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MLT-MLS Spring 2022 > Immunology Exam 3 > Flashcards

Immunology Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Ability of a particular antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another

A

Specificity

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2
Q

What does antibody specificity depend on?

A

Homologous antigen

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3
Q

The antigen that induces a specific antibody to be produced is known as

A

Homologous antigen

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4
Q

Two or more antibodies interacting with structurally similar antigens

A

Cross-reactivity

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5
Q

“Initial force of attraction that exists between an antibody Fab site and one epitope”

A

Affinity

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6
Q

What are the 4 types of noncovalent bonds can occur between antigens and antibodies?

A
  • Ionic
  • Hydrogen
  • Hydrophobic
  • van der Waals forces
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7
Q

The sum of all the attractive forces between an antibody and an antigen

A

Avidity

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8
Q

The force that keeps the molecules together

A

Avidity

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9
Q

What law states that free reactants are in equilibrium with bound reactants?

A

Law of Mass Action

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10
Q

The Rate of association will have what end product(s)?

A

An Antigen-Antibody complex

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11
Q

The Rate of dissociation will have what end product(s)?

A

A separated, free Antigen and free Antibody

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12
Q

K1 / K2 = ?

A

Keq

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13
Q

What does Keq measure?

A

The “perfect” fit - more complexes are formed while less are dissociating to free antigens and antibodies

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14
Q

DEFINITON:

Tendency of a particular antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another

A

Specificity

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15
Q

DEFINITION:

Antibodies which interact with structurally similar antigens

A

Cross-reactivity

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16
Q

DEFINITION:

Initial attraction between an Fab site and one epitope

A

Affinity

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17
Q

DEFINITION:

Sum of all antibody-eiptope pairs

A

Avidity

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18
Q

What are the three phases in which antibody-antigen interactions occur?

A

1) Primary
2) Secondary
3) Tertiary

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19
Q

What happens during the primary phase of antibody-antigen interaction?

A

The initial antibody-antigen binding

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20
Q

What occurs during the secondary phase of antibody-antigen interaction?

A

Aggregation of complexes to produce precipitation or agglutination (lattice formation)

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21
Q

What occurs during the tertiary phase of antibody-antigen interaction?

A

Reaction of body to immune complexes, such as inflammation, phagocytosis, etc

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22
Q

What occurs when antibodies and particulate antigens cross-link to form large, visible lattices?

A

Agglutination

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23
Q

What ways can we perform agglutination testing?

A
  • Tube method
  • Microtiter plate
  • Slide
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24
Q

Tube method agglutination:

What grade would give one solid clump?

A

4+

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25
Q

Tube method agglutination:

What grade would result as several large clumps?

A

3+

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26
Q

Tube method agglutination:

What grade would result in numerous smaller clumps?

A

2+

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27
Q

Tube method agglutination:

What grade would barely discernable clumps be?

A

1+

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28
Q

Tube method agglutination:

What would a negative result be described as?

A

A smooth suspension, no clumping.

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29
Q

TRUE or FALSE

Antigens and antibodies do not have to have multiple binding sites

A

FALSE:

They must have multiple binding sites in order to interconnect/cross-link

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30
Q

What is zone of equivalence?

A

The number of antigens and antibodies are roughly equal to each other

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31
Q

What is prozone?

A

An excess of antibodies

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32
Q

What is postzone?

A

Too many antigens

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33
Q

What could happen if testing is performed in a prozone or postzone?

A

False-negative reactions

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34
Q

What is the first step for agglutination testing in the lab?

A

Sensitization - initial immunoglobulin binding.

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35
Q

Why is IgM used more often in agglutination?

A

It has 10 binding sites - more than the other immunoglobulins

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36
Q

What is the second step for agglutination testing in the lab?

A

Lattice formation - rearragement of antigen and antibody to form a stable lattice

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37
Q

This immunoglobulin reacts best between 30-37C

A

IgG

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38
Q

IgG is considered a _______ antibody

A

Warm antibody

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39
Q

This immunoglobulin reacts best between 4-27C

A

IgM

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40
Q

IgM is considered a ______ antibody

A

Cold antibody

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41
Q

Lattice formation is ideal in what pH?

