CFM Flashcards

1
Q

When should the autopilot GP be changed by the PF v PM?

A

The PM should change the autopilot and Guidance Panel when the aircraft is being manually flown. The PF will make changes on the Guidance Panel and autopilot when the aircraft is being flown by the autopilot.

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2
Q

What call-outs are associated with the Guidance Panel and FMA Flight Mode Annunciator?

A

“LOC armed”
“LOC captured”
PF requests modes “FMS Speed”, “autopilot on”…
*To disengage AP, PF presses button and calls “Autopilot is off”
FMA annunciations that differ from expected
Always call-out “Roll mode”

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3
Q

How should in-flight deviations be announced?

A

PF “Check ____”

PM “Correcting _____”

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4
Q

What significant deviations are required to be announced? (Check ____)

A
Airspeed +10 or -5
Altitude +-100
Heading +-10
VSI +-250fpm
Course +-1 dot
GS1 dot above, 1/2 dot below
Bank over 30deg and +-5deg
MDA +100/-0
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5
Q

How should an altitude, airspeed or heading change be acknowledged with autopilot on?

A

PF sets and states “___ set”

PM points and states “____ set”

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6
Q

How should an altitude, airspeed or heading change be acknowledged with autopilot off?

A

PM sets and states “_____ set”

PF points and states “_____ set”

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7
Q

What response should be given for an incorrect altitude/airspeed/heading set?

A

“Negative”

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8
Q

What altitude call-outs are required enroute?

A

PM will state “FL240 for FL250” or “FL220 for FL 210” for 1,000’
PF will also state ___ for ___
*PF will state “ASEL” when alt begins to capture on FMA and “ALT” once alt is captured (PM will state “ALT” if PF doesn’t)

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9
Q

If ATC gives a heading change, how will the new heading be confirmed?

A

PM replies to ATC, PF acknowledges heading change by saying “Heading 120”
Both pilots will point at the assigned heading entered (by PF or PM depending on autopilot use) and state “Heading 120 set” or “Negative”

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10
Q

How should ASH 2683 be read back to ATC?

A

Air Shuttle 2-6-8-3 NOT twenty-six eighty-three

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11
Q

Who calls for a checklist on the ground v in the air?

A

The Captain calls for checklists on the ground. The PF calls for checklists in flight. BOTH crewmmembers must check the challenged item

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12
Q

If a checklist is interrupted or paused, what are the call-outs?

A

CA or PF: “Hold the checklist”
DO NOT PUT THE CHECKLIST DOWN
CA or PF: “Continue the checklist”
Re-read the last completed item before the interruption occurred.
If there is doubt as to the last item completed, restart the checklist.

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13
Q

What are the communication standards (verbage) for PPU operations (Power Push Unit)?

A
The communication standards for PPU operations are as follows:
1. Flight Deck:
Ready for pushback
2. Ground:
a. Brakes off
b. Central
c. Left, left (right, right)
d. Back off
e. Steady
f. Pushback complete
g. Set parking brakes
3. Flight Deck: Brakes set
4. Ground:
Power push removed
  1. ‘Left, left’: Pilot applies left tiller. Continues to apply more left tiller until airplane towman says:
    ‘Steady’: Means hold tiller in current position.
  2. ‘Right, Right’: Pilot applies right tiller. Continues to apply more right tiller until airplane towman says:
    ‘Steady’: Means hold tiller in current position.
  3. ‘Back-off’: Means reduce the tiller input.
  4. ‘Central’: Means to place the tiller in a central position.
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14
Q

When is mooring necessary? How is mooring completed?

A

Mooring is necessary when the weather conditions are bad or unknown.

The area where the airplane is to be parked in and moored must be paved and level, with ground tie down anchors available.

There is one mooring attachment point installed on each primary brace strut of the Main Landing Gear.

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15
Q

Where are MLI Magnetic Level Indicator charts located?

A

CFM Ch. 11

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16
Q

Can the aircraft be refueled or defueled with engines on (hot fueling)?

A

No.

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17
Q

Define Cold Soaked Operations

A

Cold soaked is defined as an aircraft in ambient temperature of -30°C (-22°F) or below for more than 8 hours. Cold soaking is the effect of cold fuel in the tanks causing moisture to be present on the upper and lower wing surfaces. If fuel temperature is 0°C (32°F) or below, it is possible to have clear ice or frost on the wing with the ambient air temperatures above freezing. The wing surfaces must be below freezing temperatures for frost to form, even though the ambient temperatures may be above freezing.

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18
Q

If an aircraft is deiced and anit-ice fluid is applied, then has to return to the gate, can the anti-ice fluid stay on for the next flight?

A

No. If deicing/anti-icing fluid is allowed to dry on airplane surfaces, this same fluid can become a contaminant. Deicing, and especially anti-icing, fluids are designed to adhere to airplane surfaces and shear off at speeds approaching Takeoff speeds.

If left on airplane surfaces for long periods of time (overnight), they may dehydrate and form a gel or dried deposit that will not shear off, even at high speeds.This contaminant will severely affect airplane performance and lift.

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19
Q

If there is dry snow actively falling, should de-icing procedures be performed?

A

It must never be assumed that an apparently dry and loose form of frozen moisture, for example, dry snow, will be removed by the slipstream during the initial Takeoff roll. For instance, on an airplane removed from a warm hangar, a dry snowfall that remains free and uncompacted on the ground may melt and later refreeze to form ice that sticks to the surface of the airplane.

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20
Q

When should water be drained from the potable water tank?

A

Drain water and waste from all tanks, if cold soak temperature is expected to be below 0°C (32°F).

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21
Q

How do anti-icing fluids work?

A

Anti-icing fluids lower the freezing point of frozen precipitation thus delaying the accumulation of contamination on the airplane. When applied to a clean surface, the fluid forms a thin layer that has a lower freezing point than precipitation. The fluid is highly soluble in water, thus the precipitation or ice melts on contact with the fluid. These fluids also delay the onset of frost on airplane surfaces. As the ice melts, the fluid dilutes with the water, thereby causing the mixture to become less effective or to run off. Ice can begin to form again after enough dilution has occurred and the freezing point begins to rise.

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22
Q

Do anti-icing fluids provide icing protection during flight?

A

No. Deicing/anti-icing fluids are not intended to provide icing protection during flight. The fluid must flow off the surface during Takeoff.

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23
Q

Do anti-icing fluids affect aircraft performance?

A

Embraer has performed flight tests to investigate the effects of approved fluids on performance and handling characteristics. The flight tests demonstrated these fluids did not have a measurable effect on Takeoff and climb performance.

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24
Q

What are the 5 components of anti-icing fluids?

A

Fluids are generally mixtures of glycol, water, inhibitors, thickening agents and wetting agents.

Glycol lowers the freezing point and prevents the formation of ice contamination at temperatures below freezing.
The wetting agent allows the fluid to conform to the airplane surfaces.
The inhibitors prevent corrosion and increase the flash point.
The thickening agent, normally propylene glycol with polymers, enables the coating of fluid to remain on airplane surfaces for longer periods.

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25
Q

What is Type 1 Fluid and what is it used for?

A

Orange Type I fluid is not thickened and characteristically forms a thin wetting film which provides relatively limited hold-over time. Type I fluid is usually used for deicing and provides protection against refreezing when no precipitation is present.

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26
Q

What are type II, III and IV Fluids? How do they compare?

A

Types II, III and IV fluids form a thicker film that provides a longer holdover time.

The holdover time of the type IV fluid is greater than that of type II, which in its turn has a longer hold-over time than type III fluid.

Type IV is an enhanced-performance fluid, with anti-icing effectiveness superior to Type II and provides an increased holdover time.

Type IV fluids offer significant operational advantages in terms of holdover times. However, all thickened fluids may dry out and residues may accumulate in aerodynamically quiet areas. The residues may rehydrate and refreeze during flight, which can potentially restrict the movement of flight controls. Operators are reminded to frequently inspect control surfaces, gaps and tab hinges for signs of fluid residues.

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27
Q

What is a deicing fluid composed of?

A

A deicing fluid is composed of heated water, or a mixture of water and type I, II, III or IV fluids. Heating is applied to a minimum temperature of 60°C to assure maximum deicing efficiency.

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28
Q

What are holdover times?

A

A. Holdover times for the fluids are shown in tables derived for each specific fluid brand, under various temperatures, fluid concentration and precipitation category.

  1. The lower limit of the published holdover time is used to indicate the estimated time of protection during moderate precipitation.
  2. The upper limit indicates the estimated time during light precipitation.
  3. Heavy conditions are not covered.

B. Therefore, crew experience and airline operational guidelines are required to clearly settle what heavy, moderate or light conditions are.

C. The holdover time for the existing weather conditions has to be greater than the time from the start of fluid application to the start of Takeoff roll.

D. Holdover times should be seen as rough approximations. They simply reflect the average estimated time that an anti-icing fluid should prevent the formation of frozen contaminants on the protected surfaces.

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29
Q

What conditions can affect published holdover times?

A

The following conditions can reduce actual holdover times:

  1. Windy conditions.
  2. Jet blast.
  3. Heavy precipitation.
  4. High moisture content.
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30
Q

What should be done if the holdover time expires?

A

If the holdover time expires, return for another deicing/anti-icing fluid application.

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31
Q

Do we conduct Pre-Takeoff Contamination checks?

A

Mesa Airlines, Inc does not conduct Pre-Takeoff Contamination checks. If the holdover time is exceeded the aircraft must return for additional deicing/anti-icing and a new holdover time will commence.

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32
Q

What is infrared deicing?

A

Infrared deicing is an alternative process to fluid ground deicing only. The InfraTek® infrared deicing system uses infrared (IR) energy of controlled amplitude and targeted wavelength to melt frozen ice and snow from airplane. This electromagnetic wave form strikes the surface of materials, causing the molecules of the surface to move rapidly and generate heat. Because the IR energy does not penetrate the surface, only the outermost layers experience any direct heat from the IR. During the IR deicing process, airplane surfaces that contain ice are not exposed to any infrared energy until after the surface contamination is completely removed.

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33
Q

After deicing, how long should pilots wait to use the engine or open the APU bleed valve? How long should pilots wait to use the PACK valves?

A

Wait one minute to use the engine or open the APU bleed valve and three minutes to use the PACK valves after the deicing and anti-icing procedures are complete. The vapor from the deicing and anti-icing fluid can go into the air conditioning system when the engine or APU is in operation. This can cause damage to the air conditioning system.

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34
Q

Which aircraft are LL v LR?

A

LR aircraft are tailnumbers below 360. LR aircraft have 76 seats and FMS EPIC Load ~25.

LL are tailnumbers at and above 360. LL aircraft have 70 seats and FMS EPIC Load ~27.

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35
Q

How does the LL FMS EPIC Load 27 operate differently when there is an engine failure at cruise?

A

In case of EO, the FMS prompt “CONFIRM EO” is displayed. Do NOT select this. Fly the same procedures for the LR aircraft.

Automatic DRIFT DOWN is available and recommended for use. In case of DRIFT DOWN, activate EO.

