) = 290 and (4000 ft at -10°C) = 390 = 100 Altitude difference of above (4000-3000) = 1000 Error per foot difference (100/1000) = .1 HAA = 3527 Error at 3527 = (3527-3000) x .1 = 52.7 + 290 (error -10°C at 3000) = 342.7 2 INDICATED ALTITUDE derived as follows: Calculated error at 3527 HAA from above = 342.7 Procedure turn altitude (8000) + error (342.7) = 8342.7 INDICATED ALTITUDE rounded to the next highest 100 ft increment = 8400
Values should be added to published minimum IFR altitudes.
The TEMP COMP function in the FMS indicates the compensated altitude for the DA/MDA. However, corrections to DA/H require DA/ MDA BARO to be manually set. In this example set DA/MDA to 4660. (4643 + 17 = 4660 to be set with the MDA knob. (Rounded up by 10 foot increments as applicable)
What is the driftdown analysis performed by dispatch?
FAR 121.191 requires Mesa Airlines, Inc. to plan each flight with consideration given to an engine failure enroute. Compliance with this regulation is primarily a pre-flight/dispatching function. This regulation specifies two sets of requirements of which Mesa Airlines, Inc. must comply with at least one on each flight. The two sets of requirements will be referred to as “Method 1” and “Method 2.”
Both methods measure performance based on aircraft net flight path (or net altitude). For a two-engine airplane, net altitude is the altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a 1.1% climb gradient based on its current weight. The airplane’s actual altitude capability (service ceiling or 0% climb gradient) is approximately 5,000 feet higher than the net altitude capability. The difference between the net and actual altitude is the operating safety margin. This operating safety margin accounts for factors such as:
a. Not being on the planned route of flight.
b. Ice accumulation on unheated surfaces.
c. The use of anti-ice when it was not planned.
d. The unavailability of an APU when it was planned.
e. Flying at other than optimum speeds and enroute temperatures greater than forecast.
Aircraft altitude capability is based on enroute climb speed or driftdown speed. Altitude capability at Long Range Cruise (LRC) speed is significantly lower.
What is driftdown method 1 M1METW?
Method 1 requires the aircraft to takeoff at a weight that ensures that if an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircraft’s net altitude capability will clear all obstructions 5 SM either side of the intended route by 1,000 feet until reaching the destination. The aircraft must also have a positive net gradient at 1,500 feet above the destination airport. Under optimum conditions, these requirements provide actual aircraft altitude capability of approximately 6,000 feet over the most critical obstruction and 6,500 feet above the destination field elevation when operating at enroute climb speed and planned conditions.
- Method 1 Maximum Enroute Takeoff Weight (M1METW)
Method 1 analysis provides a Maximum Enroute Takeoff Weight (M1METW) based on the forecast winds and temperatures aloft, bleed configuration and anti-ice configuration. M1METW is the maximum allowable weight at which the aircraft can takeoff and still comply with Method 1 requirements. This calculation is factored into the Planned Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight (PMRTW) found in header section of the Takeoff and Landing Report (TLR).
What is driftdown method 2 M2METW?
Method 2 (driftdown) requires that if an engine failure occurs, the aircraft be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from normal cruise altitude and the aircraft’s net driftdown altitude will clear all obstructions 5 SM either side of the route of flight by 2,000 feet until reaching the diversion airport. The aircraft must also have a positive net gradient at 1,500 feet above the diversion airport. Under optimum conditions, these requirements provide actual aircraft altitude capability of approximately 7,000 feet over the most critical obstruction and 6,500 feet above the destination field elevation when operating at optimum driftdown speed and planned conditions.
- Method 2 Maximum Enroute Takeoff Weight (M2METW)
Method 2 analysis provides a Maximum Enroute Takeoff Weight (M2METW) based on the forecast winds and temperatures aloft, bleed configuration and anti-ice protection configuration. M2METW is the maximum allowable weight at which the aircraft can takeoff and still comply with Method 2 requirements. Additionally, Method 2 analysis provides a list of driftdown suitable airports for one or more segments along the route of flight. Each segment is defined by start and end points referenced from either the origin airport, the destination airport or navaids along the route of flight. - MEL/CDL Penalties
When an MEL/CDL item associated with an inoperative or missing component requires an enroute performance penalty, the penalty is entered by the dispatcher into the flight planning system for consideration. The penalty is then noted in the remarks section of the release.
How is driftdown method 1 or 2 chosen?
The flight planning system chooses the most favorable of either Method 1 or Method 2. Generally, Method 2 provides the highest enroute takeoff weight but requires the most amount of dispatching oversight. As a result, Method 1 is selected by default if it is not limiting to the flight plan’s takeoff weight. If Method 1 is limiting, the lesser of M1METW or M2METW is selected. Generally, M2METW is greater than M1METW, but in cases where there are few driftdown airports available, M1METW can be greater than M2METW.
If an engine failure occurs, what do FARs require the PIC do?
If an engine failure occurs, FAR 121.565(a) requires that “the pilot-in- command shall land the airplane at the nearest suitable airport, in point- of-time, at which a safe landing can be made.” Therefore, if an engine failure occurs, the flight crew will then determine the nearest suitable airport. The selected suitable airport may not necessarily be any of those selected for dispatching requirements.
What limit codes on the dispatch release are associated with takeoff conditions?
Takeoff Limit Reason
1) O - Obstacle Limited.
2) T - Tire Speed Limited.
3) C - Climb Limited.
4) V - Vmcg (Minimum Control Speed Ground).
5) B - Brake Energy Limited.
6) D - Dry Runway Check.
7) F - Field Length Limited.
8) P - Policy (Specific Weight).
9) TS - Structural Max TOW.
10) RS - MAX Ramp Weight.
11) TO - Takeoff Obstacle Limited.
12) TT - Takeoff Tire Speed Limited.
13) TC - Takeoff Climb Limited.
14) TV - Takeoff Vmcg.
15) TB - Takeoff Brake Energy Limited.
16) TD - Takeoff Dry Runway Check.
17) TF - Takeoff Field Length Limit.
18) TP - Takeoff Policy (Specific user weight).
19) TA - Takeoff Limited Due to METW to the T/O Alternate.
20) TW - Takeoff Limited Due to Max Takeoff Weight (Taxi Weight).
21) EE - Enroute Limited Due to METW.
22) EZ - Takeoff Limited Due to Max Zero Fuel Weight.
23) EL - Takeoff Limited Due to Max Landing Weight and Burnoff.
24) EM - Takeoff Limited Due to Max Fuel Tank Capacity.
25) LS - Landing Limited Due to Max Structural LDW.
26) AC - Approach Climb.
What limit codes on the dispatch release are associated with landing conditions?
Landing Weight (LDW) Limit Reason
1) A - AFM Maximum Chart Weight.
2) R - Runway.
3) F - Field Length Limit.
4) T - Tires.
Are Mesa aircraft equipped with ozone converters?
No
AOSSP
Aircraft Operator Standard Security Program
Who can have a weapon, explosive, or incendiary device when undergoing screening, entering a sterile area, or attempting to board or onboard an aircraft?
Authorized local or federal Law Enforcement Officers (LEO) and Federal Flight Deck Officers (FFDO) only
If your crew badge is lost, stolen, damaged or destroyed, who should you contact? Can the pilot fly without a badge?
