Immunology - E4 Flashcards

1
Q

Classical Complement System

A
  • series of proteins that mediates host defense against various extracellular pathogens, especially bacteria.
  • activated by Ag-Ab Complexes (both IgG and IgM)
  1. C1q, C1r and C1s bind to the complement binding site on the Fc portion of the antibody molecule (complex= Activated C1)
  2. Activated C1 splits C4 into C4a and C4b
  3. C4b sticks to activated C1 (complex= C14b)
  4. C14b splits C2 –> C2a and C2b (complex=c14b2b)
  5. C14b2b splits C3 –> C3a and C3b (complex=C14b2b3b)
  6. C14b2b3b splits C5 –> C5a and C5b
  7. C6, C7, C8 and C9 bind to C5b –> Membrane Attack Complex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Activated C1

A

Complex formed when C1q, C1r and C1s bind to the complement binding site on the Fc portion of the antibody molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

C14b

A

C4b sticks to the activated C1 and this complex is called C14b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

After C14b is formed

A

C14b splits C2 –> C2a and C2b (complex= C14b2b)

C14b2b splits C3 –> C3a and C3b (complex= C14b2b3b)

The complex of C14b2b3b splits C5 –> C5a and C5b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)

A

C6, C7, C8 and C9 attach to activated C5 –> MAT

  • porates cell membranes causing osmotic disruption and lysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Opsonization

A

Macrophages and neutrophils express a cell-surface receptor, called CRI, which binds to C3b

Microorganisms coated with C3b –> brought into contact with these phagocytic cells where they will be readily phagocytosed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

C3a and C5a functions

A
  1. Chemotaxis (attack phagocytes to site of antigen)
  2. Anaphylatoxin production (degranulate mast cells and basophils –> release histamine and other vasoactive substances that increase capillary permeability, inflammatory response)
    “anaphylatoxins”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

C1-inhibitor (C1-INH)

A

Inhibits the first step in the activation of the classical complement pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alternative Complement Pathway

A

Activated by bacterial or viral products e.g. Lipopolysaccaride (LPS)

Occurs in the absence of specific antibody (thus, and effector arm of the innate immune system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Proteins of the Alternative Complement Pathway

A
  • C3b (generated from the natural breakdown of C3)
  • Factor B
  • Factor D
  • Properdin
  • ^ Together –> generate C3bBbP that splits C3 –> C3a and C3b and continues the complement cascade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Inhibitors of alternative complement pathway

A

Factor H and Factor I are inhibitors of the alternative pathway and regulate the activation of the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lectin pathway

A

Initiated when mannan-binding lectin binds to carbohydrates on the surface of microbes

Important proteins: MBL (Mannose binding lectin)
MASP 1
MASP 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Absence of C1q, C2 or C4

A

Associated with SLE (systemic Lupus Erythematosus) – no recurrent infections, you have other pathways. But have a very high incidence of lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Absence of C3

A

Severe recurrent bacterial infections, no complement system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Absence of C5

A

Bacterial infections (have c3b and c3a, so not as bad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Absence of C6, C7, or C8

A

Overwhelming Neisserial infections (N.meningitidis and N.gonorrhea) These ppl are fine until neisserial infection arises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Absence of alternative pathway components

A

Recurrent bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Absence of Lectin pathway proteins

A

infection in childhood, overcome later in life by Ab/T-cell repertoire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

C1-INH Deficiency

A

Hereditary angioedema
- Uncontrolled C2/C4 cleavage causing localized edema (not itchy, like hypersensitivity), causing increased kinin production (vasodilation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hereditary angioedema

A
  • Rare AD disorder via inherited deficiency or dysfunction of the C1 inhibitor
  • recurrent episodes of angioedema w/o urticaria or pruritus (affects the skin, mucosal tissues, upper respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts)
  • swelling is self-limited, laryngeal involvement may cause fatal asphyxiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

C8 and C9 important functions

A

Lysis of organisms coated with specific antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CRI receptor

A

On macrophages/neutrophils, recognizes C3b for opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T-cell regulation via CTLA-4

A

CTLA-4 is made which competes with CD28 (on T-cell) for B7 (on APC)

Deficiency –> autoimmune disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T-cell regulation via PD-1

A

Programmed death 1 (PD-1) –> inhibitory receptor on cytotoxic T-cells, interacts with PD-L1 (on tumor cells ) and PD-L2 found on dendritic cells and macrophages –> inhibiting immune responses.