A

6.7 - 7.2

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42
Q

What is the zeta potential?

A

Electrical charges on particles causing like particles to repel each other

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43
Q

TRUE or FALSE:
The following are ways to enhance lattice formation:

  • Agitation of particles
  • Centrifugation: forcing particles together
  • Ionic strength saline
  • Albumin
A

TRUE

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44
Q

What is direct agglutination used to detect?

A

Either antigens or antibodies

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45
Q

Term used for agglutination when RBCs are involved

A

Hemagglutination

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46
Q

Major difference between direct agglutination and passive agglutination

A

In direct agglutination, the target antigen or antibody is found naturally on tested particles.

In passive agglutination, antigens are put on carrier particles to improve the visibility of reactions.

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47
Q

Other names for passive agglutination

A

Indirect or particle agglutination

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48
Q

What is something we typically use passive latex agglutination to test for?

A

Rheumatoid factor - an autoantibody (anti-IgM) to the Fc portion of IgG

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49
Q

What is a positive passive latex agglutination test to Rheumatoid factor is associated with?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis and other autoimmune diseases

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50
Q

What does this image refer to?

A

Passive agglutination

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51
Q

Carrier particles used in passive hemagglutination

A

RBCs

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52
Q

Agglutination process in which antibodies are put on carrier particles in order to detect an antigen

A

Reverse passive agglutination

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53
Q

One of the main reasons we use reverse passive agglutination in the lab

A

To detect bacterial and fungal antigens in body fluids

-such as C. neoformans in CSF

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54
Q

What can cause a false positive reaction with reverse passive agglutination? Why?

A

Rheumatoid factor because the auto-antibody IgM will bind with the IgG antibodies on the carrier particles.

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55
Q

What does this picture depict?

A

Reverse Passive Agglutination

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56
Q

Difference between reverse passive agglutination and reverse passive hemagglutination

A

Reverse passive HEMagglutination uses RBCs as the carrier particle that the known antibody is attached to

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57
Q

Instance in which reverse passive hemagglutination is utilized in the lab

A

HBsAg detection

58
Q

In this process, the carrier particle is a bacterial cell - typically Staph aureus - and the antibody is known.

A

Coagglutination

59
Q

Why is Staphylococcus aureus the most frequently used bacteria for coagglutination?

A

Staphylococcus aureus has a high concentration of protein A in the cell wall allowing natural absorption to the Fc portion of the IgG antibody while keeping the Fab portion available for interaction with antigens

60
Q

What is this image depicting?

A

Coagglutination

61
Q

A lack of agglutination is an indicator of a positive reaction for this test

A

Agglutination inhibition

62
Q

This picture represents what type of testing?

A

Agglutination inhibition

63
Q

Does this image depict a positive or negative result for agglutination inhibition?

A

Negative result - agglutination inhibition is positive when no agglutination happens because patient antigen binds to the antibody being tested for causing the known antigen-coated particles in the test to remain unbound.

64
Q

Does this image depict a positive or negative result?

A

Positive result

65
Q

Type of agglutination testing:

  • Known antibody
  • Carrier particle with test analyte
  • Unknown antigen
A

Agglutination inhibition

66
Q

Type of agglutination testing:

  • Antibody on laten
  • Antigen unknown
A

Reverse passive agglutination

67
Q

Type of agglutination testing:

  • Antibody on bacteria
  • Antigen unknown
A

Coagglutination

68
Q

Type of agglutination testing:

-Identification of antibody of antigen

A

Direct agglutination

69
Q

Type of agglutination testing:

  • Antigen on latex particle
  • Antibody unknown
A

Passive agglutination

70
Q

The presence of cross-reactivity may cause what type of result?

A

False-positive

71
Q

The presence of Rheumatoid factor may cause what type of result?

A

Fals-positive

72
Q

Why would a delay in reading a slide test cause a false-positive?

A

Dried out antigen may look like agglutination

73
Q

Prozone phenomenon may cause what type of result?

A

False-negative

74
Q

Why would prozone phenomenon cause a false-negative result?

A

Too much patient antibody for the test

75
Q

The combination of soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble complexes which are visible refers to what type of testing?