HR Badging Department Immediately - complete the lost/stolen badge form
The pilot can fly if they cannot be replaced by another pilot while on a trip (not before) and must be authorized by dispatch with an authorization letter and must be escorted in sterile areas
Where must ID badges be displayed while in restricted areas?
above the waist on the outermost garment - when a person is not displaying ID they MUST be challenged
If an individual is not showing an unexpired ID and is challenged, who should be notified?
GSC Ground Security Coordinator
and
LEO Law Enforcement Officer
Stay with the person
When should the Icing Conditions, Cold Weather, and Cold Soak Operations checklist be used?
When icing conditions exist.
Icing conditions are present when OAT is 10deg C or less and any of the following conditions exist:
Visible moisture such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals.
Ice, snow, slush, or standing water on ramps, taxiways or runway.
If leaving the aircraft unattended, what must be done?
All doors and compartments should be closed and the ramp/stairs should be closed, unless using a jet bridge, the jet bridge can stay attached and the cabin door open as long as the jet bridge door is closed.
If an aircraft has been unintentionally left unattended, what must be done?
Full aircraft search procedures
During lockdown, how should the door be adjusted?
Manually override mechanical latch to the locked position
Can 1 pilot be alone in the cockpit when the aircraft is being operated?
No. 2 crewmembers must be in the flight deck at all times.
Who will conduct the full aircraft search/who is responsible for United Express?
Ground Personnel
Who is responsible to check the wheel wells and refuel/defueling compartment?
The PIC or SIC if conducting the preflight walk around
FFDO
Federal Flight Deck Officer - a trained airline pilot allowed to carry firearms
If someone is being deported, which seat should they and their escort, if required, be seated?
The last row if possible
Can prisoners board the aircraft without an escort? Can deportees?
People being deported can board without an escort. Prisoners must have an escort on board.
If a prisoner resists or expresses personal objections to the flight, can they be accepted for transport?
No
Can prisoners wear prison clothes or anything identifying them as a prisoner that is visible to passengers?
No
When should prisoners/escorts board the aircraft?
First when practical, in the last row on the window side if possible
Can prisoners be seated in an aisle seat, next to a customer or in or across from an exit row?
No
How many LEOs must be escorting a low-risk prisoner? 2 low-risk prisoners?
For a single low-risk prisoner, 1 LEO on a flight of 4hrs or more
For 2 low-risk 2 prisoners, 1 LEO on a flight of 4hrs or less
(For single LEOs controlling 2 low-risk prisoners, the LEO must sit between the prisoners and any aisle, so on the EJET, there can only be 1 LEO per prisoner)
Is there a limit on the number of low-risk prisoners on a flight?
No, as long as there is a LEO for each prisoner (again because the EJET only has 2 seats before the aisle), whereas a 3 seat configuration could have 1 LEO for 2 prisoners on flights of 4hrs or less
How many LEOs are required for each high-risk prisoner?
2 LEOs
Can leg irons be used for prisoners?
No
How many high-risk prisoners can be carried on a flight?
1 only
Are FAMs required to display their credentials to the PIC?
No.
Can a FAM board an aircraft without the minimum crew onboard?
Yes
DOD Courier
Department of Defense Couriers may travel under official orders which grant exemptions to specific Transportation Security Administration Protocol concerning physical or other examination of courier material. Department of Defense Couriers will travel with an official letter bearing the seal of the Department of Defense which identifies the Courier by Name and Identification Number. The documentation also contains specific instructions for the PIC regarding handling of the Department of Defense courier with regard to aircraft access.
When a LEO has been requested to respond to a security-related incident, what must be done?
TSA must give permission to depart
If the aircraft cannot land within 30min of a bomb threat, what must be done?
Descend to attain no more than 1PSI difference while maintaining the existing cabin pressure altitude until the suspect device is in place at the LRBL.
Discontinue the use of electronic devices.
Request FA move passengers at least 4 rows away from the LRBL
Taxi to a remote site and deplane the aircraft immediately
What items are in the trip can?
- Current AML Aircraft Maintenance Log (Form M007)
- Previous AML
- Weight and Balance (Form M035)
- Blank MEL/CDL placards (Form M011)
- 30 day VOR Accuracy (GOM Form 306)
What is the purpose of the AML?
To verify the aircraft airworthiness status
What is contained in the AML?
- AML Form M007 containing the maintenance log and maintenance release sections
- Current airworthiness release (sign-off)
- DDL Deferred Discrepancy Log Form M008
What color ink should be used in the AML?
Blue or Black Ink
Who is responsible for logging items in the AML?
The PIC
Which sheet (white or yellow) is kept in the aircraft for the AML?
The first sheet, white, will be removed and kept for maintenance records. The second sheet, yellow, will remain onboard in the booklet.
What is the DDL?
Deferred Discrepancy Log - which records and tracks items that are deferred under procedures other than the MEL, NEF, or CDL programs. Examples include items deferred using Repair Orders or manufacturer guidance material. All discrepancies recorded on the DDL must be transferred back to the AML for corrective action.
Who is responsible for verifying placard placement, circuit breaker secure or reset, deferrals, and sign-offs are completed?
The PIC
What should be done is there is a nuisance message while on the ground?
The PIC or a mechanic will clear the nuisance message or fault in accordance with the QRH and/or the GRP within the CFM.
If the nuisance message or fault is not listed or cleared by the GRP, the PIC shall contact maintenance operational control via dispatch.
If an AML entry is made in error what should be done?
ONLY THE PIC ORIGINATING THE DISCREPANCY can clear the entry by writing in all caps ENTERED IN ERROR, and will date/time and sign the entry
What is the NEF?
Non-Essential Furnishings Items - another means of deferring damaged, inoperative, or sometimes missing equipment that are not covered by the MEL/CDL, such as paint chips, passenger convenience items…
How should the MEL/CDL Placard Form M011 be used in the maintenance can?
Form M011 will be placed on the outside of the AML Log Can
Form M011B will be detached from Form M011 and affixed adjacent to the control or indicator for the item affected
The MEL placard will be used for NEF items.
What is the MEL?
The MEL is derived from the MMEL issued by the FAA.
What can be broken and how long it can be broken for.
MEL Category A
Items in this category shall be repaired within the interval specified in the Remarks column.
MEL Category B
Repaired within 3 days excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the AML.
MEL Category C
Repaired within 10 days excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the AML.
MEL Category D
Repaired within 120 days excluding the calendar day the malfunction was recorded in the AML.
MEL Category M
NEFs have specific time frames for each NEF
MEL NEF Category
NEF items are required to be on the dispatch release however no pilot action is required in referencing the NEF
When a repair deadline cannot be met concerning Category B or C items, how long can maintenance be extended? Who gives permission?
Category B - 3 days
Category C - 10 days
Maintenance Control Management
Can MEL Category A or D items be extended?
No.
What are some examples of non-routine flight operations?
Any flight conducted for purposes other than the ordinary transport of people or property (all flights not involving common carriage)
- in-flight functional evaluation of aircraft systems
- functional check flights following maintenance
flights conducted for crew member training or qualification - ferry flights (special flight permit)
- sales or customer demo flights
What is the difference between group 1 and group 2 Non-Routine Flight Operations?
Group 1 includes:
1) Normal operating of airplane systems such as the normal retraction and extension of the aircraft’s landing gear.
2) A flight to confirm the proper functioning of the aircraft’s communication or navigation radios and/or a flight to confirm the proper functioning of the aircraft’s autopilot.