Pembrolizumab and nivolumab –> anti-PD-1 checkpoint inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T-cell regulation via activation induced cell death

A

Activated T-cells develop FasL that reacts with Fas normally ALSO present on T cells –> apoptosis of that cell.

T-cells are turned on (making cytokines, killing etc.) then develop fasL and kill themselves (immune response drops)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T-cell regulation via T-reg cells

A

T-reg cells make inhibitory Cytokines IL-10 and TGFβ which inhibit all T-cell functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Immunologic Tolerance

A

Lack of response to a specific antigen

Failure to induce specific immunity to that antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Self-Tolerance

A
  • unresponsiveness to SELF antigens

- occurs in thymus (negative selection) –> “central tolerance”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Peripheral Tolerance Mechanisms

A

To deal with cells that escape central tolerance (self-tolerance)

  1. Clonal deletion: continuous exposure to self-Ag’s, –> continuous stimulation of T-cells –> apoptosis of autoreactive lymphocytes.
    * occurs by the process of activation-induced cell death (Fas-FasL)
    - only deleting the ONE clone
  2. Clonal anergy: absence of co-stimulatory signals, especially B7-CD28)
  • inactivation of T-cells which recognize antigen but are improperly activated due to a lack of adequate co-stimulator molecules on the APC.
    -Autoreactive T-cells do not receive B7-CD28 interaction necessary, and are deleted as nonreactive.
    lymphocytes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fetal tolerance

A

Tolerance is induced more readily in immature lymphocytes

White mouse with black skin transplanted in utero –> tolerant to black skin mouse organs

*Adult tolerance is difficult to produce, need to prevent co-stimulatory signaling (B7-CD28)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Autoimmune disease

A

Immunological response against self antigens due to loss of self-tolerance, may be due to …

  • Failure of negative selection in the thymus
  • Failure of immunological control mechanisms

Problem: Imbalance between immune activation and immune control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

auto-immune hemolytic anemia

A

antibody against her red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How could exposure of hidden antigens give rise to autoimmunity?

A

Exp. sympathetic ophthalmia - Abs to lens proteins after eye damage

Any tissue antigens sequestered from the circulation (not seen by the developing immune system) will not induce self-tolerance. Exposure of mature T cells to such normally sequestered antigens at a later date could result in their activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How could polyclonal lymphocyte activation give rise to autoimmunity?

A

1) Viruses such as EBV stimulate B- cells non-specifically

2) Superantigens stimulate T-cells (non-specifically activating thousands of clones of T-cells)
(Attach to the OUTSIDE of the T-cell receptor and to OUTSIDE of the MHC Class II molecule causing T-cell activation)
Exp. Staphylococcal food poisoning, toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How could defective T-cell regulation give rise to autoimmunity?

A
  • Defective Treg Cells (CD4+, CD25+) (Treg cells make inhibitory Cytokines IL-10 and TGFβ)
  • Defective B7-CTLA-4 Interaction –> uncontrolled activation of T-cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Genetic factors in autoimmunity

A
  1. Autoimmune disease more comm. in fam members. (certain in-bred strains of mice –> autoimmune disease (NZB/NZW))
  2. Increased incidence in twins
  3. Asocc of autoimmune diseases with MHC types (B27 - AS, DR3/DR4 - IDDM, DR4 - RA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Molecular mimicry

A

Some microorganisms have antigenic determinants that are identical/similar to normal host cell components.

exp - Strep cell wall stimulates Ab response, autoAbs to heart valves develop in some individuals weeks after a strep infection –> Abs cross-react with heart tissue –> rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Microbial factors in autoimmunity

A
  • molecular mimicry (rheumatic fever)
  • abnormal activation of lymphoid cells (EBV)
  • Microbes may damage tissue –> release of hidden antigens
  • Microbes may function as adjuvants and stimulate immune responses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Adjuvant

A

Stimulate immune responses, make the response bigger.

Microbes may function as adjuvants: Tissue proteins taken up by antigen presenting cells do not produce an immune response because they fail to induce co-stimulatory proteins on the surface of the APC. When mixed with bacteria, however –> become immunogenic (bacteria induce the formation of MHC class II molecules and B7 on the surface of the APC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hormonal factors of autoimmune factors

A

Most autoimmune diseases are more common in females e.g. SLE 9:1, earlier (systemic lupus erythematosus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Autoimmunity. Damage to the tissue may be mediated primarily by…

A

1) Antibodies e.g. autoimmune hemolytic anemia or myasthenia gravis,
2) T-cells e.g. Crohn’s disease, IDDM, psoriasis, multiple sclerosis,
3) Both humoral immunity and CMI e.g. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis or rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In autoimmunity, Abs mediate damage to tissue in…

