Immunology Exam 4 Flashcards
1
Q
Primary immunodeficiency disorders are caused by defects in the humoral immunity that include _________ & _________.
A
Complement
&
antibodies (B cells)
2
Q
Primary immunodeficiency disorders are caused by defects in components of cellular immunity that includes _________ & ________.
A
T cells
&
Phagocytes
3
Q
Phagocytes and complement are a part of what type of immunity?
A
Natural Immunity
4
Q
T cells and antibodies (B cells) are a part of what type of immunity?
A
Acquired immunity
5
Q
Immunodeficiency disorders that are X-linked affect primarily what gender?
A
Males
6
Q
What is the primary symptom present with patients that have immunodeficiency disorders?
A
Recurrent infections
7
Q
This B cell deficiency causes pyogenic bacterial infections - especially in the upper and lower respiratory tract.
-There is not enough or any production of antibodies to specific antigens.
A
Agammaglobulinemia
8
Q
Immunoglobulin blood levels vary with age in normal individuals.
At birth we have low levels of ___ & ___ but adult levels of ___ because they come from the mom.
A
Low levels of IgA and IgM
adult levels of IgG that cross the placenta from mom
9
Q
Immunoglobulin blood levels vary with age in normal individuals.
At 2-3 months, what happens to IgG?
A
IgG drops as maternal antibodies are metabolized
10
Q
What immunodeficiency disorder usually corrects itself by 9-15 months of age?
A
Transient Hypogammaglobulinemia of Infancy
11
Q
This immunodeficiency disorder is X-linked causing it to be seen almost exclusively in males. Development is blocked at the pro-B-cell stage. The blocked development causes no antibodies to be made.
A
X-linked Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia
12
Q
Cause of X-linked Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia
A
Deficiency of enzyme Bruton’s tyrosine kinase
13
Q
Deficiency of enzyme Bruton’s tyrosine kinase results in a failure of what not being added to heavy chain rearrangement?
A
Variable gene
14
Q
With this immunodeficiency disorder patients may have recurrent otitis and areas of cellulitis in the diaper area. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococcus aureus may be isolated from the skin lesions.
A
X-linked Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia
15
Q
What is the most common primary immunodeficiency?
A
IgA Deficiency
16
Q
TRUE or FALSE:
Most patients with IgA deficiency are asymptomatic
A
TRUE
17
Q
How is IgA deficiency typically discovered?
A
A patient with IgA deficiency forms Anti-IgA antibodies that cause anaphylaxis following a blood transfusion
18
Q
What immunodeficiency is a result of having a normal number of mature B cells but they cannot differentiate into plasma cells for a variety of reasons?
A
Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVI)
19
Q
The following are manifestations of which immunodeficiency:
- Malabsorption
- Diarrhea
- Malignancies
- Autoimmune disorders
A
Common Variable Immunodeficiency
(CVI)
20
Q
A patient between the ages 20 & 30 that has a low serum IgG with recurrent bacterial infections.
What immunodeficiency is this?
A
Common Variable Immunodeficiency
(CVI)
21
Q
B cell deficiencies:
Slow development of the immune system that subsides around 2 years old
A
Transient hypogammaglobulinemia
22
Q
B cell deficiencies:
- Development of B cells arrested at pro to pre-B cell
- Deficiency in enzyme results in failure of VH gene rearrangement
A
X-linked Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
23
Q
B cell deficiencies:
- Antibodies to IgA form
- Most common deficiency
- Blood transfusion anaphylaxis
A
IgA deficiency
24
Q
B cell deficiencies:
- Development arrested at mature B cell, differentiation to plasma cells isn’t possible
- Hypogammaglobulinemia results
A
Common variable immunodeficiency
25
Which type of immunity deficiencies have manifestations of recurrent infections with intracellular pathogens such as viruses, fungi (*Candida*), and intracellular bacteria?