3) Operations conducted under a Special Flight Permit (Ferry Flight).
Group 1 NRFOs shall consist of fully qualified, current PIC and a first officer.
Group 2 consists of:
1) Any flight that involves de-powering of any of the aircraft’s electric, hydraulic or pneumatic systems.
2) Alternate extension of the aircraft’s landing gear.
3) Alternate extension of the aircraft’s flaps.
4) A flight that involves approach or actual entry into a stall.
5) Actual shut down of an engine.
6) De-powering of any flight control power input.
7) Operation of the plane’s wing flaps following certain procedures.
Group 2 NRFOs shall consist of a PIC that is a qualified instructor, Check Pilot or fully qualified, current PIC authorized by the Director of Operations, or designee, and a first officer.
What are some reasons to conduct a ferry flight?
14 CFR 21.197 states: “A Special Flight Permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight, for the following purposes:
1) Flying the aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage.
2) Delivering or exporting aircraft.
3) Production flight testing new production aircraft.
4) Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger.
5) Conducting customer demonstration flights in new production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests.”
Is a special flight permit required to reposition an airworthy aircraft?
A Special Flight permit is not required to non-revenue reposition of an airworthy aircraft for the purpose of repositioning that aircraft.
Can a jumpseater be on a ferry flight using a special flight permit?
Only flight crewmembers and persons essential to the operation of the aircraft are carried aboard during ferry flights if the aircraft flight characteristics are appreciably changed or the aircraft’s performance in flight substantially affected.
Authorization to carry additional Mesa Airlines, Inc. personnel must be pre-approved by both the Maintenance approver and Flight Operations notified personnel identified in block 18 of the Special Flight Permit. The additional approved personnel accompanying the flight must be listed on the Special Flight Permit (Form #M109A).
What are supplemental operations?
Supplemental Operations are nonscheduled, charter flights conducted between airports that are on the Domestic route system or between airports off the route system, but are within an area approved by the FAA. Mesa Airlines, Inc. is authorized to conduct charter flights in the contiguous 48 states in accordance with the FARs, Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications (OpSpec) and procedures set forth in the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Dispatch Operations Manual.
Will supplemental flights operate under VFR?
No. All flights conducted under supplemental regulations will operate under an IFR flight plan.
Are flight time limitations different for supplemental flights?
No. A pilot serving as a crewmember on a passenger charter being operated under domestic regulations will comply with the duty and rest requirements of FAR Part 117 and the Mesa Airlines, Inc. General Operations Manual regardless of whether the airports used are listed in C070 of the Operations Specifications.
What is required for DOD charter flights operated as a supplemental operation?
Weapons
On supplemental operations carrying only military personnel, unloaded weapons may be carried onboard and stowed under the seat.
Experience Requirements
a. Except for aircraft new to the company, PICs and first officers assigned to DOD supplemental operation passenger flights will possess at least 250 hours of combined experience in the aircraft being operated.
b. Dispatchers will confirm the experience requirements are met by conferring with Crew Scheduling and the flight crew.
3. Weight and Balance
All Department of Defense charter flights will use actual passenger and cargo weights in calculating aircraft weight and balance. Baggage weights for these flights will be actual weights, including: personal carry- on items, plane-side checked baggage and checked baggage (Operations Specifications A098 and A099).
What are flag operations?
International Operations
What are domestic operations defined as?
Mesa Airlines, Inc. Domestic Operation is any FAR Part 121 operation conducted as follows:
- Between any points within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia.
- Operations solely within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia.
- Operations entirely within any State, territory, or possession of the United States.
- When specifically authorized by the Administrator, operations between any point within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia and any specifically authorized point located outside the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia.
What are flag operations defined as?
Mesa Airlines, Inc. Flag Operation is any FAR Part 121 operation conducted as follows:
- Between any point within the State of Alaska or the State of Hawaii or any territory or possession of the United States and any point outside the State of Alaska or the State of Hawaii or any territory or possession of the United States, respectively.
- Between any point within the 48 contiguous States of the United States or the District of Columbia and any point outside the 48 contiguous States of the United States and the District of Columbia.
- Between any point outside the U.S. and another point outside the U.S.
Are flag or domestic operations more strict?
The specific FAR Part 121 Flag Operations regulations that are applicable to Mesa Airlines, Inc. flights have been incorporated into this chapter. Whenever possible and in an effort to maintain simplicity, FAR Part 121 Domestic Operations regulations that are more conservative than their Flag Operations counterparts shall be followed. However, please note the specific instances when Flag Operations regulations are required to be followed.
What forms are associated with flag operations?
Found in GOM Appendix B (Forms):
A. General Declaration form.
The PIC is authorized to sign the General Declaration Form (CBP Form 7507) in the field “Signature Authorized Agent or Pilot-in-Command.”
B. Welcome to the United States Customs Declaration Card.
C. Welcome to U.S I-94 Immigration and Naturalization Card.
D. Welcome to U.S I-94 Immigration and Naturalization Card for non-immigrant Visa Waiver.
E. Crewmember Declaration form.
F. Aircraft/Vessel Report form.
G. Air Cargo Manifest form.
What is the Canadian requirement regarding transmissometer for takeoff?
Takeoff is authorized down to 500 RVR with two transmissometers (touchdown and midpoint). Both must be operative.
What is the Canadian requirement regarding diverting to alternate airports?
Diverting to Alternate Airports
- United States to Canada
If diverting to an alternate airport in Canada, obtain Customs service at that airport. - Canada to United States
If diverting to an alternate airport in the United States, obtain Customs service at that airport.
What is different about Canadian approach control?
Arrival Control is used instead of Approach Control
What is different about Canadian traffic patterns?
CIRCUIT may be used instead of TRAFFIC PATTERN. Other features, such as Airport Terminal Information Service, Pre-taxi Clearance Delivery, etc. are standard.
What is the Canadian regulation for a communications failure?
Turbine-powered aircraft, if cleared on departure to a point other than the airport of first intended landing, shall proceed maintaining the last assigned altitude or flight level or the minimum enroute IFR altitude, whichever is the higher, until 10 minutes beyond the point specified in the clearance. Then proceed at the filed flight plan altitude or flight levels. If a communications failure occurs while an aircraft is being vectored, the pilot shall proceed by a direct route from the point of communications failure to the fix, course or airway specified in the vector instructions.
What are the relevant Canadian airspeed limitations?
The following airspeed limitations apply in Canadian controlled airspace:
- No person shall:
a. Operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots if the aircraft is below 10,000 feet ASL; or
b. Operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots if the aircraft is below 3,000 feet AGL within 10 nautical miles of a controlled aerodrome unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance. - If the minimum safe airspeed for the flight configuration of an aircraft is greater than the airspeed describe above, the aircraft shall be operated at the minimum safe airspeed.
What is different about approaches in Canada?
When flying published instrument approach procedures, transmitting passage over the following fixes is mandatory:
- Initial approach fix outbound.
- Initial approach fix inbound.
- Intercepting the final approach
track on straight-in (no procedure turn) approaches.
What is different about fueling in Canada?
Reserve fuel for flights between U.S. airports and Canadian airports will be in accordance with domestic rules. Use pounds or liters instead of gallons.
1 U.S. gallon equals 3.8 liters.
When do crewmembers need to clear Canadian and U.S. Customs while in Canada?