The aircraft will slow down to Green Dot noted under “DD/LRC SPD,” then descend in FLCH.

CLOSEST APT - Closest airport function now available on R4

To Exit EO Drift down select R5 to move “ALL” to left side of the display as the SELECTED ENGINE MODE.

There is no automatic ACTIVATION of the Engine-Out condition during Climb, Cruise and Descent phases. The crew must confirm this condition to activate DRIFTDOWN on the EO Range Page.

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36
Q

How does the LL FMS EPIC Load 27 operate differently when there is an engine after V1?

A

Engine Failure - EO Automation Arms on top box on FMA
200’ AGL - LNAV engages with Vfs as target speed
EO VNAV CAP Height - FLCH engages with Vfs as target speed
Exit EO AUTO prompt selected on EO RANGE Page or Speed of 10kts above Vfs is reached - EO AUTO logic is terminated

Note: BANK engages automatically during EO on Takeoff or Go-Around. Do NOT select BANK. Verify BANK engaged.

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37
Q

What is different about the LL aircraft seats from the LR version?

A

Electrical 110 volt outlets are available in every row of First Class and Economy sections in the cabin.

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38
Q

Can the LL aft wardrobe be used for crew baggage?

A

No. Due to the maximum floor loading limitation, the aft wardrobe is not to be used for Crew Baggage.

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39
Q

How many flight attendant jumpseats are on the LR and LL aircraft.

A

2 on LR aircraft. Third Flight Attendant Jump Seat only installed in the E-175 LL aircraft (due to extra space).

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40
Q

Where can cockpit and cabin emergency equipment information be found?

A

Detailed emergency equipment information is found in the CFM Bulletins section as well as on the jumpseat briefing cards.

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41
Q

How can you tell which FMS EPIC Load version is installed on the aircraft?

A

Aircraft LL are ~27.3, LR are ~25.7

You can verify the version on the placard below the reversionary panel.

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42
Q

What is different about the LL FMA with EPIC Load 27?

A

The LL FMA a third box on top for EO engine out conditions.

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43
Q

What is different about the LL HSI with EPIC Load 27?

A

When changing segments, the HSI has a magenta ghost pointer marking the predicated track, and the CDI will be centered during the transition between the waypoints, similar to a DME arc.

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44
Q

What is different about the LL climb sequence with EPIC Load 27?

A

The LL aircraft with EPIC Load 27 feature a simplified climb sequence: Departure LNAV/VNAV

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45
Q

On LL aircraft with EPIC Load 27, will the J44.RSK format be accepted?

A

No. The RTE page will not accept J44.RSK. The airway will be entered on the left J44, and RSK will be entered on the right.

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46
Q

On LL aircraft with EPIC Load 27, what will happen to a page that has been modified?

A

Once a page has been altered, a Cyan MOD will appear at the top of the title

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47
Q

Do LR aircraft have a nearest airport function?

A

No. LL Aircraft do.

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48
Q

How should ALTN FUEL be entered on the FMS EPIC Load 27?

A

Leave ALTN FUEL blank on the Perf Init page so it updates during flight.

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49
Q

What should be entered in the STEP INC on the MCDU?

A

STEP INC: feet above initial cruise altitude, not final cruise altitude

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50
Q

Are entries on the TAKEOFF INIT page used by the FMS for performance calculations?

A

No. Entries on the TAKEOFF INIT page are not used by the FMS for performance calculations.

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51
Q

Will LNAV automatically arm on LL FMS EPIC Load 27 aircraft when pressing TO/GA?

A

Yes. LNAV will now automatically arm when TO/GA is pressed. If LNAV is not required, it must be deselected.

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52
Q

On LL aircraft with FMS EPIC Load 27, when does VGP become capture-capable? How does this compare to LR aircraft with FMS EPIC Load version 25?

A

For loads prior to Load 27.4, VGP becomes capture-capable when FAF is the active waypoint or the airplane is less than 5NM from the FAF. VGP is captured when the VGP deviation is within 1 dot on the vertical deviation scale, which is 75 ft if the distance is less than 2NM. Otherwise, it is 250 ft.

If VGP is captured below path when the VGP deviation is 250 ft (1 dot, beyond 2NM from FAF), the capture maneuver can cause
a significant pitch up.

For Load 27.4, VGP is captured when the VGP deviation is less than 75 if VGP is capture-capable, even if the capture occurs more than 2NM from FAF. This change will avoid significant pitch up and results in a smoother VGP capture from below.

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53
Q

Which cargo compartment should be loaded first? Unloaded first?

A

The forward cargo compartment should be loaded before the aft cargo compartment, while the aft cargo compartment should begin to be unloaded before the forward cargo compartment, in order to avoid airplane taildown.

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54
Q

Does Mesa use cargo nets between cargo compartment sections?

A

No. Mesa Airlines, Inc. aircraft do not have individual cargo nets installed. Only the nets at the cargo doors are installed.

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55
Q

Where should live animals be placed within the FWD cargo compartment? Are there any limitations regarding the carriage of animals?

A

Live animals shall be placed as close as possible to the cargo ventilation inflow. Care needs to be taken to avoid obstruction between the cargo ventilation inflow and the cage(s).

The containers should not be placed near the compartment floor, in order to isolate the animals from low temperatures in that region.

There are published limits for in-flight SAT and on-ground OAT.

There are capacity limitations for multiple dogs, cats, small birds, and other animals that are shipped on the same flight.

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56
Q

When can magnetized material be transported in the FWD and AFT cargo compartments?

A

Magnetized materials shall not be transported in the forward cargo compartment. In the aft cargo compartment, a maximum load of 260 lbs. is acceptable.

If the standby compass is inoperative, the restrictions above are not applicable and magnetized materials may be transported in any cargo compartment in accordance with standard loading limitations.

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57
Q

Where must Dry Ice be located?

A

FWD cargo bay. The aft cargo compartment does not have adequate ventilation to transport this kind of material.

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58
Q

Can animals be transported with dry ice in the FWD cargo compartment?

A

No.

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59
Q

Can Dry Ice be transported with a PACK inoperative before takeoff? After takeoff?

A

Both air conditioning PACKS (or equivalent ground cart ventilation) shall be operating while persons are onboard an airplane transporting dry ice.

In case of failure of the cargo ventilation system during flight, the CO2 sublimated in the cargo compartment may spread in the airplane, but the fresh air flow that comes from the PACKS dilutes the CO2 concentration below 0.5% CO2 in volume. The airplane can continue the flight normally, but after Landing it is required to follow special procedures to ventilate the place in which CO2 buildup is suspected.

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60
Q

Who is the accountable executive?

A

Johnathan Ornstein

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61
Q

What is the CFM based on?

A

The Embraer 175 AFM

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62
Q

What chapters are in the CFM?

A
Chapter 1 – General Information and Definition of Terms.
Chapter 2 – Limitations.
Chapter 3 – Normal Procedures.
Chapter 4 – Procedures and Techniques.
Chapter 5 – Performance.
Chapter 6 – Flight Planning.
Chapter 7 – Weight and Balance.
Chapter 8 – Loading.
Chapter 9 – Emergency Information.
Chapter 10 – Emergency Evacuation.
Chapter 11 – Ground Servicing.
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63
Q

Vf

A

Design Flap Speed is the highest Speed permissible at which wing flaps may be actuated.

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64
Q

SAT

A

Static Air Temperature SAT=OAT in-flight.

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65
Q

TAT

A

Total Air Temperature. Static air temperature plus adiabatic compression (RAM) rise.

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66
Q

N2

A

High Pressure Compressor Speed. Core Rotor Speed.

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67
Q

N1

A

Low Pressure Compressor Speed. Fan Rotor Speed

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68
Q

ITT

A

Interstage Turbine Temperature. Temperature probes indicate the temperature between the low compressor turbine and power turbines.

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69
Q

Acceleration Segment

A

The acceleration segment is the part of the Takeoff flight path that begins at the end of the second segment and extends horizontally over the distance required to retreat flaps to zero and accelerate to the final Takeoff Climb Speed.

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70
Q

Clear Way

A

An area beyond the airport runway not less than 500 feet wide, centrally located about the extended centerline of the runway and under the control of the airport authorities. The clear way is expressed in terms for a clear way plane, extending from the edge of the runway with an upward slope not exceeding 1.25%, above which no object nor terrain protrudes. However, threshold lights may protrude above the plane if their height above the end of the runway is 26 inches or less and if they are located to each side of the runway.

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71
Q

Stopway

A

An area beyond the Takeoff runway, as wide as the runway and centered upon the extended centerline of the runway, able to support the airplane during an aborted Takeoff, without causing structural damage to the airplane, and designated by the airport authorities for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted Takeoff.

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72
Q

Demonstrated Crosswind

A

The maximum 90° crosswind component for which adequate control of the airplane during Takeoff and Landing was actually demonstrated during certification tests. The maximum demonstrated crosswind component for Takeoff (at 33 ft (10 meters) tower height) is 28 knots and is not considered limiting. The maximum demonstrated crosswind component for Landing (at 33 ft (10 meters) tower height) is 30 knots and is not considered limiting.
In high crosswind conditions, rudder effectiveness may be limited after Landing with maximum reverse thrust selected.

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73
Q

FRA

A

Flap Retraction Altitude

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74
Q

First Segment

A

The first segment starts from the 35 ft height and extends to the point where the Landing Gear is fully retracted, at a constant V2 Speed and flaps in the Takeoff position.

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75
Q

Second Segment

A

The second segment starts at the point where the Landing Gear is fully retracted up to at least 400 ft above the runway, flown at V2 Speed and flaps in the Takeoff position.

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76
Q

Level Off Height

A

The height at which the third segment is performed (1,000 feet minimum).

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77
Q

Final Segment Vfs

A

The final segment starts from the end of the acceleration segment and extends to the end of the Takeoff flight path, flown at the final segment climb Speed, flaps up.

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78
Q

Empty Weight

A

The weight of an empty airplane before any oil or fuel has been added. This includes all permanently installed equipment, fixed ballast, full hydraulic fluid, full chemical toilet fluid, and all other operating fluids full; except engines, tanks and lines which do not contain any engine oil or fuel.

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79
Q

Basic Empty Weight

A

The weight of an empty airplane including full engine oil and unusable fuel. This equals empty weight plus the weight of unusable fuel, and the weight of all the engine oil required to fill the lines and tanks. Basic empty weight is the basic configuration from which loading data is determined.

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80
Q

BOW Basic Operating Weight

A

The basic empty weight of the aircraft plus items always carried on the aircraft (crew/crew bags, and cabin/galley supplies).

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81
Q

MLW

A

Maximum Landing Weight

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82
Q

MRW

A

Maximum Ramp Weight

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83
Q

MTOW

A

Maximum Takeoff Weight

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84
Q

MZFW

A

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

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85
Q

Tare

A

The weight which may be indicated by a set of scales before any load is applied.

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86
Q

Useful Load

A

The difference between the airplane ramp weight and the basic empty weight.

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87
Q

ZFW Zero Fuel Weight

A

The airplane ramp weight minus the weight of useable fuel onboard.