**Cellular immunity deficiency
(T cells)**
26
TRUE or FALSE:
T cell deficiencies affect cellular immunity but can also affect humoral immunity
**TRUE**
27
Which are more difficult to manage:
Cellular immunity deficiencies
or
Humoral immunity deficiencies?
**Cellular immunity deficiencies**
28
Developmental abnormality of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches that develop in the neck region.
**DiGeorge Anomaly/Syndrome**
29
What is missing in most patients with DiGeorge Anomaly?
**Portion of chromosome 22 on the QII region**
30
DiGeorge Anomaly causes and insufficient number of what cells? Why?
**T cells - maturation occurs in the thymus but DiGeorge Anomaly affects the thymus and other neck region organs/structures**
31
What is the treatment for DiGeorge Anomaly?
**Fetal thymus and bone marrow transplant along with thymic hormones to stimulate the thymus**
32
TRUE or FALSE:
Purine-nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency is rare autosomal recessive deficiency that can cause UTIs and *Candida* infections
**TRUE**
33
Which immunodeficiency causes the number of T cells to decrease as toxic purine metabolite deoxyguanine triphosphate accumulates?
**Purine-nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP) deficiency**
34
Infants with this deficiency are often confused with having neonatal HIV infection due to their symptom similarities.
**PNP defieciency**
35
What are the T-cell deficiencies discussed?
**DiGeorge Syndrome/Anomaly**
**Purine-nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP) deficiency**
36
What are the B-cell deficiencies discussed?
**X-linked Bruton's agammaglobulinemia**
**Transient hypogammaglobulinemia**
**Common variable immunodeficiency (CVI)**
**IgA deficiency**
37
Most severe of the congenital immune deficiencies
**Severe Combined Immunodeficiency**
**SCID**
38
Which for of SCID is the most common?
**X-linked SCID**
39
What occurs in X-linked SCID?
* *-Normal signaling between cells is affected and halts maturation
- T cells, B cells, and NK cells are affected**
40
Deficiency similar to PNP. Toxic accumulation of purines in lymphoid cells impairs the proliferation of both B and T cells.
**Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA)**
41
Name other variety of defect grouped under SCID
**-Autosomal recessive SCID:** **Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA)**
42
Syndrome in which a patients presents with immunodeficiency, eczema, and thrombocytopenia
**Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS)**
43
Cause of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
**X-linked protein defect**
44
Severe deficiency of the naturally occurring antibodies to blood group antigens (isohemagglutinins)
**Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS)**
45
DEFINITION:
Muscle incoordination
**Ataxia**
46
DEFINITION:
Capillary dilation
**Telangiectasis**
47
Defect in TCR and Ig gene recombination process that is autosomal recessive
**Ataxia-Telangiectasia (AT)**
48
First line of defense against infections, effective ingesting/killing, involved in antibody mediated killing.
**Neutrophils**
49
Treatment of this neutrophil defect involves granulocyte transfusions, cytokine administration, and bone marrow transplantation.
**Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)**
50
This disease is the result of several neutrophil defects and death usually occurs in childhood typically because of infection.
**Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)**
51
This neutrophil defect increases susceptibility to candidiasis and is the most common neutrophil abnormality. No treatment is needed in most cases of this deficiency.
**Myeloperoxidase deficiency (MPO)**
52
What causes Leukocyte adhesion molecule deficiency?
**Defect in adhesion receptors for PMNs, monocytes, and T cells.**
53
Abnormal adhesion, motility, chemotaxis, and endocytosis due to a defect in adhesion receptors
**Leukocyte adhesion molecule deficiency**
54
Delayed wound healing and chronic skin infections are manifestations of which neutrophil deficiency?
**Leukocyte adhesions molecule deficiency**
55
Hodgkin's disease that results in the patient developing Herpes Zoster is an example of what?