Terminating and through flights with more than 90 minutes of scheduled ground time requires all crewmembers clear both Canadian and U.S. Customs with personal baggage.
Can you enter the terminal in Canada?
If the scheduled ground time is less than 90 minutes, the flight crewmembers may remain onboard the aircraft in order to complete normal duties and a crewmember may perform a preflight inspection of the aircraft. At some locations, crews must clear Canadian Customs prior to entering flight operations or the terminal. Subtle differences exist at various locations in Canada, therefore, check with local personnel if there is any question about Customs or the local rules about entering the terminal building or flight operations. Flight attendants should refer to the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Flight Attendant Manual for Customs/Immigration requirements.
Normally, crewmembers stay onboard or in the immediate vicinity of the aircraft during the turnaround time. If they desire to enter the terminal building, it is necessary to pass through Canadian Customs and Immigrations and then be reprocessed when reboarding. This procedure pertains to all crewmembers as a group. If one crewmember goes through Customs, ALL MUST GO THROUGH. If the decision is to remain at the aircraft, ALL MUST REMAIN.
How are General Declaration forms submitted to Canadian Customs?
electronically, except paper General Declarations documents will be required for maintenance ferries, repositioning flights and extra sections.
Are General Declaration forms required for flights from the U.S. to Canada?
No.
If a crewmember leaves the aircraft in Canada to go to the terminal and be cleared by Customs, what form is required to be completed?
If a crewmember exits the aircraft and needs to clear Customs, then the Welcome to Canada Card (Form E-311) needs to be completed.
For crewmembers going to the U.S. from Canada, what form must be completed?
Crewmembers, who need to clear Customs going into the United States must complete a Crewmember Declaration Form (Form 5129). In cities where there is U.S. Customs and Immigration preclearance, the 5129 form is completed and delivered to U.S. Customs at the foreign city.
Do flights into Canada require a Air Cargo Manifest?
Yes.
What is the Air Cargo Manifest form?
The Air Cargo Manifest is a U.S. Customs form that is required on every flight carrying cargo (flights carrying no cargo must indicate “NIL” on the Manifest). This form is prepared by personnel in the gateway city and is attached to the General Declaration (Form 7507) and stamped by U.S. Customs prior to departure. The form accompanies the flight and is turned in to Customs on arrival.
What is the Welcome to the United States Card?
U.S. Customs requires all passengers entering the United States to complete a Welcome to the United States Card (Form 6059B). Declaration cards for children or handicapped passengers may be included in the family members or fellow travelers’ declaration.
Those passengers departing from a pre-cleared city will complete the Declaration and hand in the card to U.S. Customs prior to leaving Canada.
What is the Welcome to Canada Card?
This card is essentially the Canadian equivalent of the Welcome to the United States Card. This form must be completed for every passenger on the flight. This includes children and each member of a family even if traveling together. Unless the passenger has received the Canadian Customs Form before boarding the flight, the flight attendant will give this form to each passenger before landing in Canada.
What is the United States Crew Declaration form?
The U.S. Crew Declaration form is a U.S. Customs form required to be completed by each crewmember and presented with crewmember identification. Deadheading crewmembers are considered passengers.
In cities where there is U.S. Customs and Immigration preclearance, the 5129 form is completed and delivered to U.S. Customs at the foreign city.
What rules do flights in Mexico operate under?
ICAO
How is distance measured in Mexico?
Meters and Feet
What differences are used in distance measurements in Mexico for altitudes, winds, altimeters, temperatures, weights, and times?
Distance used in navigation, position reporting, etc. are in nautical miles. Tenths of NM are used when distance is less than 10 miles and more than 2 miles. Short distances such as runways are in meters and feet.
a. Altitudes, elevations and heights are in meters and feet. Vertical speed calls will be in feet per minute.
b. Wind directions will be in degrees magnetic. Visibility and runway visual values will be in statue miles and meters.
c. Altimeter settings are in millibars or inches of mercury, with inches of mercury given on request.
d. Temperatures are in degrees Celsius.
e. Weights are in metric tons, kilograms and pounds.
f. Times are in hours and minutes with the day beginning at UTC midnight.
What are the maximum holding speeds in Mexico?
Unless specified, holding pattern circuits are limited to one minute inbound.
- Turbo Jet aircraft up to 6,000 feet is 200 kts.
- Turbo Jet aircraft above 6,000 to 14,000 feet is 210 kts.
- Turbo Jet aircraft above 14,000 feet is 230 kts.
What are the relevant airspeed restrictions in Mexico?
Aircraft operating IFR shall not exceed speeds listed.
a. Maximum airspeed is 250 KIAS below 10,000 feet in the national airspace.
b. Maximum airspeed is 250 KIAS within 30 NM from any airport at or below 10,000 feet AGL of the airport elevation.
c. Maximum airspeed of 200 KIAS when operating IFR within 10 NM of an aerodrome when below 3,000 feet AGL above that aerodrome’s elevation.
What are the airspace classifications in Mexico?
- Class “A”
All airspace FL 200 and above except for that airspace designated as part of the Mazatlan Oceanic Flight Information Region (FIR) and the Merida Pacific FIR. Consult enroute charts provided by Mesa Airlines, Inc. - Class “D”
Controlled airspace established within the limits of the Terminal Control Area (TMA). TMAs are located over select airports with high traffic volume. - Class “E”
Controlled airways which extend form the indicated MEA to FL 200. - Class “F”
Advisory Service Areas. - Class “G”
All uncontrolled airspace with the Merida, Mazatlan, Monterrey and Mexico FIRs from the surface to FL 200 designated as part of the MAZATLAN Oceanic FIR and the Merida Pacific FIR.
If departing an uncontrolled field in Mexico, what frequency should be used for position reporting?
If departing an airport that is uncontrolled, call broadcasting intentions and monitor for other aircraft will be conducted on 122.5 MHz. When operating within 15 miles of non-controlled airports, Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft should select and maintain a listening watch on frequency 122.5 MHz. Broadcast position and pilot intentions a minimum of 10 miles from the airport, at entry and each point in the traffic circuit.
What does Mexico require regarding ELTs?
Mexico law requires all aircraft entering Mexico be equipped with the 406 MHz ELT.
a. Aircraft Routing Department will assign aircraft equipped with the 406 MHz ELT in accordance with Mexico Regulations.
1) To meet Mexico requirements aircraft not equipped with a fixed automatic 406 MHz ELT may be dispatched to Mexico provided two portable 406 ELTs are installed. Aircraft post production 2008 with one fixed 406 ELT installed may be dispatched with the addition of one portable ELT installed.
a) Portable ELT will be installed inside the forward compartment.
The ELT is powered by a lithium battery
When should the altimeter be adjusted to QNE (29.92) in Mexico?
Change to QNE during the climb when passing 18,500 feet MSL.
When should the altimeter be changed to QNH in Mexico?
Change to QNH (local) during the descent when passing FL195.
What are some difference that may be seen in the METAR in Mexico?
Following are differences a pilot operating outside the U.S. may see in METAR reports, be vigilant for these nuances:
a. Wind reports variable in nature may be listed as VaRiaBle (VRB).
b. Speed values can be listed in Kilometers Per Hour (KPH) or
Meters Per Second (MPS).
c. Prevailing visibility listed may be a four digit minimum visibility in meters.
d. Runway visual range listed in meters with four digit value and a tendency value Down, Up or No Change.
e. Altimeter settings are in Q-Hecto Pascals (e.g., Q1013 millibars).
f. For the purpose of intensity or proximity of severe weather in the US 5 and 10 SM of the point of observation. In ICAO terms this designates 8,000N of reporting point.
g. Some international weather forecasts, TAF, may include temperature forecast such as: TN25/12Z TX34/18Z. This can be read as Temperature at 12Z is expected to be 25°C and Temperature at 18Z is expected to be 34°C.
