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MLT-MLS Spring 2022 > Immunology Exam 1 > Flashcards

Immunology Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the #1 cause of overpopulation?

A

Vaccines

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2
Q

Definition:
Injecting an antigen to cause immunity by inducing a protective immune response against a specific organism or its associated toxin prior to the encounter with the pathogen

A

Immunization/Vaccination

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3
Q

Definition:
The study of host reactions when foreign substances are introduced

A

Immunology

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4
Q

The “Founder of Immunology”

A

Edward Jenner

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5
Q

When was the first recorded theory of acquired immunity? By who?

A

Recorded between 865-932

By Rhazes.

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6
Q

When was the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine developed? Who developed it?

A

Developed in 2005

By Ian Frazer.

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7
Q

What is immunity?

A
  • *The ability of an organism to resist a particular infection or toxin by the action of specific antibodies or sensitized white blood cells
  • Oxford dictionary**
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8
Q

Definition:
Study of non-cellular components in the blood (antigen & antibody)

A

Serology

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9
Q

Also known as an immunogen

A

Antigen

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10
Q

A “foreign” substance that induces an immune response

A

Antigen (immunogen)

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11
Q

Also known as an immunoglobulin

A

Antibody

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12
Q

A glycoprotein that is made in response to an antigen

A

Antibody (immunoglobulin)

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13
Q
  • Antibody binding site
  • Single antigen site
  • Signals antigen for destruction
A

Epitope

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14
Q

All of the following are examples of what?

  • Pneumonia
  • Tetanus
  • Amoebas
  • Candida
A

Extracellular bacteria, parasites, and fungi

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15
Q

All of the following are examples of what?

  • Leprosy
  • Malaria
  • Leishmaniasis
A

Intracellular bacteria and parasites

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16
Q

Smallpox, varicella (chickenpox), and influenza are all examples of what?

A

Viruses

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17
Q

What are some examples of parasitic worms the immune system may have to fight off?

A
  • Ascaris lumbricoides
  • Schistosomiasis
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18
Q

All of the following are main concepts of immunology EXCEPT:

  1. Distinguish between self and non-self
  2. Three overlapping systems
  3. Specificty
  4. Diversity
  5. Clonal Selection
  6. Memory
  7. Regulation
A

2. Three overlapping systems

There are TWO overlapping systems

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19
Q

What does immunological homeostasis confer?

A

Immunological homeostasis confers health by responding and controlling infection with moderation

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20
Q

Hyporeactivity with immunological homestasis could result in which of the following:

  1. Systemic autoimmunity
  2. Allergies
  3. Asthma
  4. T-cell dysfunction
A

4. T-cell dysfunction

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21
Q

Hypereactivity with immunological homeostasis could result in all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. Systemic autoimmunity
  2. Organ-specific autoimmunity
  3. Pathogen-induced pathology
  4. Antibody deficiency
  5. Allergies and asthma
A

4. Antibody deficiency

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22
Q

When does hyporeactivity occur with immunological homeostasis?

A

When a particular immune response or function is ABSENT from the host.

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23
Q

SCID- Severe combined immunodeficieny is an example of what type of immmunological homeostasis reaction?

A

Hyporeactivity

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24
Q

HIV/AIDS causes the destruction of which type of cell?

A

CD4+ T helper cells

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25
Q

What are some examples of an immunological homeostasis hypereactive response? (Specifically given in powerpoint)

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Allergies
  • Multiple myeloma
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26
Q

What are the 2 overlapping systems for immunology?

