IN212

Question 1

When do you perform an instrument takeoff (ITO)?

Answer 1

Use ITO procedures during periods of restricted visibility.

Question 2

What is an instrument departure?

Answer 2

Any IFR transition from takeoff to enroute structure USAF Methods: a. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) b. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) c. Specific ATC Departure Instructions d. Diverse Departures e. MAJCOM Certified Procedure f. Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums

Question 3

What is the meaning of a black inverted triangle with a “T” in the center?

Answer 3

IFR takeoff minimums and/or departure procedures are published a. Information in front of IAP b. Departure procedure may require MAJCOM certified training

Question 4

You are flying a published departure and are vectored off the departure routing. Do you need to meet subsequent published altitude restrictions?

Answer 4

No. Consider the published departure clearance cancelled and follow the controller’s instructions.

Question 5

You are flying radar vectors and realize that you cannot meet an altitude restriction given by the controller. What do you do?

Answer 5

Notify the controller that you cannot meet the altitude restriction a. When flying radar vectors: 1) Follow controller instructions 2) Notify if you cannot comply 3) Know where you are going

Question 6

When receiving a new in-flight clearance, what items should you read back to the controller?

Answer 6

Altimeter settings, Headings, Altitude assignments

Question 7

What is the direction of turn and inbound leg length for a nonstandard holding pattern at 14,000 feet MSL?

Answer 7

Left turns, maximum length of inbound leg is one minute a. Standard pattern - right turns b. Maximum inbound leg length above 14,000 feet MSL is 1.5 minutes

Question 8

What are the three types of high altitude approaches?

Answer 8

a. Teardrop (DME or Non-DME) b. Radial c. Radial/arc

Question 9

You are 50 NM from the Stonewall VORTAC at FL220 at 240 KTAS. The controller tells you to descend to cross the Stonewall VORTAC at 7000 feet MSL. What descent gradient do you use? What is the resulting VSI if you maintain airspeed (assume no wind)?

Answer 9

a. Pitch Angle = 150/50 = 3° (300 ft/NM) b. VSI = 300 X (240/60) = 300 ft/NM X 4 NM/min = 1200 fpm descent

Question 10

What airspeed do you maintain when performing a low altitude approach (prior to configuring)? What is the recommended rate of descent during a low altitude approach?

Answer 10

a. 120 – 150 KIAS b. 500 – 2000 fpm

Question 11

When will a procedure turn approach not be flown?

Answer 11

a. Straight-in approach b. “NoPT” routing c. Established in holding cleared the approach, and holding course is same as procedure turn course d. ATC Radar vectors you to final e. Cleared by ATC for Timed approach f. Memory Aid: “SNERT”

Question 12

What is the difference between a procedure turn and a procedure track?

Answer 12

a. A procedure track requires a specific flight path b. Procedure tracks may employ: 1) Arcs 2) Radials 3) Courses 4) Turns 5) Ground tracks

Question 13

What is the glideslope angle for the ILS approach shown below?

Answer 13

Glideslope is 3.0°

Question 14

When flying an ILS approach, what action should you take at the glideslope intercept point?

Answer 14

Reduce power to approximately 22% and lower the nose to “line-on-line” on the EADI.

Question 15

When will you begin your descent to the MDA on the VOR or GPS RWY A approach to Abilene Regional?

Answer 15

At BURGE

Question 16

How will you identify the MAP for the VOR/DME RWY 33 approach at Lufkin/Angelina County?

Answer 16

DME or timing from the FAF

Question 17

You are enroute to a GPS approach that is loaded and selected. At 30 NM, the CDI scale automatically switches to _____.

Answer 17

± 1 NM

Question 18

At 2 NM from the FAF, the GPS automatically switches to the _____ when all conditions are satisfied.

Answer 18

approach active mode

Question 19

When the GPS transitions to the approach active mode, the CDI scale begins to change from the ±1 NM approach scale to a ______ final approach scale

Answer 19

± 0.3 NM

Question 20

When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the ______ on the EHSI will ______.

Answer 20

track line; turn green

Question 21

What course do you set in the EHSI to fly a backcourse localizer?

Answer 21

Published localizer front course

Question 22

What are the airspeeds and configurations for downwind, base, and final on a radar approach?

Answer 22

a. Downwind 1) 150 - 200 KIAS 2) Clean b. Base 1) 120 - 150 KIAS 2) Gear and flaps as required c. Final 1) 100 - 120 KIAS 2) Gear – Down 3) Flaps - As Required

Question 23

When flying in the radar environment, attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for ______ while being vectored, ______ on ASR final, and ______ on PAR final.

Answer 23

a. 1 minute b. 15 seconds c. 5 seconds

Question 24

When being vectored to an ASR final approach, somewhere in the radar pattern the radar controller will specify ______.