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88
Q

ACARS

A

Airborne Communications Addressing and Reporting System

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89
Q

ATIS

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

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90
Q

CDL

A

Configuration Deviation List

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91
Q

LAN

A

Local Area Network

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92
Q

PCN

A

Pavement Classification Number

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93
Q

QFE

A

Local Station Barometric Pressure

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94
Q

QNE

A

ISA Barometric Pressure

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95
Q

QNH

A

Local Altimeter Setting

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96
Q

RVR

A

Runway Visual Range

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97
Q

RVSM

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum

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98
Q

SAD

A

Still Air Distance

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99
Q

SELCAL

A

Selective Call

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100
Q

SLD

A

Super Large Droplet

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101
Q

ULD

A

Unfactored Landing Distance

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102
Q

V1

A

Takeoff Decision Speed

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103
Q

V2

A

Takeoff Safety Speed

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104
Q

Vac

A

Approach Climb Speed

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105
Q

Vfe

A

Maximum Flaps Extended Speed

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106
Q

Vfs

A

Final Segment Speed

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107
Q

Vmca

A

Minimum Control Speed in the Air

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108
Q

Vmcg

A

Minimum Control Speed on the Ground

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109
Q

What limitations should be committed to memory?

A

Crewmembers should have all limitations committed to memory except tables and charts.

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110
Q

When must headsets be used?

A

At all times below FL180. Headsets should be worn above FL180.

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111
Q

What category is the E175 certified for?

A

Transport

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112
Q

Is the aircraft certified for ditching?

A

Yes, if the required equipment is installed, so NO.

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113
Q

How are Vmcg and Vmca accounted for in our performance calculations?

A

They are covered by takeoff and landing speeds.

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114
Q

If using full aileron or full rudder, or are near the critical AOA, what speed should you be below?

A

Va

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115
Q

Can you make rapid and large alternating control inputs below Va?

A

No. Structural failure may occur, even below Va.

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116
Q

What is an AWU?

A

The Adjusted Weight Loading System includes, in one number, the values of the item’s weight and its contribution to the moment that determines the location of the CG of the aircraft. The adjusted weight number is a combination of the item’s weight, rounded to the nearest 100 lbs. and the moment of the item about a chosen reference.

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117
Q

Can large items be carried in a passenger seat?

A

Mesa Airlines, Inc. will allow certain large and/or fragile items to be carried in the passenger cabin if a seat is purchased for the item as long as the item:

  1. Does not exceed 170 lbs.
  2. Is packaged or covered to avoid injury to passengers.
  3. Is properly secured by a seat belt/or seat belt extender (as necessary).
  4. Will not restrict access to, or use of, an emergency exit, emergency equipment, regular exit or cabin aisle.
  5. Does not block any passenger’s view of the FSTN BELTS and NO SMKG Switches or Exit signs.
  6. Does not contain dangerous goods. Refer to the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Hazardous Materials Manual to determine items that would be classified as dangerous goods.
  7. Has one or more handles that allow the seat belt, or seat belt with extender, to go through and secure the baggage to the seat.
  8. Not restrained to bulkheads.

For the purposes of weight and balance, large and/or fragile items occupying a seat, secured by a seat belt and/or a seat belt extender (as necessary), will be noted on the passenger count form by the Flight Attendant in the zone count as seat baggage (e.g., 18 pax zone 1 and one seat baggage will be written as “18/ 1 SB”). The flight crew will add the SB to the passenger count for the purpose of weight and balance but will use the actual passenger count for the souls onboard.

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118
Q

Are animals allowed in the cabin? What are the general restrictions?

A

Mesa Airlines, Inc. permits small warm-blooded domesticated pets in the aircraft cabin, provided the household pet (dog, cat, rabbit, bird, hamster, guinea pig) is at least eight weeks old and the animal is in an acceptable carry-on kennel, which fits beneath the seat in front of the passenger. Maximum carry-on dimensions of under seat stowage may not be exceeded.

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119
Q

What how is weight and balance usually performed? What happens if it cannot be done normall?

A

Mesa Airlines, Inc. utilizes the Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System (ACARS) for paperless weight and balance, communication and performance information on E-175 aircraft. This is accomplished via the transmission of messages and data between aircraft and ground stations utilizing a third VHF transceiver and supporting equipment. When the ACARS system is inoperative the manual weight and balance method will be used per the procedures in this manual.

The performance data received through the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Weight and Balance Program utilizes the same Takeoff and Landing Report (TLR) data and weight and balance methodology.

If ACARS is inop, refer to the QRH for the most accurate speeds, then call dispatch to confirm the numbers. (Although the TLR is a source of information, it is not necessarily the most accurate with updated weights and old weather info. Don’t use the TLR (flight release) info).

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120
Q

How long will a ground station keep a manual weight and balance on file?

A

3 months

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121
Q

How long will the ground station keep a copy of the CLR Cargo Load Report?

A

24hrs

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122
Q

Which bins must crew members stow their carry-on baggage?

A

Overhead bins of row 21 and 22 and are included in the BOW.

Remember crew bags placed in a cargo compartment will be included in the bag count IF they are not in rows 21 and 22.

123
Q

Full Weight Passenger

A

An adult passenger aged 13 years and above.

124
Q

Half Weight Passenger

A

A child passenger (between the ages of 2 and 12).

125
Q

Infant / Lap Child

A

A child passenger (under the age of 2 years). Means the same as “Lap Child.”

126
Q

Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC)

A

For weight and balance purposes MAC is used to locate the center of gravity range of the aircraft. The location and dimensions of the MAC will be found in the Aircraft Specifications, Aircraft Flight Manual or the Aircraft Weight and Balance Report. The airplane forward and aft CG limits are referred to in terms of % MAC.

127
Q

Tare

A

The weight of chocks, blocks, stands, etc., used when weighing an aircraft which is included in the scale reading. Tare is to be deducted from the scale reading at each respective weighing point to obtain the actual aircraft weight.

128
Q

What is the weight of fuel used for the weight and balance?

A

The weight of the fuel is computed at a fuel density of 6.75 lbs. per gallon.

129
Q

How much does an adult passenger weigh?

A

201 lbs. for each adult passenger from May 1 through October 31. 206 lbs. for each adult passenger November 1 through April 30.

This average weight assumes a ratio of males to females of approximately 54% to 46%. These weights include 12 lbs. of carry-on baggage and 8 lbs. for one personal item. Weights have been amended in accordance with survey data that shows that 54% of passengers do not bring a carry- on bag or personal item into the cabin.

130
Q

How much does a child weigh?

A

87 lbs. for each child from the ages of 2 to 12 from May 1 through October 31. 92 lbs. for each child from the ages of 2 to 12 from November 1 through April 30.

Children over 12 years of age are classified as adults. This number includes 12 lbs. of carry-on baggage and 8 lbs. for one personal item. Weights have been amended in accordance with survey data that shows that 54% of passengers do not bring a carry-on bag or personal item into the cabin.

131
Q

How much does each infant / lap child weigh?

A

22 lbs. for each child under the age of 2 years old. This includes a 1 lb. weight allowance for infant clothing.

132
Q

How much does a crewmember weigh? How much does their uniform, flight kit, and roller bag weigh?

A

202 lbs. for each flight crewmember plus 11 lbs. each for their uniform, 20 lbs. each for their flight kit, and 28 lbs. each for their roller bag is included in the BOW of the E-175.

133
Q

How much does each flight attendant weigh?

A

173 lbs. for each Flight Attendant plus 20 lbs. each for their flight kit and 25 lbs. for their roller bag is included in the BOW of the E-175.

134
Q

How much does an additional crew member ACM weigh?

A

202 lbs. for additional crewmember (ACM) in the jumpseat plus 20 lbs. each for their flight kit and 28lbs. for their roller bag.

135
Q

How much does a checked bag weigh?

A

34 lbs. for each checked bag on scheduled flights and 34 lbs. for each checked bag on supplemental (charter) flights.

136
Q

How much does a carry-on item weigh? How is it incorporated into the weight and balance?

A

Average passenger weights include minor carry-on items normally carried into the cabin by a passenger, such as handbags and attaché cases. If carry-ons are put in the cargo compartment, they will be counted as 17 lbs. (for both CG and weight purposes).

137
Q

What are heavy bags?

A

HEAVY bags are considered any bag that weighs more than 50 lbs. but less than 100 lbs. Crews will calculate the weight of each HEAVY bag using a standard average weight of 55 lbs. (AC120- 27F)

138
Q

What happens if a bag weighs more than 100lbs?

A

If any bag weighs more than 100 lbs., it must be considered cargo and its actual weight must be used for weight and balance computation.

139
Q

How much does cargo or mail weigh?

A

All cargo or mail will be listed at actual weight.

140
Q

How much does a Motorized Mobility Aid weigh?

A

Motorized mobility aids, each weighing 90 lbs.

141
Q

How much do skis and ski boots weigh?

A

Skis weigh 14 lbs. and ski boots weigh eight lbs. If loaded, the quantity of each of these items shall be noted in the remarks section of the applicable cargo load report.

142
Q

How much does a service animal weigh?

A

An animal which is used by a disabled person will be allowed in the passenger compartment. Such animals will be considered to weigh 80 lbs. each.

143
Q

When are non-standard passenger weights used?

A

For all scheduled flights, average passenger weights will be used unless people on the flight are obviously larger or smaller than the average passenger weight figures. An example of this would be a passenger load mostly or entirely comprised of an athletic squad. In this case, the actual or asked weights will be used.

When asked weights are used, at least 10 lbs. will be added to the volunteered weight to account for clothing.

All Department of Defense charter flights will use actual passenger and cargo weights in calculating aircraft weight and balance. Baggage weights for these flights will be actual weights, including: personal carry-on items, plane-side checked baggage and checked baggage (Operations Specifications A098 and A099).

144
Q

What is ballast?

A

In order to achieve proper weight distribution in the aircraft, “ballast” may be placed in the cargo compartment of the aircraft. Ballast may consist of ballast sand bags, ballast plates or company mail (comail) or company material (comat) may be used as ballast. Comail and comat used as ballast must be counted at actual weight and recorded only as “Comail” or “Comat.”

145
Q

Where should ballast be placed in the cargo compartment?

A

The standard location of ballast in the cargo compartment will be against the forward compartment bulkhead. If additional ballast is requested after the aircraft has been loaded, the loading agent will place it where space is available.

146
Q

How high can ballast be stacked?

A

Ballast plates utilized on Mesa Airlines, Inc. will:

a. Weigh either 25 lbs. or 50 lbs.
b. Have either “25 lbs.” or “50 lbs.,” as appropriate, printed on its side. The lettering must be of contrasting color and clearly visible.
c. Not be stacked more than two high for the 25 lbs. plates. The 50 lbs. plates will not be stacked.

147
Q

Can fuel be used as ballast?

A

Yes. Fuel may be used as ballast in order to relocate the ZFW inside the CG envelope. The ZFW informed in the FMS, however, must not consider the fuel quantity used as ballast. This additional fuel must not be consumed during flight.