A
  1. Innate/Natural
  2. Adaptive/Acquired
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27
Q

Name the system:

  • “Non-specific”
  • Always present in healthy individual
  • First line of defense
A

Innate/Natural

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28
Q

Name the system:

  • “Specific”
  • Stimulated by microbes that invade tissue
  • Involves lymphocytes and their products
A

Adaptive/Acquired

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29
Q

Also known as Natural immune system

A

Innate immune system

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30
Q

Also known as the Acquired immune system

A

Adaptive immune system

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31
Q
  • Very primitive
  • Found in most multicellular animals
  • Rapid response
  • Does not exhibit memory
  • Same response every time
A

Natural/Innate immune system

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32
Q
  • Found only in vertebrates (fish, amphibians, birds, and mammals)
  • Must be induced
  • Induces immunological memory
  • Has 2 types: humoral and cell-mediated
  • Two ways of getting it: active and passive
A

Acquired/Adaptive immune system

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33
Q

What type of Acquired Immunity is the following:

  • B-lymphocytes are involved
  • Produces antibodies
  • Neutralized and eliminates extracellular microbes/microbial toxins
A

Humoral Immunity

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34
Q

What type of Acquired immunity is the following:

  • Involves T-lymphocytes
  • Produces cytokines and other substances
  • Activates phagocytes to destroy intracellular microbes
A

Cell-mediated immunity

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35
Q

Acquired immunity that is developed due to infection or vaccination

A

Active immunity

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36
Q

This acquired immunity is transferred from a source to an individual in need of products - such as from mom to baby

A

Passive immunity

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37
Q

These cells have immunoglobulins attached to their membranes allowing cross-linking of antibody and antigen

A

B-lymphocytes

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38
Q

T-lymphocytes have what on them allowing interaction of many surface proteins?

A

TCR - T cell receptor

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39
Q

B-lymphocytes differentiate into what cell(s)?

A

-Plasma cells

-B memory cells

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40
Q

T-lymphocytes differentiate in to what cell(s)?

A

-Activated T cells

-T memory cells

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41
Q

When lymphocytes undergo clonal selection, what are the steps? (3)

A

-Activation

-Proliferation

-Differentiation

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42
Q

Plasma cells are also known as?

A

Effector cells

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43
Q

Secondary immune response is also known as?

A

Anamnestic response

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44
Q

1st exposure to an antigen is known as _______ _________

A

Primary response

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45
Q

This immune response is mediated by memory lymphocytes

A

Anamnestic/Secondary response

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46
Q

Elimination, permanent inactivation, and inhibition are all a part of the __________ of the immune system. This controls and inhibits self-reactive or over-reactive lymphocytes

A

Regulation

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47
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

The immune response that causes immunity is associated with natural immunity

A

FALSE: Acquired immunity

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48
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

A key characteristic of acquired immunity is being antigen specific

A

TRUE

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49
Q

Defends againt intracellular microbes through lymphocytes and their products

A

Cell-mediated

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50
Q

Immediately protects the newborn

A

Passive immunity

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51
Q

Occurs as a response to 1st exposure to antigen

A

Primary response

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52
Q

Activation, proliferation, differentiation

A

Clonal Selection

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53
Q

Born with, non-specific

A

Natural immunity

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54
Q

Mediated by memory lymphocytes

A

Secondary response

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55
Q

Must be induced, specific, adapts to defend

A

Acquired immunity

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56
Q

Defends against extracellular microbes, mainly through antibodies

A

Humoral immunity

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57
Q

Can be induced by a vaccine

A

Active immunity

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58
Q

What is the T-helper cells typical pathogen?

A

Phaagocytized microbes

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59
Q

What is the typical pathogen that T-cytolytic cells fight against in adaptive immunity?

A

Intracellular microbes

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60
Q

What is the typical pathogen for B cells with regards to adaptive immunity?

A

Extracellular microbes

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61
Q

What is the function of T-helper cells in adaptive immunity?

A

T-helper cells activate macrophages

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62
Q

What is the function of T-cytoloytic cells in adaptive immunity?

A

T-cytolytic cells kill infected cells

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63
Q

What is the function of B cells in humoral immunity?

A

The antibodies produced by B cells block infections and eliminate organisms

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64
Q

How does “non-specific” immunity directly recognize and protect the host?