Answer 24

a. Runway to which approach will be conducted b. MDA c. Missed approach point

Question 25

A PAR approach starts when the aircraft is in range of the precision radar and _____.

Answer 25

contact is established with the final controller

Question 26

Controllers will normally expect an aircraft on no-gyro vectors to use _____ bank turns in the pattern and _____ bank turns on final.

Answer 26

standard rate; half-standard rate

Question 27

On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____.

Answer 27

only when directed by the controller

Question 28

What is the missed approach point for an instrument approach?

Answer 28

The latest point where the decision is made to land. The instrument approach final ends at either DA or the MAP. a. Decision Altitude b. MAP identification 1) Fix (DME/NAVAID) 2) Timing

Question 29

When transitioning to visual references during an actual instrument final approach, a good technique is to start peeking outside ______.

Answer 29

when you get within 100-200 feet above the reported weather ceiling

Question 30

If a runway has centerline lights, the lights are ______ from the threshold to the 3000 feet remaining point, ______ until 1000 feet of runway remaining, and are ______ the last 1000 feet of runway remaining.

Answer 30

white; alternate white and red; red

Question 31

You are going to fly this approach to runway 35L then circle to runway 17R in a T-6A. What is the MDA for the approach and will you fly a right or left downwind during the circle?

Answer 31

a. MDA: 1840 (Category C) b. Left downwind because you must circle to the east (circling is not authorized west of Rwy 17R-35L)

Question 32

You experience a bird strike departing Abilene Regional. You do a controllability check and determine the minimum controllable airspeed is 110 KIAS so you must maintain 130 KIAS until final approach. The only recovery option is the VOR or GPS-A approach at Abilene. What category approach minimums should you use?

Answer 32

Since your minimum circling airspeed in this scenario is 130 KIAS, you must use the Category C minimums

Question 33

What are climbout instructions?

Answer 33

a. Instructions issued by the controller when flying multiple approaches b. Constitute an ATC clearance c. Supersede published missed approach instructions

Question 34

When can you make the first turn when executing climbout instructions?

Answer 34

a. Make first turn when: 1) Past departure end of runway (if visible) and 400 feet AGL 2) 400 feet AGL otherwise

Question 35

You are flying a circling maneuver and lose visual references. In what direction do you make a climbing turn during the missed approach?

Answer 35

Toward the landing runway a. Initiate this turn as soon as the initial climb is established for the missed approach

Question 36

How fast do you transition to instrument references during an instrument takeoff (ITO)? What is the pitch attitude for an ITO?

Answer 36

a. Transition at the rate outside references become unreliable. b. Rotate to 7-10° nose high at 85 KIAS

Question 37

What are the approved USAF methods of instrument departures?

Answer 37

a. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) b. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) c. Specific ATC Departure Instructions d. Diverse Departures e. MAJCOM Certified Procedure f. Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums

Question 38

The maximum length of an inbound leg of a holding pattern above 14,000 feet MSL is ______.

Answer 38

1.5 minutes

Question 39

When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardrop instrument penetration?

Answer 39

When established on the inbound segment of the approach

Question 40

You are cleared for an enroute descent at “pilot’s discretion” from FL 190 to 7000 feet MSL. Can you temporarily level off at 11,000 feet?

Answer 40

Yes, you may level off at an intermediate altitude, but once you leave that altitude you cannot return to it.

Question 41

When do you begin timing outbound on a procedure turn?

Answer 41

a. Outbound abeam IAF b. Wings-level outbound if you cannot determine abeam

Question 42

You are cleared for the approach at 3000 feet MSL. When can you descend in the holding pattern?

Answer 42

After crossing the IAF (holding fix)

Question 43

You are flying the ILS RWY 15 approach to Kelly AFB. At what altitude would you expect to intercept the ILS glideslope if you fly the approach as depicted?

Answer 43

2400 feet MSL

Question 44

On the GPS display, how do you identify the MAP?

Answer 44

The MAP is the waypoint suffixed with a lower case “m”.

Question 45

How much bank should you use to make corrections on a radar final approach?

Answer 45

Bank angle equal to the number of degrees to be turned, not to exceed half standard rate

Question 46

What is the T-6A configuration and airspeed for an instrument final approach at the FAF? What are the descent rates for nonprecision and precision final approaches?

Answer 46

a. At the FAF: 1) Gear-down 2) Flaps-TO 3) 110 KIAS b. Descent rates on final: 1) Nonprecision 800 – 1000 fpm 2) Precision 400 – 600 fpm

Question 47

At what rate do you transition from instrument to visual references when landing from an instrument approach?

Answer 47

a. At the rate visual references become reliable b. Opposite to rate of transition to instruments during an instrument takeoff

Question 48

What should you do to safely transition to land from the MDA if you are past the VDP with visual glidepath indicators giving you an above glidepath indication?

Answer 48

Accept a long landing. Do not attempt to capture the on-glidepath visual indication by making a large increase in your descent rate.