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia or myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In autoimmunity, T-cells mediate damage to tissue in…

A

Crohn’s disease, IDDM, psoriasis, multiple sclerosis,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In autoimmunity, humoral immunity and CMI mediate damage to tissue in…

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis or rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which autoimmune diseases are activated T-cells responsible for…

A
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Multiple sclerosis
Crohn’s Disease
Psoriasis
Celiac Disease

^All primarily caused by T-cell attack. This may be followed by secondary auto-Ab production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Most common autoimmune diseases in the US

A
Graves' disease
RA
Hashimoto's thyroids
Vitiligo
IDDM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Autograft

A

One person to the same person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Syngraft

A

Person to a genetically identical recipient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Allograft

A

Person to a genetically different recipient

Exp. Mother to child (not HLA identical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Xenograft

A

Graft to a different species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hyperacute rejection

A

w/I minutes or hours. Preformed Abs in the recipient against graft endothelial cells. Abs may be present due to prev blood transfusions, pregnancies, prior transplants.

*not common bc recipients are tested for presence of pre-formed Abs against cells of donor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Acute rejection

A

completed w/i 10-14 days.

Due to cell mediated immunity (T-cells react against alloantigens in graft) but some injury is also Ab mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Chronic rejection

A

w/i months or years after the transplant. Due to Ab, T-cell and NK cell attack on the graft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Mechanisms of Acute Allograft Rejection

A

1) Direct contact between CD8+ cells and the graft (Perforin and Granzyme, Fas and FasL (on CD8))
2) Locally released cytokines and chemokines (IL-2 –> T-cell proliferation and differentiation of CD8+ cells, IFNγ –> activates macrophages, Interferon-gamma and TNF increase MHC expression on grafted cells)

3) Antibody against donor HLA
- Classical complement activation
- ADCC by NK cells

4) Direct NK cell attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Stem cell transplantation

A

Get stem cells from peripheral blood (after treatment with colony stimulating factors) or from umbilical cord blood or from bone marrow.

Danger: competent T-cells from donor may be transplanted –> graft versus host disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

graft versus host disease (GVH)

A

rxn of donor T-cells against recipient MHC

1) graft must contain live T-cells (tissue from the bone marrow, thymus)
2) The recipient must be immunosuppressed
3) The donor and recipient must have different HLA types
- CD4+ T cells in the graft are activated by allogeneic molecules and produce a “cytokine storm” that recruits other T cells, macrophages and NK cells to create the severe inflammation characteristic of GVH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Differentiation between transplant rejection and GVD?

A

Transplant rejection: when kidney is transplanted, RECIPIENT’S T cells attack transplant

GVD: when bone marrow is transplanted, T cells in TRANSPLANT attack recipients tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cyclosporine and FK506

A

(immunosuppressive drugs) block a T-cell phosphatase called calcineurin and inhibit cytokine production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Corticosteroids

A

(immunosuppressive drugs) inhibit cytokine production and are anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Anti-CD3 monoclonal Ab

A

Immunosuppressive drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Anti-IL-2 receptor Ab

A

Immunosuppressive drug (IL-2 –> T-cell proliferation and differentiation of CD8+ cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The problem with all forms of immunosuppressive therapy

A

normal immune responses against microorganisms are reduced –> increased incidence of infection

Intracellular bacteria e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Large viruses. Pox and Herpes viruses
Fungi e.g. Candida
Intracellular parasites e.g. Toxoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Types of antigens on the surface of tumor cells

A

Virally controlled antigens

  • Oncofetal antigens *as you mature, these disappear
    1) alpha-fetoprotein - primary hepatocellular carcinoma
    2) carcino-embryonic antigen (CEA) - colon carcinoma
  • Abnormal peptides made by tumor cells
  • Mutant antigens (Her2/neu): found on breast cancers. If +, tx with herceptin (an anti-her2/neu)
  • Tissue specific differentiation antigens (CD19, CD20 –> for B-cells, CD3, CD4 or CD8 –> for T-cells. PSA –> Prostate specific antigen)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Normal vs abnormal B cells

A

Normal B cells: CD19, CD20 lambda OR kappa.

Abnormal B cells: CD19, CD20 ALL lambda OR ALL kappa (not a mixture)
^ B-cell lymphoma
A malignancy of a single B-cell clone

65
Q

Tumors may lose HLA Class I, how are they killed?