A

Innate/Natural immunity

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65
Q

Name the 2 main types of T cells

A

-T helper cell (Th)

-T cytolytic cell (Tc)

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66
Q

What is the external defense mechanism function? Examples?

A

Designed to keep microorganisms at bay and impedes entry into the body.

-Benign/normal flora

-Skin

-Lysozyme

-Acid pH in stomach

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67
Q

What is the internal defense mechanism function? Examples?

A

Deals with breach of any barrier through different mechanisms.

-Inflammatory response

-Phagocytic/endocytic

-Cells (PMNs, Macrophages, Lymphocytes, etc)

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68
Q

Normal microbial flora competes for nutrients and space in and on the body. This is an example of what defense mechanism?

A

External defense mechanism

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69
Q

This defense mechanism provides physical and chemical barriers to protect common portals of microbial entry through the skin and mucous membranes

A

External defense mechanism

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70
Q

External defense:

When this increases is causes the break down of protein in bacteria impairing their ability to multiply.

A

Temperature

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71
Q

External Defense:

-This is found in the stomach, urine, vagina, and skin and inhibits microbes.

A

Low (acidic) pH

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72
Q

Tears from the eyes come from what glands? What substances are in tears?

A

-Lacrimal glands

-Contain: lysozyme, IgA, IgG, and antimicrobial peptides

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73
Q

Ears have what type of glands? What substances come from these?

A

-Sebaceous glands

-Oily waxy secretion, fatty acids

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74
Q

The mouth contains what type of glands? What substances are secreted from the salivary glands?

A

Salivary glands

  • *-Digestive enzymes
  • Lysozyme
  • IgA
  • IgG
  • Lactoferrin**
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75
Q

The skin has was type of glands?
What do these glands secrete?

A
  • *Sweat glands
  • Lysozyme
  • high NaCl
  • Short-chain fatty acids**
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76
Q

What is in the gastric juice in our stomachs that aids in immune defense?

A

Gastric juices contain digestive enzymes (pepsin and renin) and acid (low pH between 1-2).

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77
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

The stomach contains sebaceous glands that secrete fatty acids (sebum)

A

TRUE

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78
Q

Cardinal signs of inflammatin (4)

A

-Rubor (redness)

-Tumor (swelling)

-Dolore (pain)

-Calore (heat)

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79
Q

What is Rubor?

A

Also known as redness or erythema. Inflamed tissue appears red due to dilation of small blood vessels within damaged area.

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80
Q

What is Calore?

A

Also known as heat. Vascular dilation and increased blood flow (hyperemia) chemical mediators lead to systemic fever.

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81
Q

What is Tumor (inflammation process)?

A

Also known as swelling or edema. Extravascular fluid accumulation as part of fluid exudate and physical mass of cells migrating to the area.

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82
Q

What is Dolore?

A

Also known as pain. The stretching/distortion of tissues by edema, pus pressure and also due to chemical mediators (such as serotonin).

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83
Q

What is the most common cell associated with Acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophil (PMN, Poly, Seg)

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84
Q

This type of inflammatory response is typically a quick reaction and short-lived

A

Acute inflammation

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85
Q

This type of inflammatory response is typically prolonged and may adversely affect function.

A

Chronic inflammation

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86
Q

What cell type(s) is associated with chronic inflammation?

A

Macrophages and lymphocytes

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87
Q

What are the steps in the inflammation sequence of events? (4)

A
  • *1. Increased blood supply
    2. Increased vascular permeability
    3. Influx of phagocytes**
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88
Q

What causes the first step in the sequence of events for inflammation? (Increased blood supply)

A
  • *Increased blood supply is due to dilation of blood vessels (vasodilation)
  • chemical mediators (such as histamine) from injured cells
  • Causes redness and heat (Rubor & Calore)**
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89
Q

What causes increased vascular permeability in the inflammation sequence of events?

