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E175 > Indoc Homework > Flashcards

Indoc Homework Flashcards

1
Q

True/False: The PIC can cancel a flight.

A

False. Dispatch can cancel a flight.

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2
Q

True/False: The PIC is responsible for the full operational control and authority in the operation of the aircraft.

A

True.

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3
Q

List all 12 required items in the crewmember flight kit.

A 
Airman Certificate
Medical Certificate
FCC Restricted Radio Telephone Operating Permit
Mesa Airlines ID Card
Jeppesen Inflight Pubs
Required Manuals
Training Folder
Flashlight
Extra Pair of Corrective Lenses, if required
Passport
Writing Pen
Logbook
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4
Q

What is the lowest iPad battery percentage authorized on any flight segment?

A

40%

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5
Q

What are the 4 pillars of the SMS Safety Management System?

A

Policy
Risk Management
Assurance
Promotion

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6
Q

Where can you find safety reporting forms?

A

Pilot Lounge, Safety tab on Mesa Employee Intranet

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7
Q

What is the consolidation requirement after a proficiency check?

A

Crewmembers must acquire at least 100 hrs of line operating flight time, including IOE, within 120 days after the satisfactory completion of the proficiency check.

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8
Q

Which of the following pairings would be considered green on green and not be allowed per GOM 2.3B?

a) CA: 4000 total, 1300 in type, FO: 2000 total, 32 in type
b) CA: 4000 total, 45 in type, FO: 2000 total, 650 in type
c) CA: 4000 total, 120 in type, FO: 2000 total, 120 in type
d) CA: 4000 total, 45 in type, FO: 2000 total, 32 in type

A

D. For operations under 14 CFR Part 121, either the PIC or SIC must have at least 75 hours of line operating flight time in that aircraft type. Deviations from this requirement may only be granted by an amendment to the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications A005.

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9
Q

If the First Officer does not have 100hrs as SIC in the type of airplane, in what situations must the captain make all takeoffs and landings?

A

WXCGVORS

Windsear
X-wind over 15kts
Contaminated rwy
G braking action less than “Good”
Visibility less than 3/4 (1 for Mesa)
Other per PIC
RVR 4,000’ (5,000’ for Mesa)
Special Airport
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10
Q

After the First Officer has consolidated, in what situations must the captain make all takeoff and landings?

A

Visibility less than 1SM (RVR less than 5000’) Captain can make takeoffs to 500/500/500 RVR

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11
Q

By what day of the month in which a medical certificate expires must a new medical certificate be received?

A

25th

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12
Q

If a pilot loses their certificate, how can they continue to serve as a crewmwmber using Exemption 11152?

A

Contact Crew Tracking

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13
Q

How long is a temporary certificate issued under exemption 11152 valid for?

A

72hrs

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14
Q

True/False: If one crewmember leaves the controls for physiological needs at FL380, the pilot remaining at the controls must don their oxygen mask per 121.333.

A

False. FL410

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15
Q

Is a passenger requiring 2 seatbelt extenders acceptable for transport?

A

No

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16
Q

Is a passenger who is barefoot acceptable for transport?

A

No

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17
Q

Is a passenger with a portable oxygen concentrator acceptable for transport?

A

Yes

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18
Q

Is a passenger with a portable oxygen generator acceptable for transport?

A

No

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19
Q

Is a pregnant passenger who is expecting delivery in 2 weeks acceptable for transport?

A

Yes. But not within 7 days without a doctor’s note.

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20
Q

Can a person with a service animal or pet sit in an exit row?

A

No

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21
Q

If an FAA ASI Aviation Safety Inspector wishes to occupy the flight deck jumpseat, what form of identification must be provided?

A

FAA Form 110A

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22
Q

Can the aircraft door be closed during fueling?

A

No

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23
Q

When an aircraft is instructed to line up and wait, which lights should be illuminated?

A

All exterior lights except landing lights

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24
Q

Is a flight deck considered sterile below 10,000’MSL?

A

Yes, except when cruise is below 10,000’

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25
Q

What are the requirements for a stabilized approach?

A

By 1000’ AGL:

  • All appropriate briefings and checklists have been accomplished
  • The aircraft is in the planned landing configuration (gear down and locked, final landing flaps, flight spoilers retracted)
  • Correct track
  • Not more than Vref+10KIAS, and not less than Vref
  • Power appropriate for configuration
  • Rate of descent not greater than 1000fpm
  • After glidepath intercept, or after the FAF, the PF requires no more than normal corrections to maintain the correct track and desired profile to landing within the TDZ
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26
Q

How many LEOs are required to carry 2 low risk prisoners on a flight of 3 hours?