**Secondary immune deficiency**
56
Which of the following are primary immunodeficiency defects:
- Chronic granulomatous disease
- SCID
- Myeloperoxidase deficiency
- DiGeorge Syndrome
- IgA deficiency
* *-SCID
- DiGeorge Syndrome
- IgA deficiency**
57
What are secondary immunodeficiency defects associated with? (10)
* *-Infections
- Malignancies
- Immunosuppressive agents
- Burns
- Diabetes mellitus
- Malnutrition
- Surgical procedures/trauma
- Renal malfunction
- Aging
- Alcoholic cirrhosis**
58
How many types of hypersensitivity are there?
**4**
59
DEFINITION:
Immune response which harms the host/self
**Hypersensitivity**
60
Immediate hypersensitivity
**Type I**
61
Antibody-Mediated Diseases
**Type II**
62
Immune Complex-Mediated Diseases
**Type III**
63
T-Cell Mediated (Delayed) Diseases
**Type IV**
64
Which of the hypersensitivities are considered _immediate_?
**Type I**
**Type II**
**Type III**
65
Symptoms develop within what timeframe for immediate hypersensitivities?
**Minutes to hours**
66
Which of the hypersensitivities is/are considered _delayed_?
**Type IV**
67
TRUE or FALSE:
Immediate hypersensitivity = Antibody mediated
**TRUE**
68
Antibody mediated hypersensitivity includes what type(s)?
**Type I, II, and III**
69
Cell-mediated hypersensitivity includes what type(s)?
**Type IV**
70
Symptoms develop within what timeframe for delayed hypersensitivity?
**24 - 48 hours after contact with antigen**
71
TRUE or FALSE:
Delayed hypersensitivity = Cell mediated
**TRUE**
72
What other name is type I hypersensitivity known as?
**Anaphylactic**
73
What is another name for allergens?
**Atopic antigens**
74
DEFINITION:
Substances that trigger the formation of IgE
**Atopic antigens**
75
DEFINITION:
Inherited tendency to respond to naturally occurring allergens with continued production of IgE
**Atopy**
76
Old name for IgE
**Reagin**
77
Which T cell regulates IgE production?
Th2
78
Which hypersensitivity:
1. Allergen activates B cells to form IgE secreting plasma cells
2. IgE antibodies bind to high-affinity receptors on mast cells and coat the cell (sensitization)
3. Subsequent exposure to the same allergen leads to crosslinking of bound IgE antibodies on mast cells
4. Results in the release of granules from mast cell
5. Chemical mediators are released
**Type I hypersensitivity**
79
TRUE or FALSE:
Asthma is a Type II hypersensitivity
**FALSE**
**Type I**
80
Primary mediator in Type I hypersensitivity
**Histamine**
81
Secondary mediators for Type I hypersensitivity (4)
* *-Prostaglandins
- Leukotrines
- Platelet activating factor (PAF)
- Cytokines**
82
Symptoms that occur with Type I hypersensitivity
* *-Wheal and flare
- Asthma
- Anaphylaxis
- Skin eruptions**
83
Testing methods for Type I hypersensitivity
* *-RIST
- RAST
- Skin test**
84
Test for total IgE
**RIST: radioimmunosorbent test**
85
Test for level of specific IgE
**RAST: radioallergosorbent test**
86
RIST is what type of test?
**Sandwich EIA - competitive**
87
RAST is what kind of test method?
**ELISA microarray test**
88
Which immunoglobulins cause disease by binding to cell antigens and/or tissue antigens and inducing inflammation in Type II hypersensitivity?
**IgG or IgM**
89
Which hypersensitivity:
1. Antibodies stimulated by cell antigens (foreign or self)
2. Antibodies attach to antigen and potnetially fix complement
3. Possible effects:
1. Opsonization and subsequent phagocytosis
2. Binding of complement and lysis of cell antigen
3. Antibody dependent cell cytotoxicity by some WBCs
4. Antibody binds to tissue = destroyed
**Type II hypersensitivity**
90
The following are examples of which hypersensitivity:
- Transfusion reaction
- Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
- Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)
**Type II hypersensitivity**
91
What antigen is most commonly involved in severe reactions of HDN?