A
  • *Caused by retraction of endothelial cells lining blood vessels
  • Allows fluid in plasma to leak to tissues
  • Causes swelling and pain (Tumor and Dolore)**
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90
Q

Why is there an influx of phagocytes in the final sequence of events for inflammation?

A
  • *As endothelial cells retract, PMNs move from the vessels in to tissues via diapedesis. They are attracted to the site of injury/infection by chemotaxins.
  • PMNs mobilize first (within 30-60 minutes)
  • Several hours later, macrophages will arrive to “clean up”**
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91
Q

What are acute phase reactants?

A
  • *-Normal serum constituents
  • MOST ARE MADE IN THE LIVER
  • Nonspecific response
  • Increase rapidly with infection, surgery, or other trauma
  • Ex. Complement and C-Reactive Protein**
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92
Q

This is the most widely used indicator of acute inflammation.
Opsonizes by coating foreign particles and activates complement. Increases rapidly within 4-6 hours after stimulus.
Peak within 24-72 hours
High-sensitivity test is useful for predicting a healthy person’s risk of cadiovascular disease.

A

C-Reactive Protein

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93
Q

What does it mean to opsonize?

A

Enhance phagocytosis

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94
Q

What is complement?

A

A group of ~25 serum proteins that is typically inactive under normal circumstances.
At activation, each component acts on the next in a specific sequence. (Complement Cascade)

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95
Q

This is a very powerful Innate Mechanism

A

Complement

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96
Q

What are the functions of complement? (3)

A
  • *-Direct cytolysis of foreign organisms
  • Opsonization
  • Directs phagocytes**
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97
Q

Functions of CRP? (2)

A
  • *-Opsonization
  • Complement activation**
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98
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Secreted proteins that act as chemical messengers

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99
Q

TRUE or FALSE

Cytokines are plieotropic (multiple functions)

A

TRUE

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100
Q

What are the 3 functions of cytokines in the Natural Immune System?

A

1. Stimulates inflammation

2. Activate cells - Natural Killer cells & macrophages

3. Prevent viral infections (interferon)

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101
Q

What are different names for cytokines? (5)

A

-Chemokines

-Interleukins (IL)

-Interferon (INF)

-Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

-Colony stimulating factors (CSF)

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102
Q

What are the most important phagocytic cells? (4)

A

Neutrophils

Monocytes

Macrophages

Dendritic

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103
Q

Phagocytes come into contact with pathogens through what process?

A

Chemotaxis

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104
Q

What are the 2 most important chemotactic factors?

A

1. Proteins from bacteria

2. Compement components (C3a & C3b)

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105
Q

Two major opsonins dealing with phagocytic pathogen recognition

A

1. C3b (PMNs and macrophages have receptors)

2. Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

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106
Q

Sequence of events for phagocytes to be successful

A

1. Physical contact

2. Phagosome formation

3. Phagolysosome formation

4. Exocytosis

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107
Q

Definition:

Structure formed by the fusion of cytoplasmic granules and phagosome

A

Phagolysosome

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108
Q

Phagosome sequence of events:

This is due to chemotaxis and opsonins

A

Physical contact

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109
Q

Phagosome sequence of events:

This is the formation of vacuole within cell as its pseudopod surrounds a particle.

A

Phagosome formation

110
Q

Pagosome sequence of events:

Excretion of material after digestion by enzymes (releasing remains from cells)

A

Exocytosis

111
Q

What are the following examples of?:

Mucus secretions

Cilia

Antimicrobial substances (such as lysozyme)

Acidic pH (stomach, vagina, urine, and skin)

Normal microbial flora

A

External defense mechanisms

112
Q

What are immune system cells derived from?

A

Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells

113
Q

What cell line is a part of Innate immunity?

A

Myeloid cells:

Neutrophils

Eosinophils

Basophils/Mast cells

Monocytes/Macropahges/Dendritic cells

114
Q

Why are neutrophils considered the “marines” of phagocytic cells?