148
Q

What are the three passenger zones?

A

The E-175 LR 76 seat configuration cabin is divided into three zones for weight and balance purposes. Zone 1 includes rows 1 through 4, zone 2 includes rows 7 through 16, and zone 3 includes rows 17 through 24.

The E-175 LL 70 seat configuration cabin is divided into three zones for weight and balance purposes. Zone 1 includes rows 1 through 4, zone 2 includes rows 7 through 16, and zone 3 includes rows 17 through 23.

There are no rows 5, 6, 13 or 14. A Flight Attendant will provide a flight crewmembers with the total number of passengers in each zone, the passenger distribution in each zone and the total number of infants onboard. This should be done as soon after boarding as possible. At the request of the flight crew, the Flight Attendant will provide the number of half weight (age 2-12) passengers in each zone.

149
Q

What is the maximum capacity of the aft cargo compartment? Fwd cargo compartment? What is the floor loading capacity?

A

The maximum capacity of the aft cargo compartment is 2,535 lbs. The maximum floor loading is 100 lbs. per square foot.

The maximum capacity of the forward cargo compartment is 3,306 lbs. The maximum floor loading is 100 lbs. per square foot.

150
Q

What is the overhead bin weight limitation?

A

Overhead bin weight limitations range from 40 – 120 lbs. Each bin is placarded with maximum allowable weight within the bin.

151
Q

Can the manual weight and balance be used for a flaps 1, 2 or 4 takeoff?

A

No. Tables to be used for Flaps 2 Takeoffs ONLY.

152
Q

What happens on the manual weight and balance form if half-weights are requested?

A

The E-175 Adjusted Weight Passenger Tables Summer Child Weights show the AWUs to subtract to account for children. Summer child weights are 87 lbs. and are rounded to the nearest 100 lbs. Winter child weights are 92 lbs. and are rounded to the nearest 100 lbs. Children are initially counted as normal adult weights. This gives a conservative weight and as long as the aircraft weight constraints are not exceeded no further action is required.

However, if the maximum zero fuel weight or maximum Takeoff weight is exceeded, then a count of the children between two and 12 years of age (half weights) may be obtained. The result will be subtracted from the previous total to obtain a more accurate weight and index.

153
Q

When are infants and lap children rounded down to 0 or up to 100 for the AWU?

A

Lap Children less than 66lbs have an AWU of 0. Lap children/infants 66lbs or more have an AWU of 100.

154
Q

What is a TUF change number from moving passengers?

A

These numbers are simply the difference in the AWUs between zone 1 and zone 3 on the E-175 Adjusted Weight Passenger Tables.

155
Q

Why on the manual weight and balance is cargo weight limited to 3,300lbs in the fwd and 2,500lbs in the aft cargo compartment?

A

Due to rounding to the nearest 100 lbs., the maximum allowable cargo weight in the fwd cargo hold is limited to 3,300 lbs. with an adjusted weight of 3,313 lbs. Likewise, the aft cargo hold is limited to 2,500 lbs. with an adjusted weight of 2,491 lbs.

156
Q

If the BOW is presented with a decimal on the dispatch release, should it be rounded?

A

Yes. If the BOW is presented with a decimal, it should be rounded to the nearest number.

The BOW AWU should also match the BOW AWU on the flight release.

157
Q

If non-standard weights are being used, how is the AWU determined?

A

If the asked weight of the passengers is used or non-standard passenger weights are used, find the closest AWU to the total of those weights (in zone 1) on the loading table and use that AWU. If the weight total is greater than the largest passenger AWU on the loading table, simply add one of the smaller passenger AWUs to get an AWU close to the total. The only requirement is that only AWUs from the same zone may be added or subtracted from each other.

If there were 21 combat equipped military passengers in zone 2, their weight would be 225 x 21 (winter) for a total of 4,725 lbs. Round this weight to the nearest 100 lbs. (4,700 lbs.). The closest AWU is 4704. Never round an AWU.

158
Q

How is a weight determined from an AWU?

A

To extract the weight associated with an AWU, replace the last two digits of the AWU with zeros. The resulting number is the weight component of the AWU.

159
Q

How should the Total Cargo AWU be determined on the manual weight and balance?

A

Enter the number of checked bags in the space to the right of CHKD BAGS, the number of gate checked bags to the right of GATE CHKD BAGS, and lbs. of cargo in the space to the right FRT for the appropriate compartment (FWD or AFT Cargo).

Multiply the number of checked bags times 34 or use the average bag weights on the manifest to obtain the total weight of the bags. Round the total weight to the nearest 100 lbs. and enter the appropriate AWU from the loading tables (e.g., 74 bags equal 2,516 lbs., rounded to 2,500 lbs. The AWU from the AFT CARGO AWU table for 2,500 lbs. is 2,491 lbs.).

If cargo is onboard, apply the same procedure as above (e.g., 280 lbs. of cargo in the aft cargo is rounded to 300 lbs. The AWU from the AFT CARGO AWU table is 299).

Multiply the number of gate checked bags by 17 lbs. Round the total weight to the nearest 100 lbs. and enter the appropriate AWU from the loading tables.

Make sure the AWU used corresponds to the applicable compartment and enter the AWUs to the right in the box.

Total all of the boxes from FWD and AFT cargo to obtain the Total Cargo AWU.

160
Q

How should the ZFW be determined on the manual weight and balance?

A

Add the BOW AWU, the Total PAX AWU and TOTAL CARGO AWU to yield the ZFW (Zero Fuel Weight) AWU. The first three digits in this number represent the zero fuel weight, while the last two digits represent the Trim Unit Factor (TUF). This weight may not exceed 69,800 lbs. since the last two digits represent the TUF. If no corrections are necessary, this AWU must be plotted on the graph to assure the CG and weights fall within the curtailed envelope. The first three digits on an AWU represent the weight rounded off to the nearest 100 lbs. The last two digits represent the TUF in the heavily outlined box. Plot these two numbers. For zero fuel weight of 69,842, enter the graph from the left for 69,800 lbs. and continue to the right to the point where 42 intersects from the bottom. Ensure that this point falls within the boundaries of the graph.

161
Q

How is a ZFW correction performed on the manual wieght and balance?

A
  1. Corrections to the ZFW may be made by adding or subtracting the appropriate AWUs in this section. AWUs may be added or subtracted, but an AWU may never be rounded out or interpolated. This will negate the TUF portion (last two digits) of the AWU.
  2. If it is necessary to count children in each section to reduce the calculated Takeoff or zero fuel weight, then enter the appropriate AWU from the loading tables.
  3. Make a note in the space prior to the AWU as to what the corrections are. For example, if passengers are added print “+ 2P Z1” for adding two passengers to zone 1, or “2P Z1 to Z3” for moving two passengers from zone 1 to zone 3.

Add (or subtract) the corrections to the previous ZFW to obtain this new result. This AWU must be plotted on the graph to assure that the Zero Fuel Weight CG and weights are within limits. The first three digits of an AWU represent the weight rounded off to the nearest 100 lbs. The last two digits represent the TUF in the heavily outlined box.

162
Q

How is takeoff fuel calculated on the manual weight and balance?

A

Round the amount of fuel onboard, less taxi fuel, to the nearest 100 lbs. Refer to the Fuel AWU table for the adjustment to the Takeoff fuel. Find the range for the fuel onboard and add the AWU adjustment. For example, if the Takeoff fuel equals 9,800 lbs, find the range that contains 9,800 lbs. from the FUEL AWU table, which is 7,800 - 10,500. The AWU adjustment equals the fuel +4. The Takeoff fuel AWU equals 9,804.

163
Q

How is GTW gross takeoff weight calculated on the manual weight and balance?

A

Add the Zero Fuel AWU to the Takeoff Fuel AWU to determine Takeoff gross weight. This weight must not exceed the limiting Takeoff gross weight determined by the MAX TAKEOFF WEIGHT. The first three digits of an AWU represent the weight rounded off to the nearest 100 lbs. The last two digits represent the TUF in the heavily outlined box. Enter the graph from the left for the total weight and continue to the right to the point where the last two digits intersect from the bottom. Ensure that this point falls within the boundaries of the graph. Follow this point vertically to the top of the graph to obtain the Takeoff trim units. Interpolate between the two trim lines on either side of the point.

164
Q

If passengers arrive late to the aircraft or bags need to be added after the manifest is completed, how many lbs can be added to the manual weight and balance?

A

If passengers arrive late to the aircraft or bags need to be added after the manifest is completed, a correction of up to 600 lbs. maximum may be made here, however, the following restrictions must be observed:

A calculation must be made to the ZFW to make sure that the maximum of 69,886 lbs.

165
Q

How is takeoff trim determined?

A

Takeoff trim is calculated based on the Takeoff gross weight TUF.

166
Q

What checklists are Read and Do?

A

The Internal Safety Inspection and Leaving the Airplane normal checklists are considered Read and Do. The others phases of flight checklists are considered Do (Flow) and Verify (Checklist).

167
Q

Who controls the Guidance Panel when using AP or when flying manually?

A

The Guidance Panel (GP) is changed by the Pilot Monitoring (PM) when the aircraft is being manually flown, with confirmation of changes by the Pilot Flying (PF). The PF will monitor all changes on the FMA.

When the aircraft is being flown by the Autopilot, the PF will normally make changes on the GP. In cases where the cockpit workload is high or at the discretion of the PF, the PM can be directed to make changes on the GP. These changes must be verified by the PF. ALL changes will be verified by both pilots before acceptance of that change (e.g., Altitude, Heading, Airspeed).

Both PF and PM will verify the appropriate mode selected. If the expected result is not displayed, the pilot noting the discrepancy will bring it to the attention of the other pilot.

To disengage the Autopilot: PF presses the AP disengage button on the yoke and calls, “Autopilot is OFF.”

168
Q

What deviations should the PM announce?

A

The PM will bring any significant deviations from assigned/desired flight parameters (Altitude, Heading, Airspeed, Vertical Speed, Guidance, etc.) to the attention of the PF by announcing, “Check (_____) (Altitude, Airspeed, etc.).”
B. The PF will respond by announcing, “Correcting (_____) (Altitude, Airspeed, etc.).”
C. Significant deviations are defined as:
1. Airspeed + 10 KTS or -5 kts.
2. Altitude +- 100 feet.
3. Heading +- 10°.
4. Vertical Speed + 250 fpm from target rate.
5. Course 1 dot.
6. Glideslope 1 dot above, 1/2 dot below.
7. Bank Angle exceeding 30° or + 5° of desired.
8. MDA + 100 feet/-0 feet.
9. VREF -5 kts.
10. Other – Any parameter pertinent to the phase of flight

169
Q

What is the call out if an incorrect altitude, airspeed, or heading is set?

A

Negative

170
Q

What is the 1,000’ altitude call out?

A

At 1,000 feet from assigned altitude (climbing or descending), the PM will state, “(______) for (______) (e.g., FL240 for FL250).” The PF will verify and also state, “(______) for(______).”

171
Q

How should the callsign be pronounced?