A

1

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27
Q

How many LEOs are required to carry 1 low risk prisoner on a flight of 4.5hrs?

A

2

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28
Q

How many LEOs are required to carry 1 high risk prisoner?

A

2

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29
Q

How many LEOs are required to carry 2 high risk prisoners?

A

Mesa Airlines does not carry more than 1 high risk prisoner.

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30
Q

True/False: The proper seating position for prisoners would be the prisoner at the window and the LEO at the aisle?

A

True

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31
Q

What are some occurrences requiring an occurrence report?

A

A passenger was removed from the aircraft for failing to wear a mask
An emergency was declared
An engine failure
A passenger was removed from the aircraft for being intoxicated

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32
Q

Does Mesa Airlines use augmented flight crews?

A

No

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33
Q

Which of the following activities is considered “duty”?

A

Flight time
Pre and post flight duties
Deadhead transportation

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34
Q

If you are scheduled to report for your first flight at 0600L (acclimated), how many hours of flight time can you fly that day?

A

9 hours

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35
Q

If your scheduled day begins at 0600L (acclimated) and includes 5 legs of flying, what is the maximum FDP for that day?

A

11.5 hours

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36
Q

What is the maximum flight hours in any 672 consecutive hours?

A

100

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37
Q

What is the maximum FDP in any 168 consecutive hours?

A

60 hours

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38
Q

True/False: The reserve availability period may not exceed 12 hours.

A

False. 14hrs may not be exceeded

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39
Q

How many hours of rest are required prior to beginning any reserve or flight duty period?

A

10 hours

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40
Q

Before beginning any reserve or FDP, a crew member must be given at least ___ hours free from all duty within the past 168 hour period.

A

30

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41
Q

What is your maximum flight time for this day?

PHX based
IAH time zone is 2 hrs ahead of PHX

D-END: 1816L (NR 900) REPT: 0600L Holiday Inn Houston Inter
TH 29 5780 IAH-PHX 0645 0730 0245 0045 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 PHX-SBA 0815 0948 0133 0102 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 SBA-PHX 1050 1228 0138 CR9 0556

A

8hrs

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42
Q

What is your maximum FDP for this day?

PHX based
IAH time zone is 2 hrs ahead of PHX

D-END: 1816L (NR 900) REPT: 0600L Holiday Inn Houston Inter
TH 29 5780 IAH-PHX 0645 0730 0245 0045 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 PHX-SBA 0815 0948 0133 0102 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 SBA-PHX 1050 1228 0138 CR9 0556

A

10 hrs

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43
Q

Does this maximum FDP change if the first flight originating in IAH is delayed until 0800?

PHX based
IAH time zone is 2 hrs ahead of PHX

D-END: 1816L (NR 900) REPT: 0600L Holiday Inn Houston Inter
TH 29 5780 IAH-PHX 0645 0730 0245 0045 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 PHX-SBA 0815 0948 0133 0102 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 SBA-PHX 1050 1228 0138 CR9 0556

A

No, because your FDP has started. The show time didn’t change.

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44
Q

What time will you time out in PHX?

PHX based
IAH time zone is 2 hrs ahead of PHX

D-END: 1816L (NR 900) REPT: 0600L Holiday Inn Houston Inter
TH 29 5780 IAH-PHX 0645 0730 0245 0045 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 PHX-SBA 0815 0948 0133 0102 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 SBA-PHX 1050 1228 0138 CR9 0556

A

14:00

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45
Q

If the last flight from SBA is delayed, what is the latest you could depart (close the main cabin door) and still be legal?

PHX based
IAH time zone is 2 hrs ahead of PHX

D-END: 1816L (NR 900) REPT: 0600L Holiday Inn Houston Inter
TH 29 5780 IAH-PHX 0645 0730 0245 0045 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 PHX-SBA 0815 0948 0133 0102 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 SBA-PHX 1050 1228 0138 CR9 0556

A

12:22 local (14:00-1:38)

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46
Q

Is it still possible to get back to PHX if that last flight is delayed later than your previous answer (12:22 local)? If so, how?

PHX based
IAH time zone is 2 hrs ahead of PHX

D-END: 1816L (NR 900) REPT: 0600L Holiday Inn Houston Inter
TH 29 5780 IAH-PHX 0645 0730 0245 0045 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 PHX-SBA 0815 0948 0133 0102 -P97 CR9
TH 29 5908 SBA-PHX 1050 1228 0138 CR9 0556

A

Yes, only if the PIC accepts the extension.

