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MLT-MLS Spring 2022 > Immunology Exam 4 > Flashcards

Immunology Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Primary immunodeficiency disorders are caused by defects in the humoral immunity that include _________ & _________.

A

Complement
&
antibodies (B cells)

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2
Q

Primary immunodeficiency disorders are caused by defects in components of cellular immunity that includes _________ & ________.

A

T cells
&
Phagocytes

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3
Q

Phagocytes and complement are a part of what type of immunity?

A

Natural Immunity

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4
Q

T cells and antibodies (B cells) are a part of what type of immunity?

A

Acquired immunity

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5
Q

Immunodeficiency disorders that are X-linked affect primarily what gender?

A

Males

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6
Q

What is the primary symptom present with patients that have immunodeficiency disorders?

A

Recurrent infections

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7
Q

This B cell deficiency causes pyogenic bacterial infections - especially in the upper and lower respiratory tract.
-There is not enough or any production of antibodies to specific antigens.

A

Agammaglobulinemia

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8
Q

Immunoglobulin blood levels vary with age in normal individuals.
At birth we have low levels of ___ & ___ but adult levels of ___ because they come from the mom.

A

Low levels of IgA and IgM
adult levels of IgG that cross the placenta from mom

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9
Q

Immunoglobulin blood levels vary with age in normal individuals.

At 2-3 months, what happens to IgG?

A

IgG drops as maternal antibodies are metabolized

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10
Q

What immunodeficiency disorder usually corrects itself by 9-15 months of age?

A

Transient Hypogammaglobulinemia of Infancy

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11
Q

This immunodeficiency disorder is X-linked causing it to be seen almost exclusively in males. Development is blocked at the pro-B-cell stage. The blocked development causes no antibodies to be made.

A

X-linked Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia

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12
Q

Cause of X-linked Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia

A

Deficiency of enzyme Bruton’s tyrosine kinase

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13
Q

Deficiency of enzyme Bruton’s tyrosine kinase results in a failure of what not being added to heavy chain rearrangement?

A

Variable gene

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14
Q

With this immunodeficiency disorder patients may have recurrent otitis and areas of cellulitis in the diaper area. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococcus aureus may be isolated from the skin lesions.

A

X-linked Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia

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15
Q

What is the most common primary immunodeficiency?

A

IgA Deficiency

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16
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

Most patients with IgA deficiency are asymptomatic

A

TRUE

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17
Q

How is IgA deficiency typically discovered?

A

A patient with IgA deficiency forms Anti-IgA antibodies that cause anaphylaxis following a blood transfusion

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18
Q

What immunodeficiency is a result of having a normal number of mature B cells but they cannot differentiate into plasma cells for a variety of reasons?

A

Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)

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19
Q

The following are manifestations of which immunodeficiency:

  • Malabsorption
  • Diarrhea
  • Malignancies
  • Autoimmune disorders
A

Common Variable Immunodeficiency
(CVI)

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20
Q

A patient between the ages 20 & 30 that has a low serum IgG with recurrent bacterial infections.

What immunodeficiency is this?

A

Common Variable Immunodeficiency
(CVI)

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21
Q

B cell deficiencies:

Slow development of the immune system that subsides around 2 years old

A

Transient hypogammaglobulinemia

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22
Q

B cell deficiencies:

  • Development of B cells arrested at pro to pre-B cell
  • Deficiency in enzyme results in failure of VH gene rearrangement
A

X-linked Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

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23
Q

B cell deficiencies:

  • Antibodies to IgA form
  • Most common deficiency
  • Blood transfusion anaphylaxis
A

IgA deficiency

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24
Q

B cell deficiencies:

  • Development arrested at mature B cell, differentiation to plasma cells isn’t possible
  • Hypogammaglobulinemia results
A

Common variable immunodeficiency

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25
Q

Which type of immunity deficiencies have manifestations of recurrent infections with intracellular pathogens such as viruses, fungi (Candida), and intracellular bacteria?