A

To prevent any confusion using similar sounding call signs, it is highly recommended that pilots read back clearances using single digits in the call sign. For example, ASH 2683 would be read back as, “Air Shuttle 2- 6-8-3.”

172
Q

What is important to say on the first call to a new air traffic controller?

A

Flight crews should report the cleared flight level on first contact with ATC, unless specifically requested not to do so by ATC.

173
Q

What is the call out when a ATC assigns something?

A

PM acknowledges ATC instructions, “Air Shuttle 6400, turn right Heading 120°.” PF acknowledges to the PM of the ATC instruction by saying, “Heading 120°.”

Both pilots will point at the assigned Heading, Course, Airspeed or Altitude once entered and state “(______) set.”

174
Q

When should the APU be shut down for takeoff?

A

The APU should be shut down after engines desired for taxi are started unless it will be required for Takeoff performance or is necessary for cabin environmental conditions.

For Single Engine Taxi, all starts of the second engine with the APU shut down will be in accordance with the Engine Crossbleed Start checklist. The PIC should make an appropriate decision regarding advising ATC of the potential jet blast during the crossbleed start, but, under normal circumstances, only taxi thrust is required to conduct the start.

175
Q

What is the call out if a checklist is paused or interrupted?

A

Do not skip items. If it is decided not to accomplish an item on the checklist at that time, the Captain, or flying pilot, will say, “Hold the checklist.” After the Captain, or pilot flying, calls, “Continue the checklist,” the reading of the checklist should resume by reading the last completed item before the interruption occurred. If, for any reason, there is any doubt as to the last item completed, the Captain will direct the checklist to be restarted from the beginning. It is recommended that anytime a checklist flow has been interrupted or an item placed on hold, the checklist should not be stowed. It should be kept in hand. If it must be laid down to allow the crewmember to perform other functions, it should be placed in a conspicuous area visible to both crewmembers, e.g., the throttle quadrant area. If there is doubt as to where the flow was interrupted, the chance of error is reduced if the crew returns to the beginning of the task list being performed.

176
Q

When can the checklist call out “verified” be used?

A

If C & FO is specified, the pilot reading the checklist will state the items to be confirmed and their position or readout, as appropriate. After the other pilot has confirmed the item, he or she may respond with, “Verified,” in lieu of repeating the checklist response.

  1. After Start, “Flaps” challenge:
    First Officer starts first with, “Two required, selected and indicating.” Captain then says, “Verified two.”
  2. Before Start, “Trim Panel” challenge:
    First Officer states first with, “4.2 SET/Zero/Zero.” Captain then says, “4.2 Verified.”
177
Q

What items should be completed as soon as possible after reporting for duty?

A

Before each flight, the following items will be completed:
1. INTERNAL SAFETY INSPECTION.
2. External Walkaround.
These items should begin as soon as possible after the crew reports for duty.

178
Q

When should the flight crew’s preparations for departure be completed by?

A

The flight crew’s preparations for departure should be completed approximately 10 minutes before the scheduled departure time. This permits the crew to monitor much of the pre-departure activity that must be coordinated for an on time departure.

179
Q

If receiving the airplane already powered up, what items must be performed?

A

Verify compliance with all items and perform:
FIRE EXTINGUISHER Panel
DVDR CONTROL Panel
Electronic CBs

180
Q

What should be done if the aircraft batteries are between 21 and 22VDC?

A

If batteries voltage is between 21 V and 22 V, recharge the batteries prior to Takeoff, through any AC source (including engines during taxi) for:

1) 30 minutes if batteries temperature is at or above 0°C or;
2) 35 minutes if batteries temperature is at or above -5°C and below 0°C or;
3) 40 minutes if batteries temperature is at or above -10°C and below -5°C or;
4) 50 minutes if batteries temperature is below -10°C;

181
Q

What should be done if aircraft batteries are below 21VDC?

A

If batteries voltage is below 21 V, report to maintenance.

182
Q

When is the electrical PBIT performed automatically? What will interrupt the PBIT?

A

The Electrical PBIT is automatically performed after the airplane is powered by any AC source and takes about 3 minutes to complete.

The Electrical PBIT will be interrupted if any Hydraulic system ELEC PUMP is running, or if the FLIGHT CONTROLS MODE Panel switches are cycled or if AC power is interrupted while the test is running.

183
Q

What is a good or failed DVDR test indication?

A

DVDR = flashing green to test, steady green is good, solid amber is failed test

184
Q

When should NO SMKG and FSTN BELTS switches be turned on?

A

PAX Signs Post power up before start:

Turn NO SMKG Switch to ON.
Turn FSTN BELTS Switch to ON after finishing refueling the airplane.

185
Q

When is the APU ready for use?

A
The APU FADEC is ready for use when APU rpm and EGT
dashed indications (--) are replaced by numbers.
186
Q

When can the pitch trim backup switch be checked?

A

The PITCH Trim BACKUP SW Switch may be checked once a day only, by flight crew.

187
Q

Prior to starting the external walkaround, what should be done?

A

Prior to starting the External Walkaround:

  1. External Lights…AS REQUIRED
    The External Lights check must be performed before the first flight of the day, either by the crew or maintenance. If the external lights check was not preformed by maintenance, turn the external lights ON and check them. Turn the lights OFF immediately after checking them.
    The Red Beacon Lights may be checked according to local policy.
  2. Emergency/Parking Brake…ON
    Check if there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to activate the Emergency/ Parking Brake and check if the EMERG/PRKG BRAKE Indicator is ON to check the Brake Wear Indicators.
188
Q

What 3 items are checked for the checklist item Papers/AML?

A

a. Release, permits, WX and other documents required for revenue flight operations.
b. AML has been signed, no open maintenance items, discrepancies noted to crew.
c. Aircraft is legal and airworthy.

189
Q

What is checked for the checklist item Ship Number?

A

Both the Captain and First Officer will verify the aircraft number, flight release, and AML match

190
Q

Can the APU be started while refueling is being accomplished?

A

No. Do not start or stop the APU while the airplane is being fueled.

191
Q

What is important to do/remember when checking the oxygen mask?

A

Remember to check the Status page when checking the oxygen mask

192
Q

What does pressing the TO/GA button do on the FMA?

A

Pressing the TO/GA Button on the ground arms both LNAV and VNAV.

193
Q

What 4 speeds should be displayed on the PFD prior to takeoff?

A

V1, Vr, V2, Vfs

194
Q

What speeds can be used if there is an emergency return to the airport?

A

Green Dot Speed can be used for immediate return when the scenario does not allow pilots to calculate Landing performance.

195
Q

What specific performance information should be checked in the MCDU once the passenger count and CLR cargo load report are finalized?

A

Before start below the line know the specific performance information to check:

a. Zero Fuel Weight.
b. Gross Takeoff Weight.
c. Remarks (if ACARS is available).
d. V Speeds.
e. ATTCS.
f. N1.

196
Q

When must the engine start be manually aborted?

A

a. No positive oil pressure indication within 10 seconds after N2 Speed starts to increase.
b. During engine start with tailwind, if a positive increase of N1 is not indicated before starter cutout (50% N2). In this case, the airplane should be repositioned prior to engine start to minimize tailwind effects.
c. If ITT does not rise within 30 seconds after fuel is applied.
d. ITT exceeds start limit (Hot Start).
e. If oil pressure stabilizes below the engine limits.
f. N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle Speed (Hung Start).
g. An intermittent electrical pneumatic or starter malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement.

In case an automatic abort occurs or engine start is manually aborted due to abnormal engine indications, its cause must be investigated and corrected before further attempts to start the engines.

197
Q

When does the engine FADEC automatically abort for a Hot start?

A

For HOT Starts, the FADEC commands an automatic abort when ITT is 10°C lower than the engine hot start limit. This will prevent ENG EXCEEDANCE EICAS message to be displayed. In this case, two additional engine starts are allowed without any cause investigation.

If both the following conditions occur, one additional engine start is allowed:

a. Engine start is manually aborted due to no ITT indication 15 seconds after fuel is reapplied, and
b. “ENG 1(2) NO DISPATCH” or “ENG 1(2) SHORT DISPATCH” EICAS messages are not displayed.

198
Q

What must be ensured before shutting down the APU?

A

APU shut down can only be performed after confirmation of the power transfer through the Electrical Synoptic page or wait 30 seconds after %N2 stabilizes.

199
Q

What could interrupt the Hydraulic PBIT?

A

Performing the flight controls check while the Hydraulic P-BIT is running may interrupt the P-BIT. A FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG status message is displayed to inform the pilot that the Hydraulic P-BIT is in progress. The Hydraulic P-BIT starts when all the three hydraulic systems are pressurized and takes about one minute to complete.

200
Q

For what surface visibility must low visibility charts be consulted?

A

Whenever surface visibility is < 1200 RVR, flight crews must follow the taxi routes and procedures depicted on the appropriate Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) charts for the airport (if available).

In any case, during low visibility taxi (< 1200 RVR), adhere to the following procedures:

a. All crewmembers (including jumpseat riders), will be heads up during aircraft movement.
b. System checks and tests which are normally accomplished during taxi, should be accomplished while the aircraft is stationary. Maximize holding time on a ramp or taxiway to efficiently complete required task.
c. All crewmembers must be familiar with the taxi route prior to aircraft movement. If in doubt, stop the aircraft and query ATC.

201
Q

How are flight attendants confirmed seated for takeoff?

A

When saying “FA please be seated for takeoff”, you don’t press the call button, they’ll call you.

202
Q

What minimum takeoff speed should be used after Vr?

A

Normal Takeoff Minimum Airspeed after Vr: V2+10 minimum

203
Q

If the F-bug reference doesn’t appear on the climb, what speed should flaps be retracted at?

A

PM selects SLAT/FLAP to 0 following F-Bug reference. In case F-Bug disappears before total accomplishment of Slat/Flap retraction, retract Slat/Flap following Green Dot + 10 KIAS.

204
Q

What is a High Altitude Cruise?

A

Above FL250

205
Q

When must aircraft performance be calculated to climb to a higher altitude?

A

Any altitude increases above FL 330 must be calculated by utilizing ACARS performance data or by referring to the “All Engines, Long Range Cruise” charts in the Flight Planning chapter of this manual.

If the nose Attitude is excessively high, performance may be so limited that the aircraft will not be capable of maintaining altitude and the Airspeed may be lost. Under these circumstances, a descent must be initiated immediately to prevent a stall from occurring.

Turbojet engines may experience surging or compressor stall possibly leading to loss of thrust or even flameout at excessive angles of attack because of the disturbed airflow entering the engine inlet.

206
Q

What altitude should be selected on the descent?

A

Keep the ALT SEL Controller set to clearance altitude, and each new altitude selection shall be acknowledged by both crewmembers.

207
Q

When is use of the PA prohibited?

A

Use of the PA system from the cockpit for general information purposes below 10,000 feet in descent is prohibited.

208
Q

How should a descent be planned?

A

To arrive at 10,000’ AGL at 30NM at 250KIAS

209
Q

What should be done if icing conditions are present on descent and engine vibration increases?