What is different about the Phonetic Alphabet in Mexico?
C-Coca…………………………………………………………………. kok koh
M-Metro………………………………………………………………. meh troh
N-Necto ……………………………………………………………….rneck tah
U-Union …………………………………………………………….you nee un
X-Extra ………………………………………………………………..ecks trah
1-(one) ……………………………………………………………………….wun
2-(two) ………………………………………………………………………… too
3-(three) …………………………………………………………………….. tree
4-(four) …………………………………………………………………….fow er
5-(five) ………………………………………………………………………….fife
6-(six) ………………………………………………………………………….. six
7-(seven) …………………………………………………………………. seven
8-(eight)…………………………………………………………………………ait
9-(nine)…………………………………………………………………….. niner
0-(zero) …………………………………………………………………….. zero
Decimal ………………………………………………………….. day see aml
Thousand ……………………………………………………………..tou sand
What forms must be onboard before departing for Mexico?
a. List of Passengers
b. Air Cargo Manifest
c. General Declaration Form
There will be three copies of each form for departure and three for arrival (a total of six copies). The station personnel will distribute as required to the appropriate personnel in the departure and arrival stations. The crew needs to verify that all four copies are onboard before departure to Mexico.
Can crewmembers go on the jet bridge in the Bahamas?
No. Crewmembers must remain on the aircraft during the turn or they will have to be cleared through customs. The station advised that crewmembers should not even go onto the jet bridge.
However, flight crewmembers are allowed off the aircraft to conduct their required walk-around.
- With the exception of a flight deck officer conducting a post-flight walk- around, crewmembers operating turn flights must remain on the aircraft during the turn or they will have to be cleared through customs. Crewmembers who deplane, even to access the jet bridge, will be required to enter and clear Bahamian Customs and subsequently U.S. Customs in NAS before returning to the aircraft.
- If a flight deck officer needs to make a phone call for operational reasons they must contact NAS operations via radio or the agent on the jet bridge for an escort to the Operations office.
What is controlled airspace is in the Bahamas? What is the transition altitude?
Airspace in the vicinity of the Bahamas below 6,000’MSL is controlled by Nassau Approach.
Airspace above 6,000 ft MSL is in the Miami Oceanic Control Area and is controlled by Miami Center.
Transition altitude for the Bahamas is FL180.
What documents are required for flights to the Bahamas?
General Declarations (electronic) Immigration form (if clearing customs)
Is ACARS available in Cuba?
No.
If crewmembers need to call operations from Cuba, how should they contact them?
If flight crewmembers need to make a phone call for operational reasons, they can contact Operations via radio. Operations personnel will bring a cell phone that is capable of calling numbers in the United States.
Should you bring food on flights to Cuba?
No
How is visibility and pressure reported in Cuba?
Visibility is reported in meters.
Pressure is reported in HectoPascals (hPa).
What air some airspace considerations for Cuba?
- All flight routings and possible diversions are dispatched and planned to remain within 50 NM of shore at any point in time. Passenger briefings, emergency equipment and crewmember training associated with extended overwater operations are not required.
- Flight crews must always navigate the aircraft within 50 NM of shore unless deviating in accordance with the captain’s emergency authority.
- Transition altitude is 4000 feet.
- Most airspace between the Florida Keys and Cuba is Warning or Restricted airspace. Do not file or fly through these areas unless requested by ATC. Aircraft must be routed via specific route segments which can be found in Ops Spec B050.
- Cuban regulations require an alternate for all flights landing at a Cuban airport. Mesa Airlines, Inc. policy is that any planned alternate will be a United States airport due to customs issues and lack of support services.
- Airspace over the entire Cuban island is controlled by Havana Center.
- Airspace in the vicinity of Havana (HAV/MUHA) is controlled by HAV approach control and tower.
- It is Mesa Airlines, Inc. policy that all aircraft used for flights to and from Cuba will be capable of flying advanced RNAV (PRNAV). All equipment necessary for PRNAV will be installed and operable.
- On arrival, expect to ask for lower altitude, STAR waypoint directions and approach clearance.
- When cleared for an approach, expect to fly the full approach procedure unless proceeding direct to an IAF.
- Runway 6 is the preferred runway.
- Havana Tower will not tell the pilot to switch to departure frequency after takeoff. It is the pilots’ responsibility to change frequencies.
For flights to Cuba, what documents are required?
Cuban Immigration landing card (for entering customs)
General Declaration - paper for entry into Cuba, electronic for entry back to U.S.
How many ELTs are required for flights to Cuba?
Aircraft require two 406 MHz ELTs to operate in Cuban airspace. If either of these units is on MEL, the aircraft may not be routed to Cuban destinations.
Who else will ride on the aircraft to Cuba?
Three security personnel will ride on all flights to and from a Cuban airport. They will occupy regular passenger seats.
A Mesa Airlines, Inc. mechanic will ride on all flights to and from Havana.
What are the flag operation alternate airport requirements per 121.621?
An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch release for each destination airport when the destination weather is below the requirements listed below. However, no alternate airport is required if the flight is scheduled for not more than six hours and, for at least one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate:
- At least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling MDA, if a circling approach is required and authorized for that airport.
- At least 1,500 feet above the lowest published instrument approach minimum or 2,000 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is greater.
- The visibility at that airport will be at least three miles, or two miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums, whichever is greater, for the instrument approach procedures to be used at the destination airport.
What are the rainfall intensities?
Light
Moderate
Heavy
Extreme
When will airport operations be suspended when braking action is reported and MU values are reported?
A braking action report of nil, combined with a MU value of 40 or less will suspend airline operations at that location. A braking action report of nil alone, reported by similar aircraft under circumstances similar to what is expected at the time of operation, will be sufficient to suspend operations on that runway as well.
What are the icing intensities?
- Trace of Ice
An ice accumulation which does not affect the performance of the aircraft, but should be reported by Mesa Airlines, Inc. pilots for meteorological purposes. - Light Ice
An icing condition which can be handled safely by the aircraft deicing equipment. On encountering ice, it is assumed the aircraft can be flown indefinitely, provided the deicing equipment is used. - Moderate Ice
An icing condition which deicing equipment will safely handle, but for practical flight purposes, can be considered a signal for the pilot to alter the flight path so as to avoid operation in that condition. - Severe Ice
An icing condition which deicing equipment cannot handle.
When should you expect severe icing conditions?
The following weather conditions may be conducive to severe inflight icing:
Visible rain at temperatures below 0°C ambient air temperature.
Droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below 0°C ambient air temperature.
What is the procedure to exit severe icing conditions?