A

If tumors lose HLA Class I, they will not be killed by CD8+ cells but they will be killed by NK cells that recognize and are cytotoxic to HLA Class I negative cells

66
Q

Natural Killer Cells (NK cells)

A

They are large granular lymphocytes (LGL’s)

  • Destroy infected and malignant cells that have absent or defective Class I MHC (this may occur after viral infection or malignant transformation)
  • Have Fc receptors that can bind to IgG –> ADCC
  • activated by cytokines (IL-2, IL-12 and IFN gamma)
  • produce a variety of cytokines
67
Q

How NK cells kill cancer cells

A

Can attach directly if no MHC class I or through ADCC

68
Q

Principal immune mechanism of killing tumor cells

A

Via cytotoxic CD8 cells (CTLs=cytotoxic T cells)

  • granzyme and perforin
  • expression of FasL on the CD8 cell combining with Fas on tumor cell –> apoptosis of tumor cell

(Killing also takes place by activated macrophages and by NK cells)

69
Q

How do tumors escape?

A

1) They release immunosuppressive factors e.g. IL-10 and TGF-beta
2) They release factors that activate TREG cells (which make inhibitory cytokines)
3) They select antigen-negative variants
4) They upregulate the expression of immune checkpoint molecules such as PD-1 and PD ligand 1 (PD-L1)

70
Q

Cancer Immunotherapy

A
  1. immunization against onogenic viruses (Hep B and HPV)
  2. stimulate innate response (Imiquimod (for superficial skin cancer) –> activates TLR7 –> inflammatory response. BCG (tb vaccine –> local inflammatory rxn in bladder wall –> tx for superficial bladder cancer)
  3. checkpoint inhibitors: block CTLA-4 or the PD-1/PDL-1 interaction to remove the “brakes” from cytotoxic T-cells
  4. CAR T-cells: engineered receptors, have specificity of a monoclonal Ab receptor grafted onto a T cell. Can remove patient’s T-cells and modify them so their receptors are specific to pt’s cancer cells.
  5. Monoclonal Abs
71
Q

PD-1 and PD-L1 checkpoint inhibitor for cancer immunotherapy

A

PD-1 (on T-cell) and PD-L1 (on tumor)

  • inhibit this rxn, takes breaks away of T cells
  • -> risks of autoimmune disease
72
Q

CAR T-cells

A

CAR-T-cells are engineered receptors, which have the specificity of a monoclonal Ab receptor grafted onto a T cell

Exp. cytotoxicity of CD19-specific CAR-expressing T Lymphocytes against B-cell lymphoma

73
Q

MAb mediated killing

A

Complemented-mediated lysis and phagocytosis or can attach by macrophages or NKs

74
Q

Immunotoxins

A

monoclonal Abs attached to toxins such as ricin or radioactive isotopes. These are delivered specifically to the malignant cells to initiate direct killing.

75
Q

Rituximab

A

Monoclonal anti-tumor Ab

targets CD20 on B-cell lymphomas

76
Q

Erbitux

A

Monoclonal anti-tumor Ab

targets growth factor receptors in colon cancer

77
Q

Herceptin (anti Her2/Neu)

A

Monoclonal anti-tumor Ab

blocks growth factor signaling
*breast cancer

78
Q

Bispecific T cell engagers

A

one arm binds to CD3 and the other to CEA

Exp. CEA CD3: designed to redirect T cells to tumor cells by simultaneously binding to CD3 found on T cells and CEA, a tumor surface antigen

79
Q

Oncofetal antigens

A

(Type of antigens on the surface of tumor cells)

Oncofetal antigens *as you mature, these disappear

1) alpha-fetoprotein - primary hepatocellular carcinoma
2) carcino-embryonic antigen (CEA) - colon carcinoma

80
Q

NK cell activation

A

Activated by IL-2, IL-12 (released by active APCs), IFN-gamma (released by NK cells causing macrophages to destroy phagocytosed microbes)

81
Q

Reasons why individuals preferentially make IgE Abs

A

Unclear

  • Genetic component
  • Mode of administration of antigen. Skin or mucus membrane favors IgE
  • Antigen-presenting cells preferentially activate TH2 cells resulting in B-cells producing IL-4 and IL-13
  • ? Failure of control of TH2 cells
82
Q

First/second exposure to pollen

A

1st exposure- IL-4 drives B cells to produce IgE in response to pollen antigens. –> Pollen-specific IgE binds to mast cell. Sits until second exposure

2nd exposure- Acute release if mast cell contents causes allergic rhinitis (hay fever)

83
Q

Early phase mediators released by mast cells and basophils. Responsible for…

A

Responsible for the early symptoms of allergy (IgE controls release of these…)

Histamine (acute inflammatory sx: vasodilation, vascular permeability, etc.)