A

If engine vibration increases in icing conditions during descent, reduce the thrust to idle, advance Thrust Levers

210
Q

When is the ILS frequency and approach course automatically tuned in?

A

If ILS is chosen on MCDU arrival page, preview function automatically sets the ILS frequency and final Approach course at 150 NM from destination airport.

211
Q

When setting up an arrival and approach on the MCDU, what is important to remeber?

A

Verify GO AROUND LIMIT page settings.

212
Q

Can FMS Speeds be used after the FAF?

A

No. The use of FMS SPEEDS after the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is not allowed per the AFM. Select the SPEED Knob to MAN prior to passing the FAF.

(Manual speeds will be used once you start the flaps process per CFM(Flaps 1, bug 180…)

213
Q

What does the Preview button do?

A

If using preview mode to set the courses for final approach, assure that the course selected is the one desired (on-side or cross-side).

1) Pressing the preview button once displays the on-side VOR/LOC preview on PFD;
2) Pressing twice shows the cross-side VOR/LOC preview;
3) Pressing a third time deactivates the preview mode.

214
Q

What are the required items in the approach briefing?

A

a) Type, name of Approach, airport.
b) Index (chart) number, effective date.
c) Required visibility.
d) Frequency, inbound course.
e) GS intercept altitude/FAF altitude.
f) Step downs, DA/MDA.
g) Runway/Approach lighting description.
h) Missed Approach/Go-Around procedure.
i) Runway conditions.
j) Required Landing distance appropriate for Landing weight and conditions.
k) Intended turnoff and taxi route, including any runway crossings, expected hold short instructions, runway incursion hot spots encountered during taxi to gate.
l) Special instructions: LAHSO, NOTAMs, terrain, noise abatement, Windshear, crosswinds, icing, contamination, etc.

215
Q

When should the altitude alert be set to the missed approach altitude?

A

By 1,000 feet AFE, verify the altitude alert is set to the Missed Approach altitude of the Approach procedure being flown.

216
Q

How should Vapp be corrected for winds?

A

Vapp = Vref +1/2 steady headwind component + gust increment (UP TO A MAX OF Vref +20)

For example: 210@12G30 The gust factor is 18. Reference the Wind and Alt conversion chart in CFM Ch.5

217
Q

What is the minimum and maximum Vapp without icing?

A

Minimum Vapp = Vref +5
Maximum Vapp = Vref+20

Any additive to the VREF shall be considered in the Landing distance calculations.

218
Q

What is the minimum and maximum Vapp in icing conditions (STALL PROT ICE SPEEDS)?

A

With STALL PROT ICE SPEEDS active,

Minimum VAPP = VREF + 0 KIAS
Maximum VAPP = VREF + 20 KIAS.

219
Q

What is Vref?

A

On a normal straight in Approach, no maneuvering, VREF should be the target Speed. The Approach should be planned as to cross 50 feet above the TDZ at VREF.

220
Q

How should a traffic pattern be flown?

A

Perform a visual Approach at an altitude of 1,500 ft above the runway elevation or according to local authority regulations, enter downwind leg with SLAT/FLAP 1. Maintain a track parallel to the Landing runway approximately 2 NM abeam. Abeam the threshold, select SLAT/FLAP 2. Turning base leg, approximately 30 seconds after passing abeam of the threshold, extend Landing Gear down and select SLAT/FLAP 3. At base leg, select Landing flaps reducing to VAPP and complete the Before Landing Checklist. The recommended final Approach path is approximately 3°. During manual flight (Autopilot not engaged), the FPR mode may be used as a reference. If the airplane cannot meet the stabilized Approach criteria, execute a Missed Approach.
At 1,000 feet above airport the aircraft must be stabilized at VAPP (or VREF + 1⁄2 steady headwind component + gust increment, maximum 20 KIAS, if necessary), otherwise a Go-Around or Missed Approach must be executed. (Refer to “Stabilized Approach Concept/Proactive Go-Around Policy” in this chapter for stabilized Approach parameters.)
If Landing on an ILS equipped runway, the localizer shall be tuned and the aircraft shall not descend below glideslope between the outer and middle markers, or the point where the glideslope is intercepted. On VASI/PAPI equipped runways, maintain an altitude at or above the VASI/PAPI glidepath until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe Landing.

Pilots should consider using the vertical navigation capabilities of the FMS when Landing runway is not equipped with an ILS or a VASI/PAPI. The FPA mode for visual Approaches should be set to approximately 3° and will display the current glidepath.

221
Q

What is the minimum wheel crossing height over the threshold?

A

A glideslope Threshold Crossing Height (TCH) of less than 35 feet will produce less than the minimum 20 foot wheel crossing height over the threshold. If the TCH is less than 35 feet, abandon the glideslope at DH (DA) and fly the airplane visually to touchdown. Observe the 20 foot minimum wheel crossing height over the threshold. An aiming point slightly short of the 1,000 foot point will produce a touchdown at the 1,000 foot point.

222
Q

What category aircraft is the E-175?

A

The E-175 is a Category C aircraft.

Category C aircraft may be required to apply category D minimums.

The aircraft Approach category used during an instrument Approach is determined by the aircraft’s VREF or 1.3 VSO at the maximum certificated Landing weight. An aircraft’s Approach category does not change if the actual Landing weight is less than the maximum certificated Landing weight.

An aircraft is certificated in only one Approach category and cannot be flown to the minimums of a slower Approach category, e.g., a category D aircraft cannot utilize category C minimums. Pilots are responsible for determining if a higher Approach category applies. If the requirement for a faster Approach Speed places the aircraft in a higher Speed Approach category, the minimums for the appropriate higher category must be used, e.g., emergency returns requiring overweight Landing, inoperative flaps or in icing conditions.

223
Q

When being radar vectored, when will the PF call for flaps 2?

A

Reaching the base/intermediate vector during radar vectors, the PF will call, “Flaps 2, Bug 180.”

224
Q

How should flaps be extended prior to reaching the FAF?

A

Prior to reaching the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), or whenever a Speed reduction below minimum clean Speed is necessary, extend flaps at the Green Dot (GD).

225
Q

If a go-around is required at an uncontrolled airport, what should be done?

A

If a Go-Around is necessary for any reason, aircraft operating at controlled airports will be issued appropriate instructions by the tower. The crew should initiate a climb straight ahead to Pattern Altitude until instructions are received. When operating at uncontrolled airports the crew are expected to climb to pattern altitude and remain clear of clouds.

The GO-AROUND and BEFORE LANDING checklists should be used if returning to land at this airport. If proceeding to a different airport, the AFTER TAKEOFF and remaining normal checklists should be used.

226
Q

If the FD is inop on a go-around, what pitch should be maintained?

A

If Flight Director is inoperative, rotate the airplane to 8° nose up.

227
Q

When should an approach be abandoned?

A
Abandon Approach Procedure - used when going missed before minimums or before FAF
“Abandon Approach”
No need to set the missed approach altitude
When selecting NAV, if in green needles, pressing FMS is required for magenta needles.
Set Vac (minimum Vref+20)
228
Q

What is the preferred crosswind landing technique?

A

For crosswind Landings, maintain runway alignment by crabbing into the wind. This will result in the longitudinal axis of the aircraft not being aligned with the runway centerline. To prevent this type of Landing, gradually remove the crab angle by applying down-wind rudder and prevent drift by applying aileron to lower the upwind wing. Land with the upwind wing slightly low. Strong crosswind conditions will require aileron deflection into the wind throughout the Landing roll to help maintain the runway centerline.

229
Q

What is the procedure for use of thrust reversers?

A

Upon landing, thrust reversers should be set to MIN REV at 60 KIAS and be closed at 30 KIAS. During RTO the thrust reversers can be used until the airplane comes to a complete stop.

230
Q

How long should pilots wait after APU start to shutdown an engine?

A

No Break Power Transfer (NBPT)

FO

1) To prevent electrical power interruptions, wait 10 seconds after APU is stabilized before shutting down one of the engines.
2) If one of the engines is shut down prior to using the APU, wait 10 seconds until the electrical system has stabilized on the remaining IDG before starting the APU.

231
Q

How long should engines be operated at or near idle prior to engine shutdown?

A

Prior to shutdown, operate the engines at or near IDLE for a minimum of two minutes to dissipate heat and stabilize internal operating temperatures.

232
Q

What is the purpose of the ECS Off Takeoff Checklist?

A

The Engines or the APU can supply bleed air for the air conditioning PACKS during Takeoff. To have an additional engine thrust during Takeoff, the FADEC may send an ECS OFF signal to the AMS controller requesting that no air is extracted from the Engines and the bleed air for PACKS operation can be provided by the APU.

233
Q

What is the purpose of the Engine Battery Start Checklist?

A

This procedure allows engine starts with batteries as the only electrical power and a pneumatic source (i.e., HPU or APU bleed air).

234
Q

What is the minimum engine oil temperature?

A

Minimum oil temperature is -40°C (-40°F). If the oil temperature is below the minimum value, ground heating may be required to warm the oil tank.

235
Q

When is windshear detection enabled?

A

Windshear detection is enabled between 10 ft and 1500 ft AGL

236
Q

What are the components of the ADS Air Data System?

A

The Air Data System (ADS) relies on total of four Air Data Smart Probes (ADSPs) and two Total Air Temperature probes (TATs) to determine air total pressure, static pressure and total temperature. Three Air Data Applications (ADAs) compute these informations to provide air data to PFDs and other airplane systems. IESS (Integrated Electronic Standby System) performs both the functions of computing air information and presenting air data to flight crew.

237
Q

What is the scale of the GS and CDI?

A

In the horizontal deviation scale, full-scale deflection (two dots) corresponds to 1xRNP lateral (both on the CDI and PFD).

The vertical deviation scale is 250 ft/Dot on terminal. Upon reaching 2 NM from the FAF, the scale changes to 75 ft/Dot during Approach.

238
Q

What happens if TOGA is pressed after passing the IAF?

A

The Missed Approach procedure is automatically activated after passing the Initial Approach Fix (IAF).

When a Go-Around is initiated (TO/GA Button is pressed) far away and GA mode on FMA is not active prior to 2 NM from the FAF, the Missed Approach procedure will not be automatically activated. To activate the Missed Approach in the flight plan, the TO/GA Button must be pressed again when within 2 NM of the FAF. After pressing TO/GA Button a second time, the NAV Button must also be pressed again to re-engage LNAV, guaranteeing the Missed Approach path will be correctly followed.

239
Q

What is the maximum angle in LNAV mode?

A

The LNAV mode can command Bank Angles up to 30°, which is above the maximum allowable Bank Angle for OEI conditions below the level OFF. Do not engage the LNAV mode until the airplane is above the level off if the departure procedure may cause the airplane to bank over the 15° limit.

240
Q

What are the takeoff pitch settings?

A

Set Speeds, with the knob on the MCDU confirm the correct T/O Pitch setting:

T/O Pitch 10 for Flaps 2.
T/O Pitch 11 for Flaps 1.
T/O Pitch 12 for Flaps 4.

241
Q

What is the meaning of the CI Cost Index number?

A

The CI = 0 is equal to maximum RANGE cruise Speed.