A

Cellular immunity deficiency
(T cells)

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26
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

T cell deficiencies affect cellular immunity but can also affect humoral immunity

A

TRUE

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27
Q

Which are more difficult to manage:

Cellular immunity deficiencies

or

Humoral immunity deficiencies?

A

Cellular immunity deficiencies

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28
Q

Developmental abnormality of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches that develop in the neck region.

A

DiGeorge Anomaly/Syndrome

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29
Q

What is missing in most patients with DiGeorge Anomaly?

A

Portion of chromosome 22 on the QII region

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30
Q

DiGeorge Anomaly causes and insufficient number of what cells? Why?

A

T cells - maturation occurs in the thymus but DiGeorge Anomaly affects the thymus and other neck region organs/structures

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31
Q

What is the treatment for DiGeorge Anomaly?

A

Fetal thymus and bone marrow transplant along with thymic hormones to stimulate the thymus

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32
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

Purine-nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency is rare autosomal recessive deficiency that can cause UTIs and Candida infections

A

TRUE

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33
Q

Which immunodeficiency causes the number of T cells to decrease as toxic purine metabolite deoxyguanine triphosphate accumulates?

A

Purine-nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP) deficiency

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34
Q

Infants with this deficiency are often confused with having neonatal HIV infection due to their symptom similarities.

A

PNP defieciency

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35
Q

What are the T-cell deficiencies discussed?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome/Anomaly

Purine-nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP) deficiency

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36
Q

What are the B-cell deficiencies discussed?

A

X-linked Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

Transient hypogammaglobulinemia

Common variable immunodeficiency (CVI)

IgA deficiency

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37
Q

Most severe of the congenital immune deficiencies

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency

SCID

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38
Q

Which for of SCID is the most common?

A

X-linked SCID

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39
Q

What occurs in X-linked SCID?

A
  • *-Normal signaling between cells is affected and halts maturation
  • T cells, B cells, and NK cells are affected**
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40
Q

Deficiency similar to PNP. Toxic accumulation of purines in lymphoid cells impairs the proliferation of both B and T cells.

A

Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA)

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41
Q

Name other variety of defect grouped under SCID

A

-Autosomal recessive SCID: Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA)

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42
Q

Syndrome in which a patients presents with immunodeficiency, eczema, and thrombocytopenia

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS)

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43
Q

Cause of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

A

X-linked protein defect

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44
Q

Severe deficiency of the naturally occurring antibodies to blood group antigens (isohemagglutinins)

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS)

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45
Q

DEFINITION:

Muscle incoordination

A

Ataxia

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46
Q

DEFINITION:

Capillary dilation

A

Telangiectasis

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47
Q

Defect in TCR and Ig gene recombination process that is autosomal recessive

A

Ataxia-Telangiectasia (AT)

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48
Q

First line of defense against infections, effective ingesting/killing, involved in antibody mediated killing.

A

Neutrophils

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49
Q

Treatment of this neutrophil defect involves granulocyte transfusions, cytokine administration, and bone marrow transplantation.

A

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

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50
Q

This disease is the result of several neutrophil defects and death usually occurs in childhood typically because of infection.

A

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

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51
Q

This neutrophil defect increases susceptibility to candidiasis and is the most common neutrophil abnormality. No treatment is needed in most cases of this deficiency.

A

Myeloperoxidase deficiency (MPO)

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52
Q

What causes Leukocyte adhesion molecule deficiency?

A

Defect in adhesion receptors for PMNs, monocytes, and T cells.

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53
Q

Abnormal adhesion, motility, chemotaxis, and endocytosis due to a defect in adhesion receptors

A

Leukocyte adhesion molecule deficiency

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54
Q

Delayed wound healing and chronic skin infections are manifestations of which neutrophil deficiency?

A

Leukocyte adhesions molecule deficiency

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55
Q

Hodgkin’s disease that results in the patient developing Herpes Zoster is an example of what?