Proteases (tissue degradation and increased mucus production)

Leukotrienes (increase vascular permeability, mucus production, broncho constriction.)

Prostaglandins (constrict bronchial airways)

Platelet Activating Factor (PAF) - constricts bronchial airways, massive vasodilation –> anaphylactic shock

Chemotactic Factors for neutrophils and eosinophils

84
Q

Late phase mediators released in the late phase of the acute allergic reaction

A

4-12 hrs after allergen exposure

Primarily cytokines released from eosinophils*, mast cells, macrophages and infiltrating T-cells.

The late phase can be controlled by corticosteroids that inhibit cytokine production.

  • prominent in most allergic rxns, important cause of tissue injury. Activated by the cytokine IL-5 which is also produced by TH2 cells.
85
Q

Examples of IgE mediated allergic reactions

A
  1. Allergic rhinitis (Hay fever) tree pollens, grass pollen, ragweed pollen, cat hair, dog hair, house dust mite, moulds etc.
  2. Bronchial asthma – bronchial constriction
  3. Acute drug reactions
  4. Food allergies
  5. Insect stings
    Wasps
    Hornets
    Honey bees
    Yellow jackets
    Fire ants
  6. Acute urticaria (Hives)
86
Q

Diagnosis of acute allergic disease

A
  1. Skin prick tests (intradermal skin tests) - positive wheal and flare seen in 5-10 minutes
  2. Measure specific IgE antibodies (to e.g. cat hair, pollens, house dust mite etc.). ^RAST test
87
Q

Tx of acute anaphylactic reactions

A

Epinephrine (Adrenaline) used to treat acute anaphylactic reactions

88
Q

Tx of Type 1 allergic reactions

A

1) Remove the antigen e.g. house dust mite, moulds, cats, peanuts etc.
2) Treat symptomatically with antihistamines, anti-leukotrienes, corticosteroids
3) Omalizumab (a monoclonal antibody that inhibits IgE binding to mast cells, activation/release of mediators is limited)
4) Hyposensitization therapy (shots)

89
Q

Hyposensitization (desensitization)

A

Multiple exposures to increasing concentrations of the antigen results in an increase of IgG antibodies.

(antigen exp.: Bee venom, cat hair antigen, grass pollen antigen)

90
Q

Mechanism of hyposensitization (desensitization)

A

2 Possible reasons for the increase in IgG and the slow decrease in IgE:

1) Hyposensitization activates the Th1 cells
2) Hyposensitization activates TREG cells to inhibit the Th2 cells

91
Q

Mast cells can be degranulated by mechanisms other than IgE…

A
  1. C5a and C3a (anaphylatoxins)
  2. Heat
  3. Cold
  4. Pressure e.g. dermatographism
  5. Exercise
  6. CNS effects via the vagus nerve
  7. Direct effect of drugs on mast cells
92
Q

New drugs for asthma (FYI)

A

Benralizumab, an anti-interleukin (IL)-5 receptor monoclonal Ab that depletes blood and airway eosinophils and improves asthma symptoms

The IL-4 blocker Dupilumab also looks promising

93
Q

Type ll Hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic reactions)

A

Abnormal Ab directed against a target organ causes destruction of the target cell by complement mediated lysis or by ADCC

94
Q

Complement mediated lysis of rbc

A

(type II hypersensitivity)

95
Q

antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)

type II hypersensitivity

A

NK cells use perforin and granzyme kills target cell. Ab coated target cells destroyed.

96
Q

Examples of Type II hypersensitivity

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia
Goodpastures syndrome
Hyperacute graft rejection

Anti-receptor antibody diseases

  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Grave’s disease
97
Q

Anti-receptor antibody diseases

A

Myasthenia gravis
Grave’s disease

Pt makes Ab against a receptor

98
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

(anti-red cell antibodies)

99
Q

AUTOIMMUNE THROBOCYTOPENIA

A

Abs against the platelets cause purpura

100
Q

Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

anti-glomerular/alveolar basement membrane (glomerulonephritis and hemoptysis)

IgG is deposited on the basement membrane of the glomeruli and the lung alveoli

101
Q

Hyperacute Graft Rejection

A

Pre-formed antibodies against antigens on transplanted tissue

• Activation of complement triggers the blood clotting cascade, leading to ischemia and loss of the graft within minutes to hours of transplantation

102
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

TII HS

Ab binds and inactivates Ach-Receptors at NMJ, preventing muscle contraction. BLOCKS receptor.

