IN212 Flashcards
When do you perform an instrument takeoff (ITO)?
Use ITO procedures during periods of restricted visibility.
What is an instrument departure?
Any IFR transition from takeoff to enroute structure USAF Methods: a. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) b. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) c. Specific ATC Departure Instructions d. Diverse Departures e. MAJCOM Certified Procedure f. Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums
What is the meaning of a black inverted triangle with a “T” in the center?
IFR takeoff minimums and/or departure procedures are published a. Information in front of IAP b. Departure procedure may require MAJCOM certified training
You are flying a published departure and are vectored off the departure routing. Do you need to meet subsequent published altitude restrictions?
No. Consider the published departure clearance cancelled and follow the controller’s instructions.
You are flying radar vectors and realize that you cannot meet an altitude restriction given by the controller. What do you do?
Notify the controller that you cannot meet the altitude restriction a. When flying radar vectors: 1) Follow controller instructions 2) Notify if you cannot comply 3) Know where you are going
When receiving a new in-flight clearance, what items should you read back to the controller?
Altimeter settings, Headings, Altitude assignments
What is the direction of turn and inbound leg length for a nonstandard holding pattern at 14,000 feet MSL?
Left turns, maximum length of inbound leg is one minute a. Standard pattern - right turns b. Maximum inbound leg length above 14,000 feet MSL is 1.5 minutes
What are the three types of high altitude approaches?
a. Teardrop (DME or Non-DME) b. Radial c. Radial/arc
You are 50 NM from the Stonewall VORTAC at FL220 at 240 KTAS. The controller tells you to descend to cross the Stonewall VORTAC at 7000 feet MSL. What descent gradient do you use? What is the resulting VSI if you maintain airspeed (assume no wind)?
a. Pitch Angle = 150/50 = 3° (300 ft/NM) b. VSI = 300 X (240/60) = 300 ft/NM X 4 NM/min = 1200 fpm descent
What airspeed do you maintain when performing a low altitude approach (prior to configuring)? What is the recommended rate of descent during a low altitude approach?
a. 120 – 150 KIAS b. 500 – 2000 fpm
When will a procedure turn approach not be flown?
a. Straight-in approach b. “NoPT” routing c. Established in holding cleared the approach, and holding course is same as procedure turn course d. ATC Radar vectors you to final e. Cleared by ATC for Timed approach f. Memory Aid: “SNERT”
What is the difference between a procedure turn and a procedure track?
a. A procedure track requires a specific flight path b. Procedure tracks may employ: 1) Arcs 2) Radials 3) Courses 4) Turns 5) Ground tracks
What is the glideslope angle for the ILS approach shown below?
Glideslope is 3.0°
When flying an ILS approach, what action should you take at the glideslope intercept point?
Reduce power to approximately 22% and lower the nose to “line-on-line” on the EADI.
When will you begin your descent to the MDA on the VOR or GPS RWY A approach to Abilene Regional?
At BURGE
How will you identify the MAP for the VOR/DME RWY 33 approach at Lufkin/Angelina County?
DME or timing from the FAF
You are enroute to a GPS approach that is loaded and selected. At 30 NM, the CDI scale automatically switches to _____.
± 1 NM
At 2 NM from the FAF, the GPS automatically switches to the _____ when all conditions are satisfied.
approach active mode
When the GPS transitions to the approach active mode, the CDI scale begins to change from the ±1 NM approach scale to a ______ final approach scale
± 0.3 NM
When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the ______ on the EHSI will ______.
track line; turn green
What course do you set in the EHSI to fly a backcourse localizer?
Published localizer front course
What are the airspeeds and configurations for downwind, base, and final on a radar approach?
a. Downwind 1) 150 - 200 KIAS 2) Clean b. Base 1) 120 - 150 KIAS 2) Gear and flaps as required c. Final 1) 100 - 120 KIAS 2) Gear – Down 3) Flaps - As Required
When flying in the radar environment, attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for ______ while being vectored, ______ on ASR final, and ______ on PAR final.
a. 1 minute b. 15 seconds c. 5 seconds
When being vectored to an ASR final approach, somewhere in the radar pattern the radar controller will specify ______.
a. Runway to which approach will be conducted b. MDA c. Missed approach point
A PAR approach starts when the aircraft is in range of the precision radar and _____.
contact is established with the final controller
Controllers will normally expect an aircraft on no-gyro vectors to use _____ bank turns in the pattern and _____ bank turns on final.
standard rate; half-standard rate
On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____.
only when directed by the controller
What is the missed approach point for an instrument approach?