A

Precipitation

76
Q

Measurement of precipitation by light scattering can be done using 2 different methods. What are they?

A

Turbidimetry

and

Nephelometry

77
Q

Name the method:

  • Light is passed through a solution containing antibody and antigen
  • A detection device is placed in direct line with the incident light
  • The detection device measures the decrease in light intensity compared to a blank
A

Turbidimetry

78
Q

Name the method:

  • Measures light scattered at a particular angle from the incident beam
  • The amount of light scattered is an index of the concentration of the solution
A

Nephelometry

79
Q

What method is depicted in the picture?

A

Turbidimetry

80
Q

What method is depicted in the picture?

A

Nephelometry

81
Q

Which is more sensitive: nephelometry or turbidimetry?

A

Nephelometry

82
Q

Precipitation reactions that occur in a support medium such as agar or gel

A

Passive immunodiffusion

83
Q

What method is the picture depicting?

A

Ouchterlony Double Diffusion

84
Q

With Ouchterlony double diffusion, what result means the 2 antigens are the same resulting in the pattern below.

A

Identity

AKA

Arc of identity

85
Q

With Ouchterlony double diffusion, what result means the 2 antigens are completely different, creating crossed lines, like the pattern depicted in the picture?

A

Nonidentity

86
Q

With Ouchterlony double diffusion, what is the result of spur formation like the one depicted in the picture?

A

Partial identity

87
Q

Ouchterlony Double Diffusion:

The arc of identity signifies what type of result?

A

A positive result for the antigen being tested

88
Q

Ouchterlony Double Diffusion:

Crossed lines means what type of result?

A

Negative- the unknown antigen is not the one the same as the known

89
Q

Ouchterlony Double Diffusion:

What is the result of a spur formation?

A

The unknown antigen is not the same as the known but is similar (possibly some “like” epitopes) causing a partial identity.

90
Q

Method of immunoelectrophoresis that is used to quantitate immunoglobulins present in body fluids

A

Rocket Immunoelectrophoresis

91
Q

What is known and what is not known in rocket immunoelectrophoresis?

A

The antibody is known while the antigen is unknown

92
Q

Rocket immunoelectrophoresis utilizes how many controls?

A

3 - low, medium, high antigen content

93
Q

In rocket immunoelectrophoresis, the height of the rocket is ______ proportional to the amount of antigen in the sample

A

Directly proportional - the higher the rocket spike, the more antigen in that sample.

94
Q

This method of electrophoresis uses agarose or cellulose acetate to detect antigen or antibody

A

Immunofixation electrophoresis

95
Q

What disease uses immunofixation electrophoresis for diagnosis?

A

Multiple myeloma

96
Q

When using Western Blot to test for HIV, what bands are we looking for in order to report as positive?

A
  • p 24
  • gp 41
  • gp 120 / gp 160

If at least 2 of these are seen, then the result is positive

97
Q

What is the ionic cloud that prevents RBCs from getting very close to each other?

A

Zeta potential

98
Q

What type of bond uses attraction of oppositely charged particles (postive to negative)?

A

Ionic bond

99
Q

What antigen-antibody phase is the aggregation of complexes to produce precipitation or agglutination?

A

Secondary

100
Q

Antibody-antigen binding is dynamic, reversible, and governed by what?

A

Law of mass action

101
Q

What type of bond is the interaction between electron clouds?

A

Van der Waals forces

102
Q

What type of bond is the interaction between nonpolar molecules except for water molecules?

A

Hydrophobic bond

103
Q

In which antigen-antibody phase does the initial antigen-antibody binding occur?

A

Primary phase

104
Q

Which antigen-antibody phase includes the aggregation of complexes to produce precipitation or agglutination?

A

Secondary phase

105
Q

Which antigen-antibody phase is the body’s reaction to immune compexes?

A

Tertiary phase

106
Q

What type of bond uses hydrogen to bridge between atoms and molecules?

A

Hydrogen bond

107
Q

What is the ionic cloud that surrounds individual RBCs and keeps them from getting really close to each other?

A

Zeta potential

108
Q

Term for when antigen and antibody combine by means of diffusion?