A

-1st to arrive and try to get the situation under control

115
Q

Most important phagocytes (4)

A

Neutrophils

Macrophages

Dendritic Cells

Natural Killer Cells

116
Q

Name the cell

Effector Function:

Phagocytosis and digestion of microbes

A

Neutrophil

117
Q

Name the cell

Effector function:

Immediate hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions; Defense against helminths

A

Eosinophil

118
Q

Name the cell

Effector function:

Immediate hypersensitivity reactions (allergic)

119
Q

Name the cell

Effector function:

Tissue specific immediate hypersensitivity reactions (allergic)

120
Q

Name the cell

Effector function:

Circulating macrophage precursor

121
Q

Name the cell

Effector function:

Tissue specific phagocytosis and digestion of microbes; antigen presentation to T-cells

A

Macrophage

122
Q

Name the cell:

Effecto function:

Tissue specific antigen presentation to naive T-cells; initiation of adaptive responses

A

Dendritic cells

123
Q

Macrophage in lungs

A

Alveolar macrophage

124
Q

Macrophage in the liver

A

Kupffer cells

125
Q

Macrophage in the brain

A

Microglial cell

126
Q

Macrophage in connective tissue

A

Histocytes

127
Q

Most important functions of eosinophils

A

1. Neutralize basophil and mast cell products (after allergic reactions and clean up)

2. Kill some parasites

128
Q

Mast cells can live how long?

A

9-18 months

129
Q

What enzymes are included in mast cells?

A

Acid phosphatase

Alkaline phosphatase

Proteases

130
Q

“Macrophage precursor”

131
Q

Antigen presenting cells to T-helper lymphocytes

A

Macrophages

132
Q

Specialized phagocytic cell

Actively motile, continuously sample surroundings by endocytic processes (phagocytosis).

Antigen presenting cell (APC)

Very efficiently active T-cells

Can dictate T-cell development to control responses to antigens

A

Dendritic cells

133
Q

Kills microbe infected cells without using antigen specific receptors

A

Natural Killer Cells

134
Q

TRUE or FALSE

Natural Killer cells are part of the Innate immune system

135
Q

TRUE or FALSE

Natural Killer Cells are part of myeloid morphology

A

FALSE

Monocytic

136
Q

Langerhans’ cells is another name for what type of cell?

A

Dendritic cell

137
Q

Receptors on WBC cell surfaces recognize BROAD structures or motifs that are primitive.

A

TLR

Toll-like Receptors

138
Q

Most potent phagocytic cell in tissue

A

Dendritic cell

139
Q

Kills infected cells without using antigen receptors

A

Natural Killer Cells

140
Q

Enters tissue and specializes

ex. Microglial cells

A

Macrophage

141
Q

1st phagocytic cell to reach “battle field”

A

Neutrophils

AKA

PMNs, Polys, Segs

142
Q

Associated with hypersensitivity reactions, short lived

143
Q

APC that circulates before migrating from blood to tissue

144
Q

Associated with allergies/parasitic infection

A

Eosinophil

145
Q

Found on mucose membranes and skin, coated with IgE

146
Q

Acquired immune response depends on what?

A

Lymphocytes - B and T

Antigen presenting cells- APCS (bring antigens)

147
Q

What cells are APCs?

A

Macrophages

Dendritic Cells

Some B-cells

148
Q

Main role of APCs

A

Present antigens to antigen sensitive lymphocytes

149
Q

Which lymphocyte provide immunoregulation and cell mediated immunity?

150
Q

Which lymphocyte provide antibody production (humoral immunity)?

151
Q

Where are lymphocytes produced?

A

Bone marrow

152
Q

What is the only cell capable of producing antibodies?

A

B lymphocytes

153
Q

These cells mediate humoral immunity

A

B lymphocytes

154
Q

What is the antigen receptor on the surface of B lymphocytes?