A

Secondary immune deficiency

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56
Q

Which of the following are primary immunodeficiency defects:

  • Chronic granulomatous disease
  • SCID
  • Myeloperoxidase deficiency
  • DiGeorge Syndrome
  • IgA deficiency
A
  • *-SCID
  • DiGeorge Syndrome
  • IgA deficiency**
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57
Q

What are secondary immunodeficiency defects associated with? (10)

A
  • *-Infections
  • Malignancies
  • Immunosuppressive agents
  • Burns
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Malnutrition
  • Surgical procedures/trauma
  • Renal malfunction
  • Aging
  • Alcoholic cirrhosis**
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58
Q

How many types of hypersensitivity are there?

A

4

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59
Q

DEFINITION:

Immune response which harms the host/self

A

Hypersensitivity

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60
Q

Immediate hypersensitivity

A

Type I

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61
Q

Antibody-Mediated Diseases

A

Type II

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62
Q

Immune Complex-Mediated Diseases

A

Type III

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63
Q

T-Cell Mediated (Delayed) Diseases

A

Type IV

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64
Q

Which of the hypersensitivities are considered immediate?

A

Type I

Type II

Type III

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65
Q

Symptoms develop within what timeframe for immediate hypersensitivities?

A

Minutes to hours

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66
Q

Which of the hypersensitivities is/are considered delayed?

A

Type IV

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67
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

Immediate hypersensitivity = Antibody mediated

A

TRUE

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68
Q

Antibody mediated hypersensitivity includes what type(s)?

A

Type I, II, and III

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69
Q

Cell-mediated hypersensitivity includes what type(s)?

A

Type IV

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70
Q

Symptoms develop within what timeframe for delayed hypersensitivity?

A

24 - 48 hours after contact with antigen

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71
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

Delayed hypersensitivity = Cell mediated

A

TRUE

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72
Q

What other name is type I hypersensitivity known as?

A

Anaphylactic

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73
Q

What is another name for allergens?

A

Atopic antigens

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74
Q

DEFINITION:

Substances that trigger the formation of IgE

A

Atopic antigens

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75
Q

DEFINITION:

Inherited tendency to respond to naturally occurring allergens with continued production of IgE

A

Atopy

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76
Q

Old name for IgE

A

Reagin

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77
Q

Which T cell regulates IgE production?

A

Th2

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78
Q

Which hypersensitivity:

  1. Allergen activates B cells to form IgE secreting plasma cells
  2. IgE antibodies bind to high-affinity receptors on mast cells and coat the cell (sensitization)
  3. Subsequent exposure to the same allergen leads to crosslinking of bound IgE antibodies on mast cells
  4. Results in the release of granules from mast cell
  5. Chemical mediators are released
A

Type I hypersensitivity

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79
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

Asthma is a Type II hypersensitivity

A

FALSE

Type I

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80
Q

Primary mediator in Type I hypersensitivity

A

Histamine

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81
Q

Secondary mediators for Type I hypersensitivity (4)

A
  • *-Prostaglandins
  • Leukotrines
  • Platelet activating factor (PAF)
  • Cytokines**
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82
Q

Symptoms that occur with Type I hypersensitivity

A
  • *-Wheal and flare
  • Asthma
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Skin eruptions**
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83
Q

Testing methods for Type I hypersensitivity

A
  • *-RIST
  • RAST
  • Skin test**
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84
Q

Test for total IgE

A

RIST: radioimmunosorbent test

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85
Q

Test for level of specific IgE

A

RAST: radioallergosorbent test

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86
Q

RIST is what type of test?

A

Sandwich EIA - competitive

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87
Q

RAST is what kind of test method?

A

ELISA microarray test

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88
Q

Which immunoglobulins cause disease by binding to cell antigens and/or tissue antigens and inducing inflammation in Type II hypersensitivity?