The CI = 999 is equal to maximum aircraft SPEED.

242
Q

What events will trigger a CI update in-flight?

A

The following events will trigger an automatic CI update while in-flight:

a. Climbing through 10,000 feet.
b. Climbing through 20,000 feet.
c. Level at a cruise (TGT ALT) altitude.
d. Descent from a cruise (TGT ALT) altitude.
e. Descent through 20,000 feet.
f. Change in aircraft weight by 500 lbs.
g. Change in wind component.

243
Q

What should the Captain do if the eCLR becomes inoperative?

A

Cargo
1. If eCLR becomes inoperative or Cargo Data unavailable to the aircraft, the Captain will request the Cargo Load Report (CLR) be prepared by the Ramp Agent.

  1. The Captain will receive the Cargo Load Report. The white copy will be retained onboard the aircraft until the end of the flight.
  2. The Passenger Count must be written on the Final Flight Attendant Manifest by the Gate Agent for all United Express flights.
  3. The count provided is taken directly from the GateReader, using the Total On A/C number. This count includes jumpseat passengers and infants.

V speeds will be calculated for the exact weight requested from the loading information given by the pilot. The speeds will differ from the speed book. In the case of an inoperative ACARS or FMS, revert to the speed book and TLR for V speeds. Note that split V1/R speeds will be a norm and additives are already applied.

244
Q

What two EPIC Loads are installed on Mesa aircraft?

A

Mesa Airlines, Inc. operates E-175 aircraft with two different EPIC Loads: 25.7 and 27.3/27.4. Pilots must maintain awareness of which load is installed and ensure they are using the correct procedures in situations where there are differences.

245
Q

How should knobs with a white rectangle or triangle be moved?

A

Knobs marked with a white rectangle or triangle should be gently placed back into position as opposed to just being released. If the pilot just releases the spring knob, allowing it to spring back into position, the lifetime of the knob is decreased significantly. Care should be taken to preserve the life of the knobs.

246
Q

In an emergency on takeoff, when will the emergency action be taken?

A

No action should be taken until the airplane flight path and configuration are properly established and a safe altitude (1,000 ft or above) has been attained.

247
Q

What items need to be confirmed by both pilots (only while in-flight) prior to being accomplished?

A

When airborne, items referring to Thrust Lever, FIRE EXTINGUISHER Handles, IDG selectors, and Engine START/STOP Selectors should be confirmed by both pilots prior to being accomplished.

248
Q

What should be done after a QRH checklist is completed?

A

After the procedure is completed, the pilot should revert back to the normal checklist, and amend it with the appropriate items requested in the abnormal checklist (e.g., different flap setting). Only the Ditching, Forced Landing, One Engine Inoperative Approach and Landing, Partial or Gear Up Landing, and Landing checklists already incorporate the normal checklists, not requiring a reversion.

249
Q

What does the FD button on the GP do?

A

Removal of the FD cue pressing FD Button on the Guidance Panel does not turn off the Flight Director.

When the FD is selected OFF with the Autopilot disengaged on the source side, the Flight Director modes are disengaged and the Autothrottle reverts to the basic default control mode (SPDt).

When FPA is in active mode, press the FPA button once to deactivate the FD.

Having any other vertical mode active, select ALT SEL to an altitude different from the actual altitude, and press FPA button twice. Then select ALT SEL to the altitude applicable to the flight phase.

This will remove all FD modes from the FMA.

250
Q

When should AT autothrottle be used?

A

The Autothrottle should be used during the entire flight, engaged just prior to Takeoff and disengaged after touch down or at the PF’s discretion.

251
Q

When should a crewmember be considered incapacitated on a V1 cut?

A

Failure of any crewmember to respond to a second request or a checklist will be considered a pilot incapacitation condition and crew action is immediately required.

252
Q

How are the carbon brakes different from regular aircraft brakes?

A

In order to reduce carbon brake wear, avoid applying the brakes too often during taxiing “cold brakes” procedures. Wear is far more related to the number of applications than to the energy applied. Carbon brakes wear less when operated at high temperatures.

253
Q

Is frost allowed on the aircraft surfaces?

A

A 1/8 in frost layer is permitted on the underwing surfaces. Frost is not permitted on the lower or upper surface of the horizontal stabilizer or the upper surface of the wing. Cold-soaked fuel frost may form on the ground on the wing upper surface after long flights at low temperatures.

254
Q

Does Green Dot account for ice accretion?

A

Yes

255
Q

Is the airplane designed to fly into freezing rain or freezing drizzle?

A

No. Freezing rain and freezing drizzle may cause ice formation on airplane surfaces even during short exposures, and on areas not normally subjected to ice accretion.

If ice formation is noticed in such conditions, consider that the airplane is under severe icing conditions and exit the area.

Both freezing rain and freezing drizzle can exist down to ground level and cause ice to form quite rapidly on all surfaces even during short exposures and on areas not normally known to be subjected to ice accretion. This means that the airplane is not designed to fly under freezing rain/drizzle (SLD) conditions.

256
Q

What is the recommended maximum taxi speed for straight/turns, dry/wet?

A

A. Straight / DRY: 20 kt.
B. Straight / WET or CONTAMINATED: 10 kt.
C. Turns / DRY: 10 kt.
D. Turns / WET or CONTAMINATED: 5 kt.
E. At idle thrust, the airplane may accelerate to a higher taxi speed than desired.

257
Q

What is a static takeoff procedure?

A

Pilot lines up the airplane on the runway, applies brakes, adjusts thrust to 40% N1. When engines stabilize at 40% N1, advances Thrust Levers to TO/GA detent. Release the brakes when the Takeoff thrust (N1 target) is achieved.

Due to the possibility of compressor stall, a static Takeoff is not recommended with a crosswind greater than 25 kt. Complete a rolling takeoff instead without applying brakes. The takeoff distance and accelerate stop distance increases in approximately 80 meters (262.467 feet) comparing to a static takeoff procedure.

258
Q

When should a takeoff be aborted? What is the purpose of the 80kt profile callout?

A

The sooner an RTO decision is made, the greater is the chance to safely stop within runway limits. RTO above V1 may lead to a runway overrun and is the main cause of overrun accidents.

The Low Speed portion of the Takeoff roll is from advancing Thrust Levers until 80 KIAS. Takeoff should be aborted for all emergencies, and anomalies per PIC discretion.

During Takeoff, the 80 KIAS callout has three main purposes:

  1. Pilot incapacitation check.
  2. Airspeed crosscheck.
  3. The transition from Low to High Speed.

The High Speed portion of the Takeoff roll is from 80 KIAS to V1. Only abort Takeoffs if they severely affect safety, such as but not limited to:

  1. Engine Fire, Failure, or Severe Damage
  2. Any indication of fire.
  3. Thrust Reverser Deployment.
  4. Loss of directional control.
  5. Takeoff Configuration Warning.
  6. Pilot detected Windshear.
  7. PIC determination.

For High energy speeds, it is recommended to continue the takeoff if a tire burst occurs.

Upon reaching V1, if no decision has been taken, continue the takeoff. After V1, there is no assurance that the airplane is capable of stopping within the remaining runway length.

259
Q

What flight control care should be taken on a crosswind takeoff?

A

Care should be taken to avoid using an excessive amount of control wheel to avoid causing unnecessary spoiler deployment. During rotation, maintain control wheel in the displaced position to keep the wings level during liftoff. Smoothly recover from the sideslip by slowly neutralizing the control wheel and rudder pedals after liftoff.

260
Q

How should the airplane be rotated on takeoff?

A

Initiate rotation at VR at approximately 3°/sec, smoothly, towards the flight director angle. Rotation at a pitch higher than normal and inappropriate flight director use during rotation increase the risk of tail strike.

261
Q

What should be done if ice accumulates on the engine fan spinner or blades?

A

Operation in moderate to severe icing conditions may allow ice to build up on the fan spinner and/or blades. If allowed to accumulate, asymmetrical ice shedding may result in high fan vibration. If fan ice build-up is suspected (high indicated or perceived vibration) accomplish the following periodic engine run up (one engine at a time). Reduce one Thrust Lever at a time towards idle, than advance to a minimum of 70% N1 for 10 to 30 seconds. Than return the Thrust Lever to the position required for flight conditions.

262
Q

Maximum Cruise Speed

A

Maximum Cruise Speed provides the maximum True Airspeed (TAS). It is achieved when maximum cruise thrust is used. Using maximum cruise Speed, the trip time is reduced and fuel burn increased.

263
Q

Maximum Endurance Speed

A

Maximum Endurance Speed provides the maximum time in-flight and the minimum fuel flow. This Speed mode is used when the trip time has to be prioritized. An example is when the airplane is holding, or when the estimated time of arrival at destination needs to be delayed.

264
Q

Long Range Cruise Speed

A

In the Long Range Cruise schedule (LRC), the airplane is flown at a Speed corresponding to a specific range equal to 99% of maximum specific range. Although not the most fuel efficient Speed, LRC is usually adopted to save fuel because it is considerably faster than Maximum Range Cruise and just 1% less fuel efficient.

265
Q

Maximum Reserve Speed (Cruise)

A

Maximum Reserve Speed provides the maximum TAS while ensuring the destination airport can be reached with the proper fuel reserves.

266
Q

Optimum Cruise Altitude

A

The Optimum Cruise Altitude is the pressure altitude, for a given weight and center of gravity, Speed, air temperature that gives the maximum specific range.
The default for INIT CRZ ALT is OPTIMUM when the performance mode is FULL PERF. The FMS calculates the optimum cruise altitude based on the performance initialization data. After performance initialization is complete, the calculated optimum altitude is displayed in small characters on this page.

267
Q

Step Climb Function on the MCDU

A

The step climb function is not permitted at this time. The SECONDARY FLIGHT PLAN is available for performance optimization and replaces the WHAT-IF page.

268
Q

How/when should yaw trim be used?

A

To avoid over trimming, allow approximately 3 to 5 seconds between actuations and observe the results. As the Slip/Skid Indicator gets closer to the center (below the Roll Pointer) only sharp, brisk actuations are required.

269
Q

How/when should roll trim be used?

A

Roll trimming should be performed after the airplane has been trimmed for yaw.

270
Q

What is the purpose of the driftdown procedure?

A

The driftdown profile assures the airplane altitude is kept as high as possible throughout the descent. The driftdown Speed is represented by the Green Dot and provides the lowest descent gradient.

During a driftdown, the available thrust increases as the airplane descends. Eventually, at a certain altitude the available thrust becomes equal to the airplane drag, and the airplane levels off. This altitude is called the gross level off altitude. The gross level off altitude, when corrected for gradient margins by 1.1% (two engines), is called the net level off altitude. It depends on the atmospheric temperature and the airplane weight.

Regulations (14 CFR 121.191) require that the airplane be able to clear all terrain by a given margin when an engine fails. Two means of compliance for enroute obstacle clearance are allowed:

  1. The net level-off altitude must clear all enroute obstacles by at least 1,000 ft; or
  2. The net flight path must clear all enroute obstacles between the point where the engine is assumed to fail and an airport where a Landing can be made by at least 2,000 ft.
271
Q

After an engine failure/shutdown what should the pilot do to perform driftdown procedures?