A

Passive immunodiffusion

109
Q

What is the term for the ability of an antibody to combine with one antigen instead of another?

A

Specificity

110
Q

TERM:

When antibodies interact with structurally similar antigens

A

Cross reactivity

111
Q

TERM:

The initial force of attraction between an antibody Fab site and one epitope

A

Affinity

112
Q

Term:

The sum of all attractive forces between antibody-antigen

A

Avidity

113
Q

TERM:

An IgM or large molecular weight molecule

A

Macroglobulin

114
Q

TERM:

Excess antibody

A

Prozone

115
Q

TERM:

Excess antigen

A

Postzone

116
Q

TERM:

Where tests must be performed in order to avoid false negatives

A

Zone of equivalence

117
Q

What occurs during the first phase of agglutination?

A

Sensitization: initial binding of antibody with antigen; binding is reversible

118
Q

What occurs during the second phase of agglutination?

A

Lattice formation: rearrangement of antigen and antibody to form a stable lattice

119
Q

TERM:

When antibodies and particulate antigens cross-link to form visible lattices

A

Agglutination

120
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

Agglutination tests include direct, passive, reverse passive, coagglutination, and agglutination inhibition

A

TRUE

121
Q

Name the agglutination tests that include RBC carriers

(3)

A
  • Direct
  • Passive
  • Reverse passive hemagglutination
122
Q

What testing method detects antibody or antigen; AGN + ABY = clumping

A

Direct agglutination

123
Q

What is a hemagglutination test?

A

Antigens or antibodies attached to red cells

124
Q

What testing procedure includes the following:

  • Antibody is unknown
  • Antigen on latex beads
  • ABY + AGN = clumping
A

Passive latex agglutination

125
Q

Soluble antigen is bound to carrier particles such as latex or charcoal. The carrier particles agglutinate in the presence of corresponding antibody.

A

Passive latex agglutination

126
Q

Autoantibody (anti-IgM) to the Fc portion of IgG

A

Rheumatoid factor

127
Q

What occurs when antibodies and particulate antigens cross-link to for visible lattices?

A

Agglutination

128
Q

What testing procedure includes the following:

  • Antibody is unknown
  • Antigen on latex beads
  • antigen + antibody = clumping
A

Passive latex agglutination

129
Q

TRUE or FALSE:

A positive rheumatoid factor test always indicated the patient has rheumatoid arthritis

A

FALSE: RF can be present in patients with diseases other than rheumatoid arthritis

130
Q

Which testing method includes the following:

  • Antigen in unknown
  • Antibodies are on latex beads
  • Antibody + antigen = clumping
A

Reverse passive latex agglutination

131
Q

What is a problem caused by rheumatoid factor when performing reverse passive agglutination?

A

False positives because RF binds to the known IgG on latex beads

132
Q

Which testing method includes the following:

  • Antibody is unknown
  • Antigens are on RBCs
  • AGN + ABY = clumping
A

Passive hemagglutination

133
Q

Which testing method includes the following:

  • Antigen is unknown
  • Antibodies are on RBCs
  • AGN + ABY = clumping
A

Reverse passive hemagglutination

134
Q

Which testing method includes the following:

  • Antigen unknown
  • Antibodies Fc portion are attached to protein A on Staph aureus
  • AGN + ABY = clumping
A

Coagglutination

135
Q

Which testing method includes the following:

  • Uknown patient antigen and known antibody are incubated together
  • Known antigen on latex particles are added to sample
  • Positive test = NO clumping
  • Negative test = clumping
A

Agglutination inhibition

136
Q

For this test method, lack of agglutination is an indicator of a positive reaction.

A

Agglutination inhibition

137
Q

What do the following represent:

-Prozone, Rheumatoid Factor, & delay in reading a slide test

A

Sources of error associated with agglutination procedures

138
Q

What is the agglutination endpoint (titer) when performing 2-fold dilutions of serum?

A

The highest dilution that shows agglutination

139
Q

What does a 4-fold rise in a patient’s titer mean?

A

Clinically significant. Patient’s condition is getting worse.

140
Q

What is the equation for the law of mass action?

A

Keq

=

K1
________

K2

141
Q
A

MLT-MLS Spring 2022 (14 decks)

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