**D antigen**
92
TRUE or FALSE:
An Rh(-) mothers antibodies will not affect her first Rh(+) child
**TRUE**
93
When does an Rh(-) mother make IgG antibodies against a baby?
**When exposed to the blood group antigens of an Rh(+) baby**
94
When a mother makes IgG antibodies that cross the placenta and destroy fetal RBCs it is known as this disease
**Hemolytic disease of newborn (HDN)**
95
What are the different types of autoimmune hemolytic anemia? (4)
**-Cold autoagglutinins**
**-Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia**
**-Idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia**
**-Autoimmune or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)**
96
What is the usual antibody for cold autoagglutinins?
**IgM against I/i blood group**
97
What antibody is responsible for warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
**IgG**
98
What infections are associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
* *-Infectious mononucleosis
- Cytomegalovirus
- Chronic hepatitis**
99
Antibodies formed to platelets which are then destroyed. Occurs mainly in children following a respiratory viral illness.
**Autoimmune or Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)**
100
Autoimmune disease caused by the formation of antibodies to antigens in the kidney resulting in glomerulonephritis.
**Goodpasture's syndrome**
101
Autoimmune disease caused by the formation of antibodies to the thyroid.
**Hashimoto's disease**
102
Autoimmune disease caused by the formation of antibodies to acetylcholine receptors resulting in no muscle contraction.
**Myasthenia gravis**
103
Formation of antibodies to beta cells of the pancreas
**Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus**
104
Immunofluorescent stain of IgG to kidney membrane is a testing method used for which autoimmune disease?
**Goodpasture's syndrome**
105
Hypersensitivity type in which antibody binds to antigen on cell surface causing either complement to be fixed, phagocytosis, or antigen dependent cell cytotoxicity - OR - antibody binds to tissue causing damage.
**Type II hypersensitivity**
106
The following are examples of which hypersensitivity?:
- Transfusion reaction
- HDN
- AIHA
- Goodpasture's
- Hashimoto's
- Myasthenia gravis
- Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
**Type II hypersensitivity**
107
What type of testing can be done for type II hypersensitivity?
* *-Blood group antibodies
- Platelet antibodies
- Specific antibody**
108
Hypersensitivity that occurs when patient comes in contact with an allergen
**Type I**
109
Which immunoglobulin is produced in type I hypersensitivity?
**IgE**
110
What cell(s) are a part of type I hypersensitivity?
**Basophils and Mast cells**
111
In Type I hypersensitivity:
Contact with allergen produces ____ antibodies that bind to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_/\_\_\_\_ cells that subsequently release ___________ mediators when ___ antibodies are cross-linked.
**Contact with allergen produces _IgE antibodies_ that bind to _Mast cells_ that subsequently release inflammatory mediators when _IgE_ antibodies are cross-linked.**
112
Type ____ hypersensitivity:
Ig\_\_ or Ig\_\_ antibodies bind to cell-bound antigens present on various cell types leading to their destruction.
**Type II hypersensitivity:**
**_IgM_ or _IgG_ antibodies bind to cell-bound antigens present on various cell types leading to their destruction.**
113
Hypersensitivity:
Antibodies react with soluble antigen; complexes precipitate in tissues
**Type III hypersensitivity**
114
Hypersensitivity:
Sensitized T cells are responsible for symptoms
**Type IV hypersensitivity**
115
Which hypersensitivity is also known as complex mediated hypersensitivity?
**Type III**
116
This classification of hypersensitivity often manifests as vasculitis, arthritis, and nephritis
**Type III**
**aka**
**Complex-mediated hypersensitivity**
117
Mediators or anaphylatoxins associated with Type III hypersensitivity
**C5a**
**C3a**
**C4a**
118
What do the mediators do in complex-mediated hypersensitivity?
**Increase vasodilation, vasopermeability, and attract macrophages and neutrophils to the site.**
119
Arthus reaction is an example of which hypersensitivity classification?