103
Q

Grave’s Disease

A

TII HS

Ab binds and ACTIVATES TSH-receptor, causing
hypERthyroidism, increased thyroid hormone release.

No negative feedback mechanism of TSH inhibiting release from pituitary.

(High TH, low TSH)

104
Q

Type lll Hypersensitivity (Immune-complex disease)

A

Ag-Ab complexes trapped in small vessels of body. Binding of complement triggers an inflammatory reaction damaging the vessel walls (vasculitis).

Process: 1. Excess immune-complexes (joints, skin, kidney).

  1. Release of anaphylatoxins (C3a + C5a) induce mast cell/basophil degranulation, and neutrophil infiltration.
  2. Neutrophils degranulate in vessel wall –> release lysosomal enzymes –> damage vessel wall (vasculitis)

*complement levels fall as complement is consumed

105
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

(Example of Systemic Immune complex disease) type III hypersensitivity reaction

Antigen is DNA and other nuclear components. Ab is anti-DNA and other antinuclear Abs (ANA). Complexes are trapped in the small vessels of the skin, kidney and joints (Butterfly rash)

106
Q

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

(Example of Systemic Immune complex disease) type III hypersensitivity reaction

Circulating anti-streptococcal Abs combine with streptococcal antigen. Complexes are trapped in the glomeruli.

107
Q

Serum sickness

A

(Example of Systemic Immune complex disease) type III hypersensitivity reaction

Pts treated with serum from an animal such as a horse, will make anti-horse Abs

108
Q

Drug reactions e.g.penicillin

A

(Example of Systemic Immune complex disease) type III hypersensitivity reaction

  • Penicillin and other drugs can be responsible for Type l, Type ll, Type lll and Type lV hypersensitivity reactions.
109
Q

Localised Immune complex disease (Arthus Reaction)

A

Arthus Reaction: Injected Ag into individual with pre-formed Ab –> localized neutrophil invasion and inflammation.

Exp. 1) Tetanus toxin given to a person who already has tetanus Abs
2) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis such as Farmer’s lung or Bird Fancier’s Disease

110
Q

Farmer’s Lung (Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis)

A

Repeated mold inhalation (Actinomycete organisms in moldy hay) –> formation of IgG against mold –> further inflammation intrapulmonary Arthus-type reaction (Neutrophil invasion and complement activation) –> followed by delayed-type (Type IV) hypersensitivity (T-cell infiltration and cytokine release) reaction.

*mixture of type III and Type IV rxn

111
Q

Systemic Immune complex diseases

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Serum sickness
Drug reactions e.g.penicillin

112
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity:
Type II Hypersensitivity:
Type III Hypersensitivity:
Type IV Hypersensitivity:

A

Type I Hypersensitivity: immediate, IgE-mediated. Allergic response requiring previous exposure (exp. pollen)

Type II Hypersensitivity: IgG and IgM-mediated. Abnormal antibody causes autoimmune cytotoxicity. (exp. autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia)

Type III Hypersensitivity: IgG/IgM-mediated. (Xs ag-Immune-complexes stick in vessels of joints, skin, kidney. Release of C3a and C3b. Neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes –> vasculitis) (exp. lupus)

Type IV Hypersensitivity: (delayed) Requires memory T-cells from previous exposure (exp. contact dermatitis)

113
Q

Delayed Hypersensitivity (Type IV)

A

The mechanisms of delayed hypersensitivity are the same as those for cell-mediated immunity (CD4 and CD8), but result is tissue damage.

(sensitization phase, effector phase) APCs present antigen on MHC II, releasing IL-12, and causing TH1 expansion –> IFN-gamma, IL2 –> CMI (macrophages, NK, CD8), and T cell proliferation

Activated memory T-cells also release cytokines IL-1, TNF –> endothelial adhesiveness, IL-8 –> leukocyte attractant or chemokine

114
Q

Examples of Delayed Hypersensitivity

A

Contact dermatitis (Blistering skin lesions in response to antigens combining with skin proteins, causing sensitization)
Poison ivy
Cosmetics
Foreign chemicals
Latex – rubber
Metals e.g. nickel, zinc reacting with skin proteins

115
Q

Tuberculin skin test

A

form of delayed hypersensitivity

Inject PPD (Purified Protein Derivative of M.tuberculosis) into the skin. Read after 48 hours.

Problem with this ^ Individuals born in other countries may have received BCG (tb vaccine), so have memory T-cells that can produce a + tuberculin skin test

116
Q

Chronic infections that are forms of delayed hypersensitivity

A

forms of delayed hypersensitivity. Persistent antigen exposure may induce sensitization, causing chronic local delayed hypersensitivity reaction.