Per 117.19, the extension can exceed up to 2hrs. A message must be sent to dispatch.

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47
Q

The CRM cornerstone is:

A

Authority with Participation, Assertiveness with Respect

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48
Q

Write an example of an assertive statement.

A 
Opening
Statement of concern
State the problem
Propose a solution
Achieve an agreement
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49
Q

What are the 6 components of CRM utilized by Mesa Airlines?

A 
CCDTMS
Communication
Coordination
Decision-Making
Task and Information Management
Mission Planning
Situational Awareness
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50
Q

What is the systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances?

A

ADM

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51
Q

List the elements of the DECIDE model.

A 
Detect
Estimate
Choose
Identify
Do
Evaluate
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52
Q

What is a threat?

A

An event or error introduced outside of the crew’s influence that, if not managed properly, can reduce safety margins.

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53
Q

What are the 3 basic concepts of TEM philosophy?

A

Anticipation
Recognition
Mitigation

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54
Q

What is considered standard takeoff minimums visibility for an aircraft with 2 engines?

A

1SM

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55
Q

What is the lowest RVR authorized for takeoff below standard minimums per OpSpec C078?

A

500 RVR

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56
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding takeoff below 1600 RVR?

a) HIRL and CL lights must be operational
b) A minimum of 2 operative RVR reporting systems are required
c) If more than 2 RVR reporting systems are operational, only the TDZ and mid reports are controlling

A

b) A minimum of 2 operative RVR reporting systems are required

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57
Q

An aircraft operated under part 121 must be able to complete a full stop landing within __% of the effective length of the intended runway.

A

60%

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58
Q

True/False: It is legal to begin an approach (pass the FAF) if the visibility reported at the airport is below that required for landing.

A

False.

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59
Q

True/False: It is legal to continue an approach if, after passing the FAF, the flight crew becomes aware of the visibility dropping below that required.

A

True

60
Q

A high minimums captain must add __ ft and __ SM to the required DA/MDA and visibility when conducting instrument approaches.

A

100ft and 1/2SM (GOM 7.42, FAR 121.652)

61
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When the weather is below the landing minimums.

62
Q

The takeoff alternate airport selected must be within:

A

60min of the departure airport at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative

63
Q

Which of the following scheduled arrival times at KLGB on the 27th would require the filing of an alternate airport?

a) 0015z
b) 0200z
c) 0330z
d) 1200z

KLGB 261740Z 2618/2718 VRB04KT P6SM VCSH SCT100
FM262000 19008KT P6SM VCSH OVC100
FM270000 29008KT P6SM OVC100
FM270400 VRB03KT P6SM BKN015 OVC100
FM271000 VRB03KT P6SM OVC008
A

0330Z, 1200Z

64
Q

For determining alternate minimums, if the intended alternate airport has at least one operational navigational facility providing a straight-in precision, non-precision, or circling approach, Mesa airlines is authorized to derive alternate minimums by adding ___ ft to the authorized HAT and ___ SM to the required visibility of the approach.

A

400ft, 1SM (GOM 7.39, OpSpec C055)

65
Q

When is a second alternate airport required?

A

When the forecast weather at the destination and first alternate are both marginal AND when being released under Exemption 17347 (GOM 7.40)

66
Q

What is meant by the term marginal?

A

A ceiling within 500’ of the lowest landing minimum
AND
Visibility within 1 mile above the lowest landing minimum

67
Q

True/False: Mesa Airlines aircraft can be released to an airport with forecasted weather below the authorized weather minimums at the destination, first, and second alternate.

A

False

68
Q

Exemption 17347 True/False: The main body of the TAF for all airports must be forecasting at least the required ceiling and visibility.

A

True

69
Q

Exemption 17347 True/False: The conditional phrase for the destination and first alternate must not be forecasting ceiling or visibility lower than 50% of that required.

A

True

70
Q

Exemption 17347 True/False: The second alternate airport TAF must be forecasting at least the derived alternate minimums and not have any conditional phrases indicating lower than that required.

A

True

71
Q

When will Surface Guidance Movement and Control System (SMGCS) procedures be used?

A

Surface visibility below 1200 RVR

72
Q

True/False: Checklists can be completed during aircraft movement during low vis taxi.

A

False

73
Q

True/False: All pilots must display the current airport diagram during any taxi operations.