**Type III**
120
The following are examples of which classification of hypersensitivity?:
- Arthus reaction
- Serum sickness
- Autoimmune diseases such as RA and SLE
- Associated with the following pathogens: Polyarteritis nodosa and Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
**Complex mediated hypersensitivity**
**aka**
**Type III**
121
The following is the mechanism of action for which hypersensitivity class?:
Immune complexes are deposited in tissue and complement is fixed
**Complex mediated hypersensitivity**
**aka**
**Type III**
122
What testing is done for type III hypersensitivity?
**Specific antibody testing (Abys to DNA or nucleohistones for SLE / Rheumatoid Factor for RA)**
**Immune complexes in tissue**
**Complement levels**
123
- Arteries inflamed
- Cause unknown
- More commonly seen in patients with HBV infection
**Polyarteritis nodosa**
124
Other names for Type IV hypersensitivity
**Cell Mediated**
**or**
**Delayed hypersensitivity**
125
Most of the common causes of contact dermatitis are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
**Haptens**
126
What are some examples of the haptens associated with Type IV hypersensitivity?
**Poison ivy**
**Poison oak**
**Poison sumac**
**Nickel**
**Rubber**
**Topical medications**
127
1. Hapten binds to glycoproteins on skin cells
2. Langerhans cells and macrophages process antigen and present to T cells
3. T cells (Th1) become sensitized; takes several days and may last for years
4. Upon repeat exposure, skin eruptions occur
**Type IV**
**Delayed**
**Cell mediated hypersensitivity**
128
Treatment for contact dermatitis
- Topical corticosteroids
- Systemic corticosteroids
and
-Avoid contact with allergen
129
Examples of Type IV hypersensitivity
**-Contact dermatitis**
**-Hypersensitivity pneumonitis**
**-Tuberculin skin test (PPD)**
**-Granulomatoud hypersensitivity**
130
Diseases associated with hypersensitivity pneumonitis
**-Farmer's lung**
**-Pigeon breeder's disease**
131
Mechanism of action for cell mediated hypersensitivity
**Activated T cells**
132
Cell bound antibody reacts with antigen to release active substances such as histamine
**Type I hypersensitivity**
**aka**
**Immediate**
**aka**
**Anaphylactic**
133
Free antibody reacts with antigen on cell surface
**Type II**
**aka**
**Free antibody**
134
Antibody reacts with soluble antigen and complexes precipitate in tissues
**Type III hypersensitivity**
**aka**
**Immune complex**
135
Sensitized T cells responsible for symptoms
**Type IV hypersensitivity**
**aka**
**Cell mediated**
136
MHC Class I gene products
**HLA-A**
**HLA-B**
**HLA-C**
**Sites on chromosome 6**
137
TRUE or FALSE:
MHC class I is found on all nucleated cells
**TRUE**
138
Which MHC class is needed for cytotoxic T lymphocytes to interact with target cell?
**MHC class I**
139
MHC Class II gene products
**HLA-DR**
**HLA-DP**
**HLA-DQ**
140
Where is MHC class II present?
**B cells**
**Macrophages**
**Dendritic cells**
**Endothelial cells**
**(APCs)**
141
MCH class II is needed for which cells to interact with APCs and B cells?
**T helper cells**
142
DEFINITION:
Process of substituting or replacing a diseased organ or tissue with a functional one
**Transplantation**
143
DEFINITION:
Transplant tissues or organs
**Graft**
144
What is an autograft?
**Donor and the host are the same**
145
What is an syngraft?
**Transplant between identical twins**
146
Another name for syngraft
**Isograft**
147
What is an allograft?
**Allogeneic donor**
**Between 2 individuals of the same species that are genetically different**
148
What is the most common type of transplant graft?
**Allograft**
149
What is a xenograft?