  • Viral hepatitis (T cells killing your own liver)
  • Chronic bacterial diseases e.g. Tuberculosis syphilis, leprosy
  • Chronic fungal infections e.g. Candidiasis
  • Parasitic diseases e.g. Leishmaniasis
117
Q

Cell mediated immunity is crucial in protecting against the following infectious agents…

A

(people without CMI (AIDS pt) get these)

-Intracellular bacteria e.g. M.tuberculosis
-Large viruses e.g. Pox and Herpes viruses
-Fungi e.g. Candida albicans.
Pneumocystis
-Parasites e.g. Toxoplasma

118
Q

Delayed Hypersensitivity may cause a number of important auto-immune diseases…

A
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Multiple sclerosis
Crohn’s Disease
Psoriasis
Celiac Disease

^ all primarily caused by T-cell attack, may be followed by secondary AutoAb production (once destroy tissue –> new antigens released –> Abs made to these)

119
Q

A 25-year-old woman develops vaginal candidiasis following a course of antibiotics for acne. A small dose of candida extract is injected into the skin of her arm and a red, raised wheal develops at the site in 48 hours. Rxn shows

A

Normal CMI

120
Q

Most immunodeficiency disorders are due to

A

B cell defects

121
Q

A crucial part of innate immunity is the involvement of neutrophils. What are their functions?

A

Chemotaxis (C3a/C5a –> chemokines)
Phagocytosis (Opsonization: IgG + C3b enhance this)
Killing (Lysosomal granules contain many bactericidal agents)

122
Q

Defects of Neutrophil function (Inability to mount a normal inflammatory response)

A
  1. Neutropenia- low neutrophil count e.g. patients receiving chemotherapy
  2. Defective opsonization (IgG deficiency, C3b deficiency *rare)
  3. Non-killing neutrophils
    - Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
123
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

A

Non-killing neutrophils

  • X-linked (*males)
  • defect in cytochrome b and NADPH oxidase –> no superoxide anion prod, cant kill staph
  • recurrent infection with abscess of skin, lymph nodes, CHRONIC GRANULOMAS
124
Q

Neutropenia

A
  • Defective opsonization (mediated by IgG + C3b).
  • Defective inflammatory response (chemotaxis by C3a + C5a).
  • Defective phagocytosis.
125
Q

Under normal circumstances, ______________ in the neutrophil cytoplasm collide with the phagosome and release their granules containing numerous bactericidal enzymes and ____________.

A

lysosomal granules

superoxide anion.

126
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LFA-1 deficiency)

A
  • Neutrophils fail to emigrate out of vessels towards the ag (no sticking to endothelial cells)
  • Failure of CD8+ cells to bind to target cells
  • Recurrent bacterial infection
  • Failure to heal wounds (Umbilicus)
127
Q

Chediak Higashi Syndrome

A
  • Giant Lysosomal Granules
  • Defective phagosome-lysosomal fusion in neutrophils
  • Recurrent infection
128
Q

Neutrophil defect immune deficiencies

A
  1. Neutropenia
  2. CGD
  3. Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LFA-1)
  4. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
129
Q

X-Linked Agammaglobulinemia

A
  • “Brunton’s agammaglobulinemia”
  • Absent IgG, IgA and IgM
  • Pre-B cells in marrow, but no mature B-cells
  • Absent or very small tonsils and lymph nodes
  • Btk mutation (TYR KINASE imp for light chain rearrang.)
  • Absent germinal centers in lymph nodes, absent B-cells in blood
  • recurrent infections

*boys

130
Q

Serum electrophoresis from 1) a normal person and 2) a patient with X-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

(absent gamma-globulin band)

131
Q

Management of X-Linked Agammaglobulinemia

A

Avoid infections where possible
Abx
Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) every 3 weeks
3 weeks for IVIG to drop, then give another shot

132
Q

IgA Deficiency

A
  • Common 1:700
  • many pt asymptomatic
  • Pt w/ associated IgG2 or IgG4 deficiency –> severe respiratory and GI infections
  • IVIG is not usually helpful
133
Q

Hyper IgM syndrome

A
  • mut CD40L gene (on TCell)
  • Failure of isotype switching
  • Only IgM and IgD. NO switch to IgG, IgA or IgE
  • NO germinal centers. Most cells are T cells.
  • Recurrent infections
134
Q