A

After an engine failure or in-flight engine shutdown during cruise, the driftdown procedure may be required. Pilot should select AT OFF and place Thrust Lever of operational engine in TO/GA and set thrust rating to “CON.” Adjust ALT SEL Controller to appropriate altitude in accordance with route analysis and set driftdown Speed. When reaching driftdown Speed, select FLCH and perform applicable checklist. Notify ATC and monitor descent.

Follow the Green Dot displayed on the Speed tape for driftdown.

The Green Dot may be used for Approach, descent and cruise, even with STALL PROT ICE SPEED message displayed.

Refer to the Mesa Airlines, Inc. General Operations Manual Driftdown section for expanded planning and procedures which includes Method 1 and Method 2 Driftdown Analysis in Dispatch Release.

272
Q

What will happen if the airplane deviates from the desired state? Does this aircraft have positive, neutral, or negative stability characteristics?

A

Deviations from the desired airplane state will become larger until action is taken to stop the divergence. (negative static/dynamic stability). Return to the desired airplane state can be achieved through natural airplane reaction to accelerations, autoflight system response or pilot intervention.

273
Q

If the aircraft is stalled in a nose low situation, what action should the pilot take?

A

Even in a nose low situation, the airplane may be stalled. It would be necessary to recover from the stall first, applying nose down inputs, which may not be intuitive.

274
Q

Can the pilot flying remove their hand from the speedbrake lever while in use?

A

The pilot should keep a hand on the SPEEDBRAKE Lever anytime the speed brakes are used. This will prevent the speed brakes from being left extended when no longer required.

275
Q

In case of early or late descent, what FMS feature should be used?

A

In case of a late or early descent make use of the Descend Now function on the FMS.

276
Q

How many NM are required to extend flaps to the full down position?

A

8NM

277
Q

What is best practice when extending flaps?

A

In order to optimize flaps life and fuel consumption, extend SLATS/FLAPS on the “Green Dot” Speed. The Green Dot provides the minimum Speed for the current configuration. Select the next SLAT/FLAP position before reducing the Speed below the current Green Dot located along the right edge of the Airspeed tape. The use of the Green Dot as reference for flaps extension reduces the fuel consumption.

When the Green Dot is not available, the Flaps Maneuvering Speeds table may be used for SLAT/FLAP extension.

278
Q

What weather conditions could cause the aircraft height to appear higher than it actually is?

A

When flying under conditions of haze, smoke, dust, glare or darkness, aircraft height may appear higher than it actually is. Shadows are one of the key factors in depth perception.

Moisture on windshield interferes with visibility and may cause any type of glidepath illusion. Light rays will refract (bend) as they pass through the layer of moisture of the windshield. The aircraft can appear to be above or below the glidepath or left or right of centerline. This can be as much as a 200 ft error at one mile from the runway which, when combined with effect mentioned above, could result in a Landing short of runway threshold or in a long Landing.

279
Q

Can a go-around be performed after thrust reverser deployment on touchdown?

A

No. If after touchdown thrust reverser is applied, a full stop landing must be accomplished. The thrust levers require time to transition from reverse to forward thrust, and there is the possibility that it does not remain stowed in the forward thrust position.

280
Q

What is the purpose of the idle descent table in the CFM?

A

A. The CFM/QRH present tables of Speed and flight path angle to perform descents with idle power setting until 12,000 ft.

B. The speeds published in these tables are inserted on the FMS to guarantee the idle descent. These speeds are not speeds that the airplane actually flies. They are used as reference.

C. The flight path angle is calculated based on the weight at the top of descent. There is compensation for wind effects and ice, if forecast on descent. Headwinds cause steeper path angles while tailwinds have the opposite effect.

D. This procedure for idle descent achieves the expected results only if it is possible to perform a constant descent, without step downs. The airplane must also initiate the descent at the TOD. Use the FMS VPATH for the descent. This mode prioritizes angle over Speed.

E. This procedure for idle descent provides a most efficient descent in terms of fuel savings and also enhances the cabin rate of descent variation.

281
Q

When VNAV is not available, how can the initial distance to descend be found? What is the formula if idle or the formula if 3deg?

A

If descent is accomplished in idle:
Dist = 2 x (FL difference/10) +15

If descent angle of 3deg is taken:
Dist = 3 x (FL difference/10)

*These formulas consider a deceleration from normal speed to 250kts. Winds were not considered.

282
Q

While in idle level flight, what distance will the aircraft take to slow down 10kts with and without speedbrakes?

A

1NM without speedbrakes (stowed/down)

.5NM with speedbrakes deployed/up

283
Q

While in a typical 1,000fpm idle descent, what distance will the aircraft take to slow down 10kts with and without speedbrakes?

A

2NM Without speedbrakes (down/stowed)

1NM with speedbrakes deployed/up

For example: deceleration from 250kts to 200kts requires 5NM in level flight. While descending at 1,000fpm with speed brakes stowed, it requires 10NM.

284
Q

When should flaps be used in a Procedure Turn?

A

If a full Procedure Turn is required, select SLAT/FLAP 1 reducing to SLAT/FLAP 1 maneuvering Speed one minute before the aircraft passes the fix. Approximately 30 seconds after station or fix passage, select SLAT/FLAP 2 and reduce to SLAT/FLAP 2 maneuvering Speed.

A normal outbound leg is 45 seconds to one minute. Some procedures turns are specified by a procedure track in the NAV charts. The turns must be flown as depicted and monitor in the PFD. The Ground Speed and the airplane position relative to the Procedure Turn should be monitored.

285
Q

What is the preview feature?

A

The PREVIEW feature allows the capture of an ILS course while still using the FMS as the active NAV source. PREVIEW automatically selects the ILS course provided the ILS Approach is inserted on the MCDU.

286
Q

What approach deviation callouts is the PM responsible for and for what deviation?

A

GUIDANCE - guidance cue becomes half circle excursion out of Flight Path Vector or any deviation from FD
SINK RATE - rate of descent more than 900fpm
LOC / GLIDE - greater than 1 dot
SPEED - above target speed +10kts or below -5kts
BANK - excess of 25deg bank
PITCH - +-5deg pitch in relation to established pitch
Calls the failure - Any autopilot or FD malfunction
Perform the Expected Callouts - EGPWS callouts

287
Q

What is the purpose of the APPR annunciator on the FMA?

A

This is a positive cue to the flight crew that the sensor configuration is correct and sensor integrity is within limits for the Approach. The Approach annunciator is not displayed during localizer based Approaches since the FMS as the navigation source is not authorized to be coupled during localizer Approaches.

288
Q

Describe LAHSO lights

A

The current FAA LAHSO runway lighting configuration consists of two sets of six, or seven steady and pulsing white lights installed in the pavement:

  1. The steady white lights are an alert point indicating that only 1,000 ft remains to the hold short point.
  2. The pulsing white lights indicate the actual hold short point.
289
Q

PLDW

A

Planned Landing Weight (PLDW).

290
Q

PMRLW

A

Planned Maximum Runway Landing Weight (PMRLW).

291
Q

What visibility is required to accept a LAHSO clearance?

A

To accept a LAHSO clearance
For Day Ops:
operative VASI or PAPI and 1,000’ and 3SM
OR if VASI/PAPI unavailable, 1,500’ and 5SM (Day Only)

292
Q

What conditions are required to be met prior to accepting a LAHSO clearance?

A
  • Not Contaminated Rwy
  • Tailwind Less than 3
  • No Windshear
  • Aircraft >1,000’AFE and 5NM before clearance is accepted
  • Perf in the dispatch release
  • All LAHSO signs and markings operative
  • No MELS for thrust reversers, spoiler system, slat/flap system
  • No emergency condition
  • No abnormal procedure that would increase Landing field length
  • No runways that require a RLP Rejected Landing Procedure
293
Q

How is Vapp calculated?

A

Vapp is Vref plus wind correction

For normal approaches Vapp=Vref + 1/2steady state HW + Full Gust Factor

Vref is limited to +5 to 20kts or +0 to +20kts for CAT II

294
Q

What is the technique for the landing and flare?

A

As the airplane Approaches the touchdown point, initiate the flare approximately 20 ft to 10 ft by reducing the rate of descent and slowly reducing Thrust Levers to idle so that they are at idle when the airplane touches down. Normally a 2° to 3° pitch change will be enough for the flare.

295
Q

Describe how thrust reversers should be used on a contaminated runway.

A

Use maximum reverse thrust when Landing over wet, slippery, and contaminated runways. Maintain maximum reverse thrust until the Airspeed is approximately 80 KIAS. Smoothly reduce Thrust Reversers to MIN REV at 60 KIAS and idle thrust at 30 KIAS. Thrust Reverser is more effective at high speeds. The use of reverse thrust below 60 kt increases the chances of foreign object ingestion by the engine. If necessary, use the Thrust Reversers until the airplane come to a complete stop.

296
Q

What speed on landing is rudder control effective until?

A

Rudder control is effective to approximately 60 kt. Rudder pedal steering is sufficient for maintaining directional control during the rollout. Do not use the Nosewheel Steering tiller until reaching taxi Speed.

297
Q

What aircraft lights should be turned off as the airplane leaves the runway?

A

As soon as the airplane leaves the runway, the STROBE Lights must be turned off. However LANDING Lights are switched off, the NOSE TAXI Light must remain on throughout the Taxi regardless of the time of the day.

298
Q

What is the difference in landing distance if the airplane crosses the threshold 10kts above Vref? What if the airplane is on speed but crosses the screen height at 100 feet?

A

If the airplane crosses the threshold with 10 kt above the VREF, the Landing distance increases by approximately 20%.

Crossing the threshold at 100 ft instead of the normal screen height increases the Landing distance by approximately 35%.

299
Q

How much is landing distance extended if the flare is increases by merely 3 seconds?

A

Extending the flare during Landing increases the Landing distance. The airplane touches down the runway at a point ahead of the runway touchdown zone, which is located at 1000 ft from the runway threshold. Extending the flare by 3 seconds increases the Landing distance by approximately 25%.

300
Q

How much could landing distance increase by if the aircraft is unstable, crossing the threshold at 100’, above Vref and 3seconds of extended flare?

A

Considering an unstabilized Approach, with the airplane crossing the threshold at 100 ft, above VREF and with 3 seconds of extended flare, the Landing distance increases by approximately 80%. In this situation, the distance necessary to stop the airplane exceeds the operational margins provided by the dispatch required Landing distance.

301
Q

What percentage is unfactored landing distance (dry)?

What percentage is required landing distance (dry)? 1

A

Unfactored landing distance (dry) = 1

Required Landing distance (dry) = 1.67

302
Q

What is PLN FUEL on the dispatch release composed of?

A

ENROUTE + HOLD + RESERVE + EXTRA + TAXI = PLN FUEL

303
Q

What is MIN FUEL on the dispatch release composed of?

A

ENROUTE + HOLD + RESERVE = MIN FUEL