A

IgG or IgM

89
Q

Which hypersensitivity:

  1. Antibodies stimulated by cell antigens (foreign or self)
  2. Antibodies attach to antigen and potnetially fix complement
  3. Possible effects:
    1. Opsonization and subsequent phagocytosis
    2. Binding of complement and lysis of cell antigen
    3. Antibody dependent cell cytotoxicity by some WBCs
    4. Antibody binds to tissue = destroyed
A

Type II hypersensitivity

90
Q

The following are examples of which hypersensitivity:

  • Transfusion reaction
  • Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
  • Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)
A

Type II hypersensitivity

91
Q

What antigen is most commonly involved in severe reactions of HDN?

A

D antigen

92
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

An Rh(-) mothers antibodies will not affect her first Rh(+) child

A

TRUE

93
Q

When does an Rh(-) mother make IgG antibodies against a baby?

A

When exposed to the blood group antigens of an Rh(+) baby

94
Q

When a mother makes IgG antibodies that cross the placenta and destroy fetal RBCs it is known as this disease

A

Hemolytic disease of newborn (HDN)

95
Q

What are the different types of autoimmune hemolytic anemia? (4)

A

-Cold autoagglutinins

-Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

-Idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia

-Autoimmune or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

96
Q

What is the usual antibody for cold autoagglutinins?

A

IgM against I/i blood group

97
Q

What antibody is responsible for warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

IgG

98
Q

What infections are associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A
  • *-Infectious mononucleosis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Chronic hepatitis**
99
Q

Antibodies formed to platelets which are then destroyed. Occurs mainly in children following a respiratory viral illness.

A

Autoimmune or Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

100
Q

Autoimmune disease caused by the formation of antibodies to antigens in the kidney resulting in glomerulonephritis.

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

101
Q

Autoimmune disease caused by the formation of antibodies to the thyroid.

A

Hashimoto’s disease

102
Q

Autoimmune disease caused by the formation of antibodies to acetylcholine receptors resulting in no muscle contraction.

A

Myasthenia gravis

103
Q

Formation of antibodies to beta cells of the pancreas

A

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

104
Q

Immunofluorescent stain of IgG to kidney membrane is a testing method used for which autoimmune disease?

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

105
Q

Hypersensitivity type in which antibody binds to antigen on cell surface causing either complement to be fixed, phagocytosis, or antigen dependent cell cytotoxicity - OR - antibody binds to tissue causing damage.

A

Type II hypersensitivity

106
Q

The following are examples of which hypersensitivity?:

  • Transfusion reaction
  • HDN
  • AIHA
  • Goodpasture’s
  • Hashimoto’s
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
A

Type II hypersensitivity

107
Q

What type of testing can be done for type II hypersensitivity?

A
  • *-Blood group antibodies
  • Platelet antibodies
  • Specific antibody​**
108
Q

Hypersensitivity that occurs when patient comes in contact with an allergen

A

Type I

109
Q

Which immunoglobulin is produced in type I hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

110
Q

What cell(s) are a part of type I hypersensitivity?

A

Basophils and Mast cells

111
Q

In Type I hypersensitivity:

Contact with allergen produces ____ antibodies that bind to _______/____ cells that subsequently release ___________ mediators when ___ antibodies are cross-linked.

A

Contact with allergen produces IgE antibodies that bind to Mast cells that subsequently release inflammatory mediators when IgE antibodies are cross-linked.

112
Q

Type ____ hypersensitivity:

Ig__ or Ig__ antibodies bind to cell-bound antigens present on various cell types leading to their destruction.

A

Type II hypersensitivity:

IgM or IgG antibodies bind to cell-bound antigens present on various cell types leading to their destruction.

113
Q

Hypersensitivity:

Antibodies react with soluble antigen; complexes precipitate in tissues

A

Type III hypersensitivity

114
Q

Hypersensitivity:

Sensitized T cells are responsible for symptoms

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

115
Q

Which hypersensitivity is also known as complex mediated hypersensitivity?

A

Type III

116
Q

This classification of hypersensitivity often manifests as vasculitis, arthritis, and nephritis

A

Type III

aka

Complex-mediated hypersensitivity

117
Q

Mediators or anaphylatoxins associated with Type III hypersensitivity

A

C5a

C3a

C4a

118
Q

What do the mediators do in complex-mediated hypersensitivity?