A

True

74
Q

When arriving at uncontrolled airports, flight crews must monitor the CTAF for at least __ minutes and state position and intentions no less than __ NM from the airport.

A

10min, 10NM

75
Q

A cold, moist air mass off the west coast of the U.S. is likely to be categorized as:

A

Maritime polar

76
Q

A warm, dry air mass originating over central Mexico or the SW U.S. would most likely be categorized as:

A

Continental Tropical

77
Q

The boundary layer between two air masses

A

Front

78
Q

When is precipitation likely near a warm front?

A

Prior to passage of the front, light to moderate precipitation is likely.

79
Q

What happens to the air temperature as a warm front approaches and passes?

A

Air temperature increases

80
Q

What type of weather is likely along a cold front?

A

Cumuliform clouds with showery precipitation, possibly thunderstorms

81
Q

A type of occluded front where the air of a fast moving cold front is colder than the air ahead of the slow moving warm front is known as

A

Cold Front Occlusion

82
Q

What conditions are conducive to radiation fog?

A

Clear skies, moist air, and a calm or light wind

83
Q

How far should thunderstorms be avoided legally?

A

20NM

84
Q

What is characteristic of the mature stage of thunderstorm formation?

A

The beginning of rain at the surface with both updrafts and downdrafts, increasing wind speed at the surface

85
Q

If it becomes impossible to avoid a thunderstorm, what actions would be prudent to take?

A

Do not attempt to maintain a constant altitude, turn up cockpit lighting to a higher intensity

86
Q

What is a characteristic of X-band weather radar?

A

Rapid degradation of the return signal when encountering moderate or greater precipitation

87
Q

Icing conditions exist when

A

The TAT is below 10deg C and visible moisture is present

88
Q

SLD are most likely to cause which type of icing?

A

Clear icing

89
Q

True/False: The tropopause is characterized by a fairly constant temperature with altitude.

A

True

90
Q

What is a risk associated with solar flares?

A

Loss of radio communications and GPS signal

91
Q

To determine snowfall intensity to use when calculating holdover times, use:

A

The snowfall intensity as a function of prevailing visibility table in GOM Appendix C

92
Q

The adjusted Holdover Table 76% must be used when:

A

Slats/flaps are extended for deicing/anti-icing

93
Q

The preferred configuration for deicing operations is:

A

Engines running and APU off

94
Q

The max speed allowed below 2,500’AGL within 4NM of a Class D or Class C airport

A

200KIAS

95
Q

The maximum speed allowed below a Class B shelf

A

200KIAS

96
Q

True/False: ATC can waive the 250 KIAS speed restriction below 10,000’MSL

A

False

97
Q

True/False: ATC can waive the speed restriction below a Class B shelf.

A

False

98
Q

How many ARTCCs exist over the continental U.S.?

A

20

99
Q

RVSM Airspace exists between

A

FL290 and FL410

100
Q

What separation is given for aircraft in RVSM airspace?

A

1,000’

101
Q

Equipment required for RVSM airspace

A

1 Autopilot
2 ADCs
2 Mode C Transponders
1 Altitude Alerting System

102
Q

How many satellites make up the GPS system?

A

24

103
Q

A clearance to CLIMB VIA a SID authorizes a pilot to:

A

Laterally navigate on a SID and climb to meet altitude restrictions to the top altitude published on the SID

104
Q

True/False: A clearance to DESCEND AND MAINTAIN on a STAR eliminates speed restrictions and altitude restrictions on the procedure.

A

False. Speed restrictions are not deleted.

105
Q

If a pilot has not been instructed to DESCEND VIA a STAR prior to reaching a fix with altitude and speed restrictions, what should the pilot do?

A

The pilot should not descend but should maintain the published speed on the STAR

106
Q

True/False: No personal shall operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots if the aircraft is below 3000’AGL within 10NM of a controlled aerodrome in Canada.

A

True

107
Q

Can Canadian ATC waive the 200kts within 10NM and 3,000’AGL speed restriction?

A

Yes

108
Q

Will crew members arriving in the U.S. from Canada need to enter customs prior to entering the terminal?

A

No

109
Q

In Canada, do you have to comply with published altitude restrictions on a STAR if instructed to DESCEND AND MAINTAIN?

A

Yes.

110
Q

In Mexico the maximum airspeed is ___ kts within ___ NM from any airport at or below _____ feet AGL/MSL.