155
Q

What is a memory cell?

A

An antigen of protein variety

156
Q

When a naive B cell binds to antigen what 2 steps occur?

A

1. Proliferation- cells start dividing

2. Differentiation- B cells become memory cells or effector cells (plasma cells)

157
Q

This cells key role is in cell-mediated immunity

A

T lymphocytes

158
Q

Mature T cells have these on them

A

TCR (T-cell Receptors)

159
Q

What is a t-cell receptor?

A

Unique receptor on T lymphocytes that recognizes antigen in association with Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

160
Q

This cell interacts with APCs to become activated and becomes an effector cell that secretes cytokines

A

T helper cells

161
Q

This cell is influenced by T helper cells. They recognize and eliminate cells infected with microbes or tumors.

A

T cytotoxic cells (Tc)

162
Q

Tc effector cells

A

Cytolytic or Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

163
Q

Antigen receptor for B cells is ___________

Antigen receptor for T cells is ___________

A

B cells - ANTIBODY

T cells - T Cell Receptor (TCR)

164
Q

Cells for HUMORAL immunity

A

B lymphocytes

165
Q

Cells for CELL MEDIATED immunity

A

T lymphocytes

166
Q

Antigen receptor of B lymphocytes

167
Q

Antigen receptor on T lymphocytes

168
Q

What does a plasma cell produce?

A

Antibodies

169
Q

What do T helper cells produce?

170
Q

What do Tc cells do?

A

Kill altered cells

171
Q

This system is specialized connective tissue and organs where major cellular components are organized.

It is the physical location for interaction between leukocytes and APCs.

It is the site where immune responses are initiated and developed.

Contains high numbers of lymphocytes that mediate responses (Cellular immunity & Humoral immunity)

A

Lymphoid System

172
Q

Name the cell type:

Key cells in acquired immune response

20-50% of circulating WBCs

A

Lymphocytes

173
Q

Where do B lymphocytes mature?

A

Bone marrow

174
Q

Site of T lymphocyte maturation

175
Q

Where do mature B lymphocytes circulate?

A

Blood -> lymph nodes and spleen -> recirculation

176
Q

Where to T lymphocytes circulate?

A

Blood and lymph -> mucosal and cutaneous lymphoid tissue -> recirculate

177
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A

Fetal liver

Adult bone marrow

Thymus gland

178
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Spleen

Lymph nodes

Aggregates of cells in MALT and CALT (Mucosal/Cutaneous Associate Lymphoid Tissue)

179
Q

T and B cells are _________ in the primary lymphoid organs

180
Q

These lymphoid organs are involved in the initiation of immune responses

A

Secondary lymphoid organs:

Spleen

Lymph nodes

MALT

CALT

181
Q

Center for antigen-_independent_ lymphopoiesis

A

Bone marrow

182
Q

Site for B cell maturation

A

Bone marrow

183
Q

Site for T cell maturation

184
Q

Center for antigen-_dependent_ lymphopoiesis

A

Secondary lymphoid organs:

Spleen

Lymph nodes

CALT

MALT

185
Q

Main sites for production of antibodies and induction of antigen-specific T lymphocytes

A

Secondary lymphoid organs:

Spleen

Lymph nodes

MALT

CALT

186
Q

Route of circulation for B and T cell migration

A

Blood -> Secondary lyphoid tissue -> Lymphatics -> Thoracic duct -> Blood stream

187
Q

Where are B and T cells born?

A

Bone marrow

188
Q

Largest secondary organ

189
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

Removes old/defected cells using macrophages

190
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

Contains lymphoid tissue

Site of antibody production/ antigen-specific T cells

A

White pulp

191
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

White pulp is mostly in this area

A

PeriArteriolar Lymphoid Sheath (PALS)

192
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

These cells are located in the central zone close to dendritic cells (APCs)

A

T cell lymphocytes

193
Q

What do antigen stimulated T cells produce?