A

Increase vasodilation, vasopermeability, and attract macrophages and neutrophils to the site.

119
Q

Arthus reaction is an example of which hypersensitivity classification?

A

Type III

120
Q

The following are examples of which classification of hypersensitivity?:

  • Arthus reaction
  • Serum sickness
  • Autoimmune diseases such as RA and SLE
  • Associated with the following pathogens: Polyarteritis nodosa and Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
A

Complex mediated hypersensitivity

aka

Type III

121
Q

The following is the mechanism of action for which hypersensitivity class?:

Immune complexes are deposited in tissue and complement is fixed

A

Complex mediated hypersensitivity

aka

Type III

122
Q

What testing is done for type III hypersensitivity?

A

Specific antibody testing (Abys to DNA or nucleohistones for SLE / Rheumatoid Factor for RA)

Immune complexes in tissue

Complement levels

123
Q
  • Arteries inflamed
  • Cause unknown
  • More commonly seen in patients with HBV infection
A

Polyarteritis nodosa

124
Q

Other names for Type IV hypersensitivity

A

Cell Mediated

or

Delayed hypersensitivity

125
Q

Most of the common causes of contact dermatitis are _______

A

Haptens

126
Q

What are some examples of the haptens associated with Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Poison ivy

Poison oak

Poison sumac

Nickel

Rubber

Topical medications

127
Q
  1. Hapten binds to glycoproteins on skin cells
  2. Langerhans cells and macrophages process antigen and present to T cells
  3. T cells (Th1) become sensitized; takes several days and may last for years
  4. Upon repeat exposure, skin eruptions occur
A

Type IV

Delayed

Cell mediated hypersensitivity

128
Q

Treatment for contact dermatitis

A
  • Topical corticosteroids
  • Systemic corticosteroids

and

-Avoid contact with allergen

129
Q

Examples of Type IV hypersensitivity

A

-Contact dermatitis

-Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

-Tuberculin skin test (PPD)

-Granulomatoud hypersensitivity

130
Q

Diseases associated with hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

-Farmer’s lung

-Pigeon breeder’s disease

131
Q

Mechanism of action for cell mediated hypersensitivity

A

Activated T cells

132
Q

Cell bound antibody reacts with antigen to release active substances such as histamine

A

Type I hypersensitivity

aka

Immediate

aka

Anaphylactic

133
Q

Free antibody reacts with antigen on cell surface

A

Type II

aka

Free antibody

134
Q

Antibody reacts with soluble antigen and complexes precipitate in tissues

A

Type III hypersensitivity

aka

Immune complex

135
Q

Sensitized T cells responsible for symptoms

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

aka

Cell mediated

136
Q

MHC Class I gene products

A

HLA-A

HLA-B

HLA-C

Sites on chromosome 6

137
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

MHC class I is found on all nucleated cells

A

TRUE

138
Q

Which MHC class is needed for cytotoxic T lymphocytes to interact with target cell?

A

MHC class I

139
Q

MHC Class II gene products

A

HLA-DR

HLA-DP

HLA-DQ

140
Q

Where is MHC class II present?

A

B cells

Macrophages

Dendritic cells

Endothelial cells

(APCs)

141
Q

MCH class II is needed for which cells to interact with APCs and B cells?

A

T helper cells

142
Q

DEFINITION:

Process of substituting or replacing a diseased organ or tissue with a functional one

A

Transplantation

143
Q

DEFINITION:

Transplant tissues or organs

A

Graft

144
Q

What is an autograft?

A

Donor and the host are the same

145
Q

What is an syngraft?

A

Transplant between identical twins

146
Q

Another name for syngraft

A

Isograft

147
Q

What is an allograft?

A

Allogeneic donor

Between 2 individuals of the same species that are genetically different

148
Q

What is the most common type of transplant graft?