The latest point where the decision is made to land. The instrument approach final ends at either DA or the MAP. a. Decision Altitude b. MAP identification 1) Fix (DME/NAVAID) 2) Timing
When transitioning to visual references during an actual instrument final approach, a good technique is to start peeking outside ______.
when you get within 100-200 feet above the reported weather ceiling
If a runway has centerline lights, the lights are ______ from the threshold to the 3000 feet remaining point, ______ until 1000 feet of runway remaining, and are ______ the last 1000 feet of runway remaining.
white; alternate white and red; red
You are going to fly this approach to runway 35L then circle to runway 17R in a T-6A. What is the MDA for the approach and will you fly a right or left downwind during the circle?
a. MDA: 1840 (Category C) b. Left downwind because you must circle to the east (circling is not authorized west of Rwy 17R-35L)
You experience a bird strike departing Abilene Regional. You do a controllability check and determine the minimum controllable airspeed is 110 KIAS so you must maintain 130 KIAS until final approach. The only recovery option is the VOR or GPS-A approach at Abilene. What category approach minimums should you use?
Since your minimum circling airspeed in this scenario is 130 KIAS, you must use the Category C minimums
What are climbout instructions?
a. Instructions issued by the controller when flying multiple approaches b. Constitute an ATC clearance c. Supersede published missed approach instructions
When can you make the first turn when executing climbout instructions?
a. Make first turn when: 1) Past departure end of runway (if visible) and 400 feet AGL 2) 400 feet AGL otherwise
You are flying a circling maneuver and lose visual references. In what direction do you make a climbing turn during the missed approach?
Toward the landing runway a. Initiate this turn as soon as the initial climb is established for the missed approach
How fast do you transition to instrument references during an instrument takeoff (ITO)? What is the pitch attitude for an ITO?
a. Transition at the rate outside references become unreliable. b. Rotate to 7-10° nose high at 85 KIAS
What are the approved USAF methods of instrument departures?
a. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) b. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) c. Specific ATC Departure Instructions d. Diverse Departures e. MAJCOM Certified Procedure f. Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums
The maximum length of an inbound leg of a holding pattern above 14,000 feet MSL is ______.
1.5 minutes
When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardrop instrument penetration?
When established on the inbound segment of the approach
You are cleared for an enroute descent at “pilot’s discretion” from FL 190 to 7000 feet MSL. Can you temporarily level off at 11,000 feet?
Yes, you may level off at an intermediate altitude, but once you leave that altitude you cannot return to it.
When do you begin timing outbound on a procedure turn?
a. Outbound abeam IAF b. Wings-level outbound if you cannot determine abeam
You are cleared for the approach at 3000 feet MSL. When can you descend in the holding pattern?
After crossing the IAF (holding fix)
You are flying the ILS RWY 15 approach to Kelly AFB. At what altitude would you expect to intercept the ILS glideslope if you fly the approach as depicted?
2400 feet MSL
On the GPS display, how do you identify the MAP?
The MAP is the waypoint suffixed with a lower case “m”.
How much bank should you use to make corrections on a radar final approach?
Bank angle equal to the number of degrees to be turned, not to exceed half standard rate
What is the T-6A configuration and airspeed for an instrument final approach at the FAF? What are the descent rates for nonprecision and precision final approaches?
a. At the FAF: 1) Gear-down 2) Flaps-TO 3) 110 KIAS b. Descent rates on final: 1) Nonprecision 800 – 1000 fpm 2) Precision 400 – 600 fpm
At what rate do you transition from instrument to visual references when landing from an instrument approach?
a. At the rate visual references become reliable b. Opposite to rate of transition to instruments during an instrument takeoff
What should you do to safely transition to land from the MDA if you are past the VDP with visual glidepath indicators giving you an above glidepath indication?
Accept a long landing. Do not attempt to capture the on-glidepath visual indication by making a large increase in your descent rate.