Procedures for exiting the severe icing environment:
These procedures are applicable to all flight phases from takeoff to landing. Monitor the ambient air temperature. While severe icing may form at temperatures as cold as -18°C, increased vigilance is warranted at temperatures around freezing with visible moisture present. If visual cues specified in the limitations section of the CFM for identifying severe icing conditions are observed, accomplish the following:
a) Immediately request priority handling from air traffic control to facilitate a route or an altitude change to exit the severe icing conditions in order to avoid extended exposure to flight conditions more severe than those for which the airplane has been certificated.
b) Avoid abrupt and excessive maneuvering that may exacerbate control difficulties.
c) Do not engage the autopilot.
d) If the autopilot is engaged, hold the control wheel firmly and disengage the autopilot.
e) If an unusual roll response or uncommanded roll control movement is observed, reduce angle-of- attack.
f) Do not extend flaps during extended operation in icing conditions. Operation with flaps extended can result in a reduced wing angle-of-attack with the possibility of ice forming on the upper surface of the wing, AFT of the protected area.
g) If flaps are extended, do not retract until the airframe is clear of ice.
h) Report these weather conditions to air traffic control.
Can Mesa aircraft taxi in NIL braking conditions?
When braking action is reported as “NIL,” no Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft will attempt to taxi, takeoff or land.
When there is an incident or accident, and there is time, what must be done to the DVDR?
When a flight is terminated as a result of an incident or accident, the Flight Recorder and CVR circuit breakers must be pulled immediately upon landing to preserve the last 30 minutes of recorded tape in the CVR and the last 25 hours of tape for the FDR. If the incident or accident happens on the ground, circuit breakers must be pulled immediately following the incident or accident. For example, incidents include, but are not limited to, hard landings, leaving a paved surface during taxi, takeoff or landing, etc.
It is against Mesa Airlines, Inc. internal policy to intentionally or knowingly erase/ switch off any pertinent FDR and /or CVR data or the FDR/CVR itself
When should an aircraft be evacuated?
The aircraft should be evacuated if there is any risk of fire or toxic fumes.
Should the oxygen system be on for an evacuation?
No
What is the TEST acronym for emergencies?
Once a flight attendant has made contact with the flight deck, the following information shall be given:
1. Type of Emergency
The flight crew will inform the flight attendant(s) of the nature of the emergency.
2. Evacuation Required
The flight crew will inform the flight attendant(s) if an emergency evacuation is expected. The evacuation command from the flight deck is “evacuate, evacuate, evacuate” over the PA.
3. Special Instructions
The flight crew will inform the flight attendant(s) if, and when, a brace command will be required. Review the evacuation signals and exits to use. Review any other peculiarities related to the situation and arrival.
4. Time Remaining
The flight crew will inform the flight attendant of the time remaining to prepare the cabin prior to arrival. The flight attendant receiving the emergency information from the flight deck is expected to communicate that information with the remaining flight attendant (on applicable aircraft).
What role does the FO assume when the PIC becomes incapacitated?
It shall be the responsibility of the first officer assigned to a flight to assume responsibility of command of the aircraft at any time the PIC may so direct. In the event that the PIC becomes obviously ill during the flight or otherwise incapable of conducting the flight and is unable to delegate command, it shall be the responsibility of the first officer to assume command of the aircraft and to perform the duties and responsibilities of the PIC
What should the FO do in case of PIC incapacitation?
- Ensure autopilot is engaged.
- Call flight attendant to flight compartment.
- Check that incapacitated pilot does not interfere with flight controls. It is preferable to have the incapacitated pilot removed from the flight compartment.
- If unable to remove the incapacitated pilot, instruct a flight attendant to lock the shoulder harness of the incapacitated pilot and move the seat rearward.
- If an immediate landing is imperative, obtain advice on the most suitable airport where medical assistance can be readily rendered.
- Check the possibility of obtaining assistance from pilots who may be traveling as passengers on board the airplane.
What is the Voluntary Provisions of Emergency Services (VPES) program?
This program allows qualified law enforcement officers, firefighters and emergency medical technicians to offer their assistance during in-flight emergencies.
Only the flight’s crewmembers should be advised that there is a VPES volunteer onboard and no one, ground or in-flight crew, may divulge the identity, seat number and itinerary or personal/professional information about the volunteer.
What is MedLink?
MedLink provides 24 hour medical consultation service for any in-flight medical emergency or medical condition when the crew deems medical advice is necessary. MedLink may also be used to answer questions regarding travel of customers with special medical needs.
Prior to any medical diversions, the PIC will contact MedLink and the dispatcher. If MedLink cannot be contacted, the captain will coordinate with the dispatcher for a diversion if required as per normal procedures. When MedLink services are used, MedLink assumes all liability for the emergency care giver as well as the recommended emergency first aid.
The PIC should immediately contact AIRINC to establish a phone patch between the PIC, a MedLink emergency room physician (602-239-3627) and the dispatcher. AIRINC will contact the emergency room physician first to facilitate medical services.
When is a Mesa aircraft considered overdue?
At 10min past the ETA, the dispatcher will telephone the controlling agency.
At 20min past the ETA, without prior coordination with ATC or SOC, the aircraft is considered overdue.
What are lost comm procedures?
a. FAR 91.185(b) VFR Conditions. If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
b. FAR 91.185(c) IFR Conditions. If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if Paragraph 91.185(b) cannot be complied with, each pilot shall continue the flight to the original destination according to the following:
1) Route
a) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
b) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route or airway specified in the vector clearance.
c) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.
d) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.
2) Altitude
At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown:
a) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
b) The minimum altitude converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level as prescribed in FAR 91.121(c) for IFR operations.
c) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.
3) Leaving holding fix
If holding instructions have been received, leave the holding fix at the expect further clearance time received.
4) Descent for approach
Begin descent from the enroute altitude or flight level upon reaching the fix from which the approach begins, but not before:
a) The expect further clearance time (if received).
b) If no expect further clearance time has been received, at the estimated time of arrival, shown on the flight plan, as amended with ATC.
3. The requirements of FAR 91.185(c) are basic in nature and additional instructions are shown in Part 1 of the Aeronautical Information Manual.
How should a lithium battery fire be handled?
Fires caused by lithium type batteries commonly found in portable electronic devices. The extinguishing of these fires is a two phase process:
- Utilize a Halon, Halon replacement or water extinguisher to extinguish the fire and prevent its spread to additional flammable materials.
- After extinguishing the fire, douse the device with water or other non- alcoholic liquids to cool the device and prevent additional battery cells from reaching thermal runaway.
Do not cover the device or use ice to cool the device. Ice or other materials insulate the device, increasing the likelihood that additional battery cells will reach thermal runaway.
Once the device is extinguished, place the device into the thermal containment bag (passenger only) using the procedures in the Thermal Containment Bag (TCB) section.
Refer to the appropriate aircraft Quick Reference Handbook for further procedures.
What is the purpose of the Thermal Containment Bag and how should it be used?
Once the device is extinguished and has shown no signs of burning, smoking or any evidence of overheating for 15 minutes, the device can then be placed inside the thermal containment bag (TCB) located in the cabin.
A. Operation:
1. Remove velcro carry-strap surrounding the TCB.
2. Break seal, forcefully pull open zipper using black zipper pull-strap.
3. Don thermal gloves.
4. Open top of the TCB and insert device inside the bag, ensuring the device is placed below the pink baffle separator.
5. Pull red tab labeled “pull” to remove pink baffle separator.
6. Seal the TCB by sliding hands across the velcro seam.
7. Forcefully pull zipper closed using black zipper pull-strap to fully seal TCB.
8. Stow bag in aft galley cart. If an aft galley cart is not available, place the bag in the AFT lavatory, and lock the lavatory.