A

250kts, 30NM, 10,000’MSL
AND
200kts, 10NM, 3,000’AGL

111
Q

In Mexico, change to local QNH altimeter setting when descending through

A

FL195

112
Q

In Mexico, change to QNE 29.92” when climbing through

A

FL185

113
Q

Do passengers and crew pre-clear customs in Mexico prior to arrival in the U.S.?

A

No

114
Q

Is the Gen Dec form electronic or paper on flights to Mexico?

A

Paper

115
Q

DDA on CANPA approaches is determined by

A

Adding 50’ to the published MDA

116
Q

You are instructed to hold at 12,000’MSL. The maximum holding speed is

A

230 KIAS

117
Q

What is required to descend below the DA/MDA?

A

Flight Visibility at or better than approach plate
Normal Maneuvers
One of the visual references distinctly visible and identifiable

118
Q

If the approach lighting system is in sight but is not an ALSF1 or ALSF2 with red terminating bars or side row bars the pilot is authorized to descend to

A

not less than 100’ above the TDZE

119
Q

Standard LOC service volume

A

10NM within 35deg

18NM within 10deg

120
Q

In what situation is a CANPA approach not authorized?

A

No descent rate table exists on the approach chart
OR
If the FAF altitude is not the same altitude as GS intercept altitude for the precision approach

121
Q

What is required for PRM approaches?

A

Dual VHF receivers

122
Q

Is an instrument approach briefing required for a visual approach?

A

Yes, when at night even in VMC

123
Q

Can a CAT II approach be conducted with the tower closed?

A

No

124
Q

Upon landing from a CAT II approach, what taxiway lights indicate the aircraft be stopped?

A

When taxiway centerline lights change from alternating green/amber to only green

125
Q

When conducting circle to land approaches at Mesa, what visibility and MDA minimums should be used?

A

The charted MDA and Visibility
OR
1000’HAA and 3SM
WHICHEVER IS HIGHER

126
Q

What must a pilot do to operate into or out of a special airport?

A

Within the preceding 12 cal months, either the PIC or SIC must have operated into the airport, including a takeoff and landing. The PIC may qualify using pictorial means.

127
Q

There are __ classes of hazard materials.

A

9

128
Q

Which of the following items is permitted in a passenger’s carry-on baggage only?

a) alcoholic beverages exceeding 70% ABV
b) a lighter which does not contain unabsorbed liquid fuel
c) small items ammunition
d) spare lithium batteries for portable electronic devices

A

b, d

129
Q

What is the max amount of small arms ammunition permitted in checked luggage?

A

11lbs per package limited to 110lbs total per aircraft

130
Q

Each passenger may transport up to __ lbs of dry ice per checked bag or carry on.

A

5.5lbs

131
Q

What is the maximum amount of dry ice permitted per aircraft?

A

441lbs

132
Q

Does the battery of a motorized mobility wheelchair powered by lithium ion need to be removed?

A

Yes and it should be carried as carry-on baggage

133
Q

CCDTMS

A 
Communication
Coordination
Decision-Making
Task and Information Management
Mission Planning
Situational Awareness
134
Q

PRAP

A

Policy
Risk Management
Assurance
Promotion

135
Q

Are passengers permitted to carry electronic cigarettes?

A

Yes. Only in carry-on baggage, not checked

136
Q

Are portable oxygen concentrators allowed?

A

Yes. They are not considered hazardous materials and are accepted.

137
Q

Is the PIC required to be notified for Category B infectious/biological substances on board?

A

No. Unless it is packaged with dry ice

138
Q

An aircraft is considered airworthy until

A

scheduled maintenance becomes due
OR
an unscheduled maintenance discrepancy occurs during the operation of the aircraft

139
Q

When does an aircraft become airworthy after a discrepancy?

A

When maintenance is completed and discrepancies are corrected of deferred

140
Q

Discrepancies should be documented in the

A

AML

141
Q

Can the PIC elect to defer maintenance discrepancies in accordance with the MEL without contacting dispatch and maintenance control?

A

No

142
Q

If equipment or components are missing from the aircraft but do not affect safe operation, they can be deferred in accordance with the

A

CDL

143
Q

An item in the MEL listed as Category C must be repaired within

A

10 days

144
Q

Category A MEL items can be extended by

A

Category A items cannot be extended

145
Q

What does it mean when the MEL contains (M)?

A

There is a procedure that mechanics must complete as part of the deferral

146
Q

If an aircraft has a maintenance issue that requires travel to a maintenance base to repair the equipment, what should happen?

A

A ferry permit can be authorized for the aircraft to fly to the repair station without revenue passengers

E175 (7 decks)

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