A

Effector T cells

&

Memory cells

194
Q

What do Effector T cells produce?

A

Cytokines/killer cells

195
Q

Purpose of memory cells produced by antigen-stimulated T cells

A

Prepared to produce cytokines/killer cells

196
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

These cells are located in the marginal zone of PALS, usually in follicles

A

B cell lymphocytes

197
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

Which B cells are in primary follicles of the marginal zone?

A

Unstimulated B cells

198
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

Which B cells are in secondary follicles in the marginal zone of the spleen?

A

Stimulated B cells

199
Q

Type of cells produced by antigen-stimulated B cells

A

Plasma cells

&

Memory cells

200
Q

Purpose of Plasma cells

A

Produce antibodies

201
Q

Purpose of Memory B cells

A

Prepared to produce antibodies

202
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

Location of T lymphocytes

A

PALS - central

203
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

Location of activated B lymphocytes

A

Secondary follicles

204
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

Location of B lympocytes

A

PALS - marginal

205
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

Location of PALS

A

White pulp

206
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

Removes RBCs

207
Q

Spleen Structure and Function:

Location of naive B lymphocytes

A

Primary follicles

208
Q

Small ovoid structures that filter lymph fluid for antigens and is the site of antigen-lymphocyte interaction

A

Lymph nodes

209
Q

The ______ of lymph nodes is located around the periphery and has a concentration of B cells

210
Q

The ________ of lymph nodes is located between follicles and the medulla. It is the site of T cells

A

Paracortex

211
Q

Location of MALT

A

GI

Respiratory tract

Urogenital tract

Peyer’s Patches

Tonsils

212
Q

Location of CALT

A

Under skin epithelia

213
Q

TRUE or FALSE

All immunogens are antigens, not all antigens are immunogens

214
Q

Substance that induces an immune response through the creation of antibodies and cellular response

215
Q

Substance that interacts with antibodies or sensitized cells but may not be able to evoke an immune response

216
Q

DEFINITION:

Self or host antigens; normally do not elicit immune response

A

Autoantigens

217
Q

DEFINITION:

Different individuals within the same species

Due to genetic variances, immune response may be elicited

Ex. blood transfusion reactions

A

Alloantigens

218
Q

DEFINITION:

An antigen originating from a species foreign to the antibody producer

Individual will form an immune response

A

Heteroantigen

219
Q

Best type of immunogen because the structure is complex

220
Q

Less immunogenic because structure is simple

A

Carbohydrate

221
Q

Linear epitope

A

Sequence of amino acids on a chain

222
Q

Conformational epitope

A

Folding of chains allowing non-sequential amino acids in close proximity

223
Q

These cells react with linear and conformational epitopes

224
Q

These cells only recognize epitopes together with MHC molecule

225
Q

For these cells, epitopes must be present on the surface

226
Q

For these cells, epitope can be found anywhere on the “invading” organism

227
Q

DEFINITION:

Substances that are usually non-immunogenic

Can elicit an immune response only when they form a complex with a larger (carrier) molecule

228
Q

DEFINITION:

Substance administered with a vaccine to increase the immune response

Produces local inflammatory response

Attracts immune cells to injection site

229
Q

What are host antigens called?

A

Autoantigens

230
Q

Antigens derived from individuals of the same species

A

Alloantigens

231
Q

Antigens derived from different species

A

Heteroantigens

232
Q

TRUE or FALSE

A immunogen will be more effective if it DOES include a hapten but DOES NOT include an adjuvant

A

FALSE

Should include an adjuvant and NOT a hapten

233
Q

DEFINITION:

Secreted proteins that act as chemical messengers

234
Q
  • Pleiotropic
  • Glycopeptides
  • Made by a variety of cells
  • Prevent viral infections
  • Important inflammation agents
  • Communicatino between cells
235
Q

This cytokine affects the same cell that secreted it

236
Q

This cytokine affects a target cell in close proximity

237
Q

This cytokine has a systemic action (distant cells)

238
Q

This cytokine type acts as messengers between WBCs

A

Interleukin (IL)

239
Q

This cytokine type is the 1st found to interfere with viral replication

A

Interferon

240
Q

What are the 3 different interferons?