9. The flight attendant will contact the PIC to arrange removal of the bag/ device once the flight lands.
B. During Preflight Inspection:
1. Sealed.
2. Present.
C. EFB Fires in the Cockpit
Thermal gloves are located in the cockpit on United aircraft only and should be used in the event a fire occurs from an iPad. After following procedures in the QRH and the fire is out, the device should be handed to a flight attendant using the thermal gloves, where available. The flight attendant will then follow the Inflight procedures for use of the thermal containment bag.
What is Appendix A of the GOM?
Flight Crew Announcements
What is GOM Appendix B?
Forms
What is GOM Appendix C?
Deicing Procedures and Cold Weather Operations
What is the clean aircraft concept?
No aircraft will takeoff until the captain has visually inspected the aircraft and is satisfied that the aircraft is adequately deiced for a safe flight.
Takeoff with the following accumulation of frost, due to cold soaked fuel, on the underside (bottom) of the wing fuel tank area is permissible:
Maximum 1/8 inch layer of frost.
Should the APU or engines be operated during deicing procedures?
Preferably not.
Alternately, if the preferred method of de/anti-icing with the engines operating cannot be achieved due to station constraints, the following methods can be used (in order of most preferred to least preferred):
1. Alternating engines.
When braking action in the deice pad is determined to be no better than poor, additional safety precautions will be implemented. At the discretion of the ground supervisor, deicing will be conducted only on the side of the aircraft without an operating engine. The process is completed by alternating the operating engine after the first half of the aircraft is deiced. Coordination between ground and flight personnel must be accomplished before this procedure is used.
- With the GPU connected to provide power and the APU and engine off.
- As a last choice: with the engine off and the APU running.
Type 1 Fluid
A. Type I fluids are Newtonian, non-thickened fluids used primarily for deicing, but may also be used for anti-icing with associated HOTs. Deicing fluid is a mixture of glycol and water. When glycol is mixed with water, the freezing point of the solution is lowered. As the percentage of glycol increases in the glycol/water mixture, the freezing point of the solution is lowered until the percentage of glycol reaches approximately 60% glycol. Above 60% glycol mixture, the freezing point of the solution will increase, making the mixture less effective against precipitation.
B. The appropriate percentage of glycol to water (when using Type I fluid) is determined by knowing the ambient (or current) outside temperature and by following the “Mixture/Temperature Freeze Point Table” in this chapter.
C. Type I fluids are thin fluids and are primarily used as deicing agents only. They form a very thin wetting film on aircraft surfaces and typically contain a minimum of 40% glycol. Diluted with water and heated prior to application, they provide very limited holdover protection during frozen precipitant conditions. This fluid is orange or clear in color.
Type II Fluid
A. Type II fluid is a special product having a glycol content of at least 50% plus a thickener system which forms a pseudo-plastic film on the aircraft surface. This film is shear sensitive to airstream flow and its performance depends on that property. During takeoff, the shearing force of the airstream causes the fluid viscosity to rapidly decrease at speeds above 30 knots. The thinning fluid then flows off the aircraft, leaving only a minimal residue, when sustained speeds above 80 knots and rotation speeds above 100 knots are attained.
B. SAE Type II deicing/anti-icing fluids (thickened type) provide protection against refreezing under falling precipitation. Fluids available in the United States that meet SAE Type II Category are SPCA AD 104 and Hoechst 1704LTV (DOW Chemical Flightguard 2000).
D. Anti-icing will normally be accomplished with 100% concentrate Type II fluid. When anti-icing is required, the minimum application will be to the wings and empennage (the tail assembly of the airplane, including the fin, rudder, elevator, etc.) of the aircraft. Application to the fuselage is restricted to aircraft departing Canada, overnight or extended holds only.
Under no circumstances can an aircraft that has been anti-iced, receive another coat of Type II/IV fluid on top of the existing film of anti-ice fluid. Surfaces must be deiced with a hot deicing mixture of Type I fluid and water, before another application of Type II/IV fluid is made.
Type III Fluid
Type III is a thickened fluid which has properties that lie between Types I and II. Therefore, it provides a longer holdover time than Type I but less than Type II.
Type IV Fluid
Green
1. Type IV fluid is a special product having a glycol content of at least 50% plus a thickener system which forms a pseudo-plastic film on the aircraft surface. The fluid when delivered from the manufacturer has a 50% glycol concentrate content and is to be considered 100% for holdover calculations and therefore cannot be diluted with water. This film is shear sensitive to airstream flow and its performance depends on that property. During takeoff, the shearing force of the airstream causes the fluid viscosity to rapidly decrease at speeds above 30 knots. The thinning fluid then flows off the aircraft, leaving only minimal residue. Fluids with this characteristic are called non-Newtonian fluids.
- Type IV fluids have been shown to have significantly better holdover times when compared to Type I and II fluids. These increased holdover time characteristics are attributable, in part, to the addition of thickeners and/or other additives which require a ticker application of the fluid.
- Anti-icing will normally be accomplished with 100% concentrate Type IV fluid. When anti-icing is required, the minimum application will be to the wings and empennage (the tail assembly of the airplane, including the fin, rudders, elevator, etc.) of the aircraft. Application to the fuselage is restricted to aircraft departing Canada, overnight or extended holds only.
HOT
Holdover Time
Holdover Time (HOT) is the estimated time de/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the critical surfaces of an aircraft.
When does HOT start?
HOT starts at the beginning of the application with one-step de/anti-icing and with the beginning of the anti-icing process with two-step de/anti-icing.
What is the purpose of the HOT Table?
This chapter contains the Holdover Time Table which is used as a guide in the selection of the anti-ice fluid to be used in the two-step deice/anti- ice operation.
What factors affect the HOT?
Many factors influence the effectiveness and protection time provided by anti- icing fluids:
- Temperature of aircraft surfaces and outside air.
- Fluid type, amount, strength and application method.
- Precipitation type and rate.
- Wind velocity and direction.
What is the reason for the deicing fluid mixture ratio?
The higher the fluid to water ratio, the lower the freeing point of the fluid.
What is the lowest deicing fluid to water ratio approved for use at Mesa?
A Type I mixture of 40% glycol with 60% water is the leanest fluid mixture approved for use on Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft and can only be used in locations where the ambient or current outside temperature is at least 14°F or greater. The glycol to water mixture will always be expressed with the percentage of glycol stated first (e.g., a 40/60 mix refers to 40% glycol to 60% water).
What how is the visible inspection for the HOT accomplished?
Visual inspection may be accomplished in accordance with the “Holdover Time” criteria explained in this section. The visual inspection procedure will consist of the following:
a. The flight crew (PIC and SIC) will look at respective wings (visible from the cockpit) and visually ensure the wing is free from contamination. If necessary, the PIC will turn on the ice lights to aid the check.
b. If conditions exist where the wings are not visible from the cockpit, a flight crewmember will proceed into the cabin and illuminate the wing with a flashlight to determine if contamination exists.
c. If visibility from inside the aircraft will not conclusively determine that wings and other critical surfaces are free from contamination, the aircraft will return to a designation location for additional deicing.
Pre-takeoff Check
This check is required anytime that ground-icing conditions exist and the aircraft has been de/antiiced and a HOT established. It is accomplished within HOT range and normally can be accomplished by the flight crew from inside the cockpit. The aircraft’s wings are checked for contamination prior to takeoff. The pre-takeoff check is integral to the use of HOTs. Because of the variables involved in the determination of HOTs, it is necessary for the flight crew to look outside the aircraft to assess current weather conditions and the aircraft condition, and not rely on the HOT as the sole determinate that the aircraft is free of contaminates.