**Transfer of tissue from one species to another**
150
Examples of xenografts used in humans
**-Baboon heart to replace human heart**
**-Cow or pig valves used to treat aortic or mitral valve defects**
151
This type of rejection occurs within minutes to hours after the transplantation
**Hyperacute**
152
When is hyperacute rejection typically observed?
**Xenograft and ABO incompatibility**
153
This graft rejection occurs over days to weeks and may last the life of the graft
**Acute**
154
Which graft rejection is most common during the first year post-transplant?
**Acute**
155
TRUE or FALSE:
Acute involves both cell and antibody mediated immunity.
**TRUE**
156
This graft rejection type occurs months to years after transplant
**Chronic**
157
Which graft rejection type is characterized by fibrosis and arteriosclerosis?
**Chronic**
158
Basic mechanism of acute graft rejection
**CD4 produces cytokines**
**CD8 destroys the graft**
**B cells make antibodies to HLA-DR**
159
Basic mechanism of action for hyperacute graft rejection
**Preexisting antibodies**
160
Basic mechanism of action for chronic graft rejection
**Cell mediated and antibodity mediated immunity**
**Fibrosis and arteriosclerosis cause loss of elasticity and impaired circulation**
161
TRUE or FALSE:
ABO compatibility is required for bone marrow transplants
**FALSE**
162
Test used for the serological detection of class I and II molecules
**Lymphocytotoxicity test**
163
Most sensitive method for MHC class II detection
**PCR**
164
Which transplant type does not need compatibility testing
**Corneal transplants**
165
Bone grafts use a combination of which type of grafts?
**Autografts and allografts**
166
What is the name of the new epidermis that is "grown to order" in the laboratory?
**Epicel**
167
Which organ transplant is most often performed in the U.S.?
**Kidney**
168
TRUE or FALSE:
HLA matching is more important than ABO typing for kidney transplants
**FALSE**
**ABO typing _must match_**
169
How long can kidneys tolerate being outside of the body?
**2 days**
170
A heart transplant has to be done within what timeframe?
**4 hours**
171
Which organ transplant requires ABO and HLA-DR to match?
**Pancreas**
172
What is Graft vs host disease?
**Donor cells attack host cells causing skin leasions, diarrhea, and or jaundice.**
**Fatal if not treated.**
173
This method is being used increasingly more often in place of bone marrow
**Peripheral blood progenitor (stem) cells**
174
Nonspecific immunosuppressive agents:
Decreases expression of IL-2 receptors and cytokine production by T helper cells
**Cyclosporine**
175
Nonspecific immunosuppressive agents:
Prevents cell proliferation
**Azathioprine**
176
Nonspecific immunosuppressive agents:
Anti-inflammatory that affects activated macrophages and decreased expression of HLA antigens
**Steroids**
177
UAMS requirement for Allogeneic bone marrow requires which HLA to match?
**8 out of 8 for A, B, C, DR**
178
What type of transplant occurs between twins?
**Syngraft**
**aka**
**Isograft**
179
Interpret the lymphocytotoxicity test result:
anti-B22 + patient cell = blue cells
**Patient has HLA-B22 on their cells**
180
Acute reaction is mediated by ___________ and ____________ and occurs within ______ to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
**Acute reaction is mediated by _T cells_ and _antibodies_ and occurs within _days_ to _weeks_.**
181
TRUE or FALSE:
Successful kidney transplantation requires compatibility between ABO antigens and HLA antigens
**FALSE**
**ABO compatibility is required for kidney transplantation**
182
DEFINITION:
Our own cells that have grown out of control and are not regulated
**Tumor**
183
DEFINITION:
New uncontrolled growth derived from one's own tissues
**Neoplasm**
184
DEFINITION:
Abnormal tissue resulting from uncontrolled growth
**Tumor**
185
DEFINITION:
More likely to stop growing spontaneously; tumor is unually confined to a single sight
**Benign**
186
DEFINITION:
Invasive tumor capable of spreading
**Malignant**
187
DEFINITIONS:
Cancer that originated from epithelial cells- occurs most frequently on skin, large intestine, lung, prostate gland, and breast
**Carcinoma**
188
DEFINITION:
Cancer that originates from connective tissue
**Sarcoma**
189
What occurs during angiogenesis?