A

Alpha

Beta

Gamma

241
Q

What does IFN-gamma do?

A

Activates macrophages

242
Q

What are IFN-alpha and IFN-beta?

A

Antiviral cytokines

243
Q

DEFINITION:

Type of cytokines that stimulate the WBC movement

Regulate the migration of WBCs from blood to site of infection

A

Chemokines (Chemotactic cytokines)

244
Q

This Interleukin is a pyrogen produced by monocytes and macrophages that induces fever by stimulation of the hypothalamus, induces production of colony stimulating factors, and induces production of chemokines and IL-6

A

Interluekin-1 (IL-1)

245
Q

IL-1alpha location

A

Remains intracellular

246
Q

IL-1Beta location

A

Systemic- cleaved intracellularly and then secreted across the membrane

247
Q

This is an antagonist cytokine that blocks IL-1 receptor

248
Q

This cytokine has an important part of acute phase reaction and adaptive immune response and is triggered by IL-1

A

Interleukin-6 (IL-6)

249
Q

This cytokines major source is macrophages

It can activate T cells to respond to a pathogen

Its most prominent member causes vasodilation and increased vasopermeability

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

250
Q

High levels of this cytokine can cause sever pathology such as decreased blood pressure, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), or even septic shock.

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

251
Q

Also known as T-cell growth factor

A

Interleukin-2 (IL-2)

252
Q

Cytokine that activates naive T helper cells into Th2

A

Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

253
Q

Cytokine that links T cell activation and eosinophilic inflammation.

Produced by Th2 cell and mast cells

Stimulates growth, differentiation and activation of eosinophils

A

Interleukin-5 (IL-5)

254
Q

Cytokine that is an anti-inflammatory and suppressive cytokine (down-regulator)

Has major role in suppression of IFN-gamma

A

Interleukin-10 (IFN-10)

255
Q

This cytokine activate macrophages

Mainly produced by Th1 cells

Helps regulate Th1, Tc, and NK cells

Stimulates antigen presentation by MHCI and MHCII

A

Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)

256
Q

This interleukin drives stem cells into lymphocyte differentiation

A

Interleukin-3 (IL-3)

257
Q

Cytokines:

Natural defense again gram negative bacteria

A

TNF - Tumor Necrosis Factor

258
Q

Cytokines:

Antiviral action

A

Interferon (alpha and beta)

259
Q

Cytokines:

Regulation of WBCs from blood to tissue

A

Chemokines

260
Q

Cytokines:

Stimulates hematopoiesis

A

Erythropoietin

261
Q

DEFINITION:

Strands of DNA that carry all the genes, with 23 pairs in each human cell

A

Chromosomes

262
Q

DEFINITION:

A unit of genetic material that codes for hereditary traits

263
Q

DEFINITION:

The position of a gene on a chromosome

264
Q

DEFINITION:

A different form of a gene that codes for a slightly different form of the same product

265
Q

DEFINITION:

A set of genes that are located close together on a chromosome and are usually inherited as a single unit

266
Q

DEFINITION:

Variability at a gene locus in which the variants occur at a frequency of >1%

A

Genetic polymorphism

267
Q

This is the most polymorphic gene cluster known in humans

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

268
Q

Used to present antigen to T cells

Found on all nucleated cells

Pivotal role in development of humoral and cell-mediated immunity

A

MHC - Major Histocompatibility Complex

269
Q

Where are the genes for MHC located?

A

Chromosome 6

270
Q

Class I MHC are located on which loci?

271
Q

Class II MHC are located on which loci?

A

DP, DQ, DR

MLT-MLS Spring 2022 (14 decks)

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