Transient Hypogammaglobulinemia of Childhood

A
  • Delay in the production of normal Abs
  • B-cells are present
  • Transient ability to prod IgG
  • Cause is unknown, may be due to deficiency in #/function of hyperTcells
  • Resolves with time
135
Q

Common Variable Immunodeficiency

A
  • not common. Appears in teens/adults
  • Low serum levels of all immunoglobulins
  • B-cells are present
  • Increased susceptibility to infections
  • Defect unknown (poss defect B-cells –> plasma cells)
  • tx:IVIG

Humoral deficiency

136
Q

Di George Syndrome

A

(chromosome 22q11.2 deletion syndrome (22qDS)

1) Cardiac anomalies
2) Hypoplastic thymus or complete ABSENCE of the thymus.
3) Hypocalcemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).
4) Facial abnormalities e.g. cleft palate
Majority of patients with DGS have deletions in chromosome 22q11.2.

  • recurrent infections with intracellular bacteria,
    fungi, large viruses (also pyogenic organisms bc lack of T-cell help for B-cells)
137
Q

Di George Syndrome CATCH 22

A
Cardiac abnormality 
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcemia.
138
Q

Patients with Di George syndrome will have:
A) Decreased numbers of surface IgM and IgD positive B-cells
B) Normal serum IgE levels
C) Normal serum anti-influenza IgG levels after immunization with the influenza vaccine
D) Normal ability to produce acute phase proteins such as CRP
E) Normal IL-2 production

A

D

139
Q

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency

A
  • Numerous forms of SCID that can result from any one of several genetic defects.
  • Both humoral and cell mediated immunity are defective.
  • Patients are susceptible to all infectious agents (severe oral esophageal/nail candidiasis)

Tx: reconstitution of immune system with stem cell transplantation *beware of GVH

140
Q

The commonest form of SCID

A
  • mutation of the common-chain of the IL-2 Receptor

- X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency

141
Q

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency

A

Form of SCID

142
Q

Bare lymphocyte syndrome

A
Form of SCID
Cells lack class I or II MHC molecules
143
Q

Abnormal signal transduction leading to SCID

A

1) Mutations of protein kinases e.g. JAK3 or ZAP 70
2) Mutations of RAG1 and RAG2
3. ) Mutations of CD3
4) Defective cytokine production

144
Q

Mutations of the CD3 molecule
Defective Cytokine production

Can lead to …

A

SCID

145
Q

Wiskott Aldridge Syndrome

A

Immunodeficiency
Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) - purpuric spots
Eczema (Elevated IgE, type I allergic rxn)
Recurrent infections

tx: stem cell transplant

146
Q

Ataxia Telangiectasia

A

Defective DNA repair, causing a type of SCID.

Ataxia
Telangiectasia (of eye)
Immunodeficiency

no curative tx

147
Q
Secondary Immunodeficiency
(Defective humoral immunity)
A

Lymphoma
Myeloma
Burns

(loss of Ig in serum)

148
Q
Secondary Immunodeficiency
(Defective Cell mediated Immunity)
A

Patients taking Immunosuppressive drugs
Malnutrition
Viral infections especially HIV
Ageing

149
Q

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (HIV)

A

HIV virus infects the CD4 cell

Viral gp120 binds to the CD4 molecule
Gp41 binds to the chemokine receptor CCR5

T cells drop dramatically

150
Q

Clinical course of HIV disease

A

4-6 weeks T cells drop to about half of what they should be.
Then stabilize at about half their normal level (clinical latency)

Virus goes sky high, drops, continues for months/years (clinical latency), then suddenly goes up. Infections, death.

151
Q

Laboratory diagnosis of HIV

A

1) Can detect HIV antigen or antibody in the blood
2) Reversal of the CD4:CD8 ratio. This ratio is normally approximately 2:1
3) Measure serum levels of HIV RNA to follow progress of the disease.

152
Q

The commonest immunodeficiency ….

A

Ageing is associated with significant and continuous immune deficiency

Decreasing number and function of many cell types including, neutrophils, antigen presenting cells, NK cells, and T-cells

153
Q

Specific immunodeficiency to papilloma virus

A

causing very severe warts

Pt responded normally to PPD and to other delayed hypersensitivity skin tests (normal cell mediated immunity)

cause unknown

154
Q

Chronic mucocutaneous Candidiasis

A

Lack of IL-17 production or Autoantibody to IL-17

155
Q

Arthus rxn

A

localized TIII HS
Injected Ag into individual with pre-formed antibody, causing localized
neutrophil invasion and inflammation.
LATER T-cell infiltration, cytokines

156
Q

Hypersensitivity type that causes cytokine production by T