A

Allograft

149
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

Transfer of tissue from one species to another

150
Q

Examples of xenografts used in humans

A

-Baboon heart to replace human heart

-Cow or pig valves used to treat aortic or mitral valve defects

151
Q

This type of rejection occurs within minutes to hours after the transplantation

A

Hyperacute

152
Q

When is hyperacute rejection typically observed?

A

Xenograft and ABO incompatibility

153
Q

This graft rejection occurs over days to weeks and may last the life of the graft

A

Acute

154
Q

Which graft rejection is most common during the first year post-transplant?

A

Acute

155
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

Acute involves both cell and antibody mediated immunity.

A

TRUE

156
Q

This graft rejection type occurs months to years after transplant

A

Chronic

157
Q

Which graft rejection type is characterized by fibrosis and arteriosclerosis?

A

Chronic

158
Q

Basic mechanism of acute graft rejection

A

CD4 produces cytokines

CD8 destroys the graft

B cells make antibodies to HLA-DR

159
Q

Basic mechanism of action for hyperacute graft rejection

A

Preexisting antibodies

160
Q

Basic mechanism of action for chronic graft rejection

A

Cell mediated and antibodity mediated immunity

Fibrosis and arteriosclerosis cause loss of elasticity and impaired circulation

161
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

ABO compatibility is required for bone marrow transplants

A

FALSE

162
Q

Test used for the serological detection of class I and II molecules

A

Lymphocytotoxicity test

163
Q

Most sensitive method for MHC class II detection

A

PCR

164
Q

Which transplant type does not need compatibility testing

A

Corneal transplants

165
Q

Bone grafts use a combination of which type of grafts?

A

Autografts and allografts

166
Q

What is the name of the new epidermis that is “grown to order” in the laboratory?

A

Epicel

167
Q

Which organ transplant is most often performed in the U.S.?

A

Kidney

168
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

HLA matching is more important than ABO typing for kidney transplants

A

FALSE

ABO typing must match

169
Q

How long can kidneys tolerate being outside of the body?

A

2 days

170
Q

A heart transplant has to be done within what timeframe?

A

4 hours

171
Q

Which organ transplant requires ABO and HLA-DR to match?

A

Pancreas

172
Q

What is Graft vs host disease?

A

Donor cells attack host cells causing skin leasions, diarrhea, and or jaundice.

Fatal if not treated.

173
Q

This method is being used increasingly more often in place of bone marrow

A

Peripheral blood progenitor (stem) cells

174
Q

Nonspecific immunosuppressive agents:

Decreases expression of IL-2 receptors and cytokine production by T helper cells

A

Cyclosporine

175
Q

Nonspecific immunosuppressive agents:

Prevents cell proliferation

A

Azathioprine

176
Q

Nonspecific immunosuppressive agents:

Anti-inflammatory that affects activated macrophages and decreased expression of HLA antigens

A

Steroids

177
Q

UAMS requirement for Allogeneic bone marrow requires which HLA to match?

A

8 out of 8 for A, B, C, DR

178
Q

What type of transplant occurs between twins?

A

Syngraft

aka

Isograft

179
Q

Interpret the lymphocytotoxicity test result:

anti-B22 + patient cell = blue cells

A

Patient has HLA-B22 on their cells

180
Q

Acute reaction is mediated by ___________ and ____________ and occurs within ______ to ________.

A

Acute reaction is mediated by T cells and antibodies and occurs within days to weeks.

181
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

Successful kidney transplantation requires compatibility between ABO antigens and HLA antigens

A

FALSE

ABO compatibility is required for kidney transplantation

182
Q

DEFINITION:

Our own cells that have grown out of control and are not regulated

A

Tumor

183
Q

DEFINITION:

New uncontrolled growth derived from one’s own tissues

A

Neoplasm

184
Q

DEFINITION:

Abnormal tissue resulting from uncontrolled growth

A

Tumor

185
Q

DEFINITION:

More likely to stop growing spontaneously; tumor is unually confined to a single sight

A

Benign

186
Q

DEFINITION:

Invasive tumor capable of spreading

A

Malignant

187
Q

DEFINITIONS:

Cancer that originated from epithelial cells- occurs most frequently on skin, large intestine, lung, prostate gland, and breast

A

Carcinoma

188
Q

DEFINITION:

Cancer that originates from connective tissue

A

Sarcoma

189
Q

What occurs during angiogenesis?