Is a pre-takeoff check required after deicing?
Mesa Airlines, Inc. does not have a procedure for pre-takeoff contamination checks therefore when the holdover is exceeded a return for subsequent de/anti-icing is required. Pre-takeoff contamination checks (visual/tactile inspection after HOT is exceeded) are not authorized.
If takeoff is conducted within the holdover time, at least one pre-takeoff check of the wings is to be completed by the flight crew within the holdover time range from inside the cockpit just before taking the runway. The pre-takeoff check requires the flight crew to check the aircraft’s wings for contamination as well as to assess the current weather conditions or other situational conditions. The pre-takeoff check is integral to the use of holdover times.
If slats and flaps will be extended for takeoff, which they will for the E175, can the full HOT be used?
No. Research has determined that fluid degradation is accelerated by the steeper angles of the flaps/slats in the takeoff configuration. If flaps and slats are extended for de/anti-icing 76% holdover and allowance tables must be used.
What form of precipitation is HOT NOT applicable for?
Ice Pellets
HOTs are applicable to most forms of precipitation with the exception of ice pellets. Due to their physical characteristics, ice pellets tend to become partially embedded in fluids and can take longer to melt compared to snow or other forms of precipitation. For this reason, the visual indicators conventionally used in developing HOTs cannot be applied to ice pellets.
Tests have shown that ice pellets generally remain in the frozen state embedded in Types III and IV anti-icing fluid, and are not absorbed and dissolved by the fluid in the same manner as other forms of precipitation. Using current guidelines for determining anti-icing fluid failure, the presence of a contaminant not absorbed by the fluid (remaining embedded) would be an indication that the fluid has failed. These embedded ice pellets are generally not readily detectable by the human eye during pre-takeoff contamination inspection procedures. Therefore, a visual pre-takeoff contamination inspection in ice pellet conditions may not be of value and is not required.
What are allowance times for deicing?
As a means to address ice pellet precipitation, a test protocol was developed that uses a combination of aerodynamic fluid flow off performance of ice pellet-contaminated fluids in combination with visual inspection and evaluation of a wing model test surface. Since 2005, guidance has been derived from this testing protocol and is known as “Allowance Times.” This guidance is also applicable to small hail due to inherent similarities to ice pellets.
Operationally, both HOTs and allowance times provide the times for an aircraft to safely depart following proper deicing/anti-icing. The main difference between the two is the applicability of the pre-takeoff contamination check to HOTs, which cannot be used with allowance times. The only scenario for which an allowance time can be extended is if the precipitation stops and does not restart while still within the allowance time and the allowable 90-minute extension time.
What METAR codes are not applicable to HOTs and require allowance times?
GR Hail GR with remarks “less than 1/4”” Small Hail PL Ice Pellets SG Snow Grains GS Snow Pellets SHGS Snow Pellets with Showers
Snow Pellets: Use Snow Holdover Times
Snow Grains: Use Snow Holdover Times
Ice Pellets: Use Ice Pellet Allowance Times
Small Hail: Use Small Hail Allowance Times
Hail: No Holdover Times or Allowance Times
Explain how the GR and GS METAR Codes affect deicing HOT
If operating in the United States or Canada and METAR code “GS” is reported, the precipitation type is snow pellets and the snow HOTs can be used.
If operating in the United States and METAR code “GR” is reported with “less than 1/4” in the remarks, the precipitation type is small hail and the ice pellet and small hail allowance times should be used.
After Deicing, what will the ground crew tell the flight crew?
1 Step Deicing Process:
After deicing is complete and the aircraft post-deice check is complete, the deicing personnel will communicate the following to the PIC:
A. Fluid type.
B. Fluid manufacturer name.
C. The start time of the final de/anti-ice application.
D. Verification that post-deice check is complete.
E. Any change in conditions that have affected the aircraft anti-icing treatment since the application.
Ground: “Captain, is your aircraft ready for de/anti-icing?”
Flight Crew: “Mesa (aircraft number) is configured and ready for Type 1 fluid on the
wings and tail.”
Ground: “Mesa (aircraft number), Safewing, Type I deicing is complete, start time of final fluid application was (military time), post-deice check complete.”
Flight Crew: “Mesa (aircraft number) understand post-deice check complete.”
2 Step Deicing Process:
Ground: “Captain, is your aircraft ready for de/anti-icing?”
Flight Crew: “Mesa (aircraft number) is configured and ready for Type I fluid on the
wings and tail.”
Ground: “Mesa (aircraft number), anti-icing is complete, Safewing, Type IV fluid was used at a 100% mixture, start time of final fluid application was (military time), post- deice check complete.”
Flight Crew: “Mesa (aircraft number) understand post-deice check complete.”
Can pilots use their own judgement to determine precipitation intensity for HOT use?
Pilots may not act based on their own assessment of precipitation intensity except in the following instances where their actions are more conservative than the actions prescribed by the reported conditions. (METAR)
If, in the PIC’s judgement, the intensity is greater than that being reported, the pilots will request that a new observation be taken. If a new observation is not taken or the new observation remains grossly different from that which is obviously occurring, then the applicable HOTs or allowance times for the higher intensity precipitation must be applied (e.g., if precipitation is being reported as light ice pellets and the pilot assessment is that it is moderate ice pellets, then the pilot must apply the allowance time for moderate ice pellets).
Pilots are not to use Runway Visual Range (RVR) for determining visibility used with the HOT tables during snowfall. In addition, flight crews are to use Surface Visibility instead of Tower Visibility for determining visibility during snowfall.
Where are HOT tables found?
GOM Appendix C
Can RVR be used for determining snowfall intensity for holdover times?
No. The METAR must be used to determine snowfall intensity based on visibility.
What fluid is traditionally used for deicing fluid?
PG Propylene Glycol
What fluid is used for deicing besides PG Propylene Glycol?
EG Ethylene Glycol
Can deicing fluid be used below the LOUT?
No. Deicing fluids cannot be applied below their lowest operational use temperature.
What is the LOUT lowest operational use temperature for a given Type 1 fluid?
The higher (warmer) of:
a) The lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test for a given aircraft type; or
b) The actual freezing point of the fluid plus a freezing point buffer of 10deg C
NOTE: THIS IS DIFFERENT FOR TYPE II, III, IV fluids
What are Adjusted Holdover Time Tables?
These tables are for use when flaps/slats are deployed prior to de/anti-icing. Holdover and allowance times have been adjusted to 76 percent of standard times. Standard holdover and allowance times can be used if flaps and slats are deployed as close to departure as safety allows.
What is in GOM Appendix D?
Exit Seat Program - information about the crew briefing to passengers seated in an exit row
What is GOM Appendix E?
NORAD (North American Aerospace Defense Command) Intercept Procedures
ICAO Standard Intercept Signals (AIM)
If being intercepted and flares are used, should you turn towards or from the flares?
Turn in the direction of the flares
What is a green-on-green CA and FO pairing? Is it allowed?
Green-on-green is not allowed. For operations under 14 CFR Part 121, either the PIC or SIC must have at least 75 hours of line operating flight time in that aircraft type. Deviations from this requirement may only be granted by an amendment to the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications A005.