**Blood vessels are created in order for tumor cells to continue getting nutrients for proliferation**
190
TRUE or FALSE:
Cancer can be the consequence of a failed immune system
**TRUE**
191
What type of cancer is associated with AIDS patients?
**Kaposi's sarcoma**
192
What type of cancer is associated with transplant patients?
**EBV-induced lymphoma**
193
DEFINITION:
Cancer producing substances
**Carcinogens**
194
What hormone is associated with endometrial, ovarian, and breast cancer?
**Increased estrogen levels in endometrial, ovarian, and breast cancer**
195
What are examples of chemical carcinogens?
**Tar, tobacco smoke, and benzene**
196
What are examples of physical carcinogens?
**Ionizing radiation, UV light, and asbestos**
197
Viruses that may cause cancer:
EBV + malaria attacks (Africa)
**Burkitt's lymphoma**
198
Viruses that may cause cancer:
EBV + unknown factors (China)
**Nasopharyngeal carcinoma**
199
Viruses that may cause cancer:
HTLV-1
(Human T-Lymphotropic Virus-1)
**Adult T cell leukemia**
200
Viruses that may cause cancer:
HPV
(Human papillomavirus)
**Cervical cancer**
201
Viruses that may cause cancer:
HBV
(Hepatitis B Virus)
**Primary Hepatoma**
202
Viruses that may cause cancer:
Human herpes virus 8
**Kaposi's sarcoma**
203
The original classification of tumor antigens was based on what?
**Patterns of expression**
204
DEFINITION:
Antigens present only on tumor cells
**Tumor specific antigens**
205
What is another name for tumor associated antigens?
**Tumor markers**
206
DEFINITION:
Present on some tumor cells and some normal cells. Many tumor cells do not express unique antigens.
**Tumor associated antigens**
**aka**
**Tumor markers**
207
Modern classification of tumor markers is based on what?
**-Molecular structure**
**-Source of the antigen**
208
DEFINITION:
Genes capable of producing neoplastic transformation
**Oncogenes**
209
Genes that normally inhibit growth of tumors
**Tumor suppressor genes**
210
Mutations in _____ are the most common genetic change associated with cancer
**p53**
211
Oncogene caused by EBV-associated with lymphomas and nasopharyngeal carcinoma
**EBNA-I protein
Epstein Barr virus nuclear antigen 1**
212
Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 is associated with what type of cancer?
**A variant of hairy cell leukemia**
213
Antigens expressed in a developing fetus (absent or low in adult)
**Oncofetal tumor antigens**
214
- Tumor marker found in fetal gut, pancreas, and liver.
- Associated with cancers in colon, rectum, and others.
- Promotes binding of tumor cells to one another
**Carcinoembryonic Antigen
(CEA)**
215
Oncofetal tumor antigen secreted by fetal liver and yolk sac cells
- Replaced in adults by albumin
- Elevated in patients with liver tumors and germ cell tumors (testicular)
**Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)**
216
Oncofetal tumor antigen produced by placental cells.
- Used in men to monitor treatment and recurrence of testicular cancer
- Has low sensitivity causing many false negatives
**Human chorionicgonadotropin-beta subunit (BhCG)**
217
Tumor marker used to screen for ovarian cancer.
-High false positive results due to pregnancy, menstruation, endometriosis, etc.
**Cancer antigen-125
(CA-125)**
218
Tumor marker used to detect prostate cancer in men older than 50.
Present in normal and malignant cells.
Organ specific, NOT tumor specific
**Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)**
219
Tumor marker used in the diagnosis of medullary thyroid carcinoma.
Hormone (thyroid gland) that helps the body absorb cacium into bones.
**Calcitonin**