A

Blood vessels are created in order for tumor cells to continue getting nutrients for proliferation

190
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

Cancer can be the consequence of a failed immune system

A

TRUE

191
Q

What type of cancer is associated with AIDS patients?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

192
Q

What type of cancer is associated with transplant patients?

A

EBV-induced lymphoma

193
Q

DEFINITION:

Cancer producing substances

A

Carcinogens

194
Q

What hormone is associated with endometrial, ovarian, and breast cancer?

A

Increased estrogen levels in endometrial, ovarian, and breast cancer

195
Q

What are examples of chemical carcinogens?

A

Tar, tobacco smoke, and benzene

196
Q

What are examples of physical carcinogens?

A

Ionizing radiation, UV light, and asbestos

197
Q

Viruses that may cause cancer:

EBV + malaria attacks (Africa)

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

198
Q

Viruses that may cause cancer:

EBV + unknown factors (China)

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

199
Q

Viruses that may cause cancer:

HTLV-1
(Human T-Lymphotropic Virus-1)

A

Adult T cell leukemia

200
Q

Viruses that may cause cancer:

HPV
(Human papillomavirus)

A

Cervical cancer

201
Q

Viruses that may cause cancer:

HBV
(Hepatitis B Virus)

A

Primary Hepatoma

202
Q

Viruses that may cause cancer:

Human herpes virus 8

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

203
Q

The original classification of tumor antigens was based on what?

A

Patterns of expression

204
Q

DEFINITION:

Antigens present only on tumor cells

A

Tumor specific antigens

205
Q

What is another name for tumor associated antigens?

A

Tumor markers

206
Q

DEFINITION:

Present on some tumor cells and some normal cells. Many tumor cells do not express unique antigens.

A

Tumor associated antigens

aka

Tumor markers

207
Q

Modern classification of tumor markers is based on what?

A

-Molecular structure

-Source of the antigen

208
Q

DEFINITION:

Genes capable of producing neoplastic transformation

A

Oncogenes

209
Q

Genes that normally inhibit growth of tumors

A

Tumor suppressor genes

210
Q

Mutations in _____ are the most common genetic change associated with cancer

A

p53

211
Q

Oncogene caused by EBV-associated with lymphomas and nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

EBNA-I protein
Epstein Barr virus nuclear antigen 1

212
Q

Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 is associated with what type of cancer?

A

A variant of hairy cell leukemia

213
Q

Antigens expressed in a developing fetus (absent or low in adult)

A

Oncofetal tumor antigens

214
Q
  • Tumor marker found in fetal gut, pancreas, and liver.
  • Associated with cancers in colon, rectum, and others.
  • Promotes binding of tumor cells to one another
A

Carcinoembryonic Antigen
(CEA)

215
Q

Oncofetal tumor antigen secreted by fetal liver and yolk sac cells

  • Replaced in adults by albumin
  • Elevated in patients with liver tumors and germ cell tumors (testicular)
A

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

216
Q

Oncofetal tumor antigen produced by placental cells.

  • Used in men to monitor treatment and recurrence of testicular cancer
  • Has low sensitivity causing many false negatives
A

Human chorionicgonadotropin-beta subunit (BhCG)

217
Q

Tumor marker used to screen for ovarian cancer.
-High false positive results due to pregnancy, menstruation, endometriosis, etc.

A

Cancer antigen-125
(CA-125)

218
Q

Tumor marker used to detect prostate cancer in men older than 50.
Present in normal and malignant cells.
Organ specific, NOT tumor specific

A

Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)

219
Q

Tumor marker used in the diagnosis of medullary thyroid carcinoma.
Hormone (thyroid gland) that helps the body absorb cacium into bones.

A

Calcitonin

MLT-MLS Spring 2022 (14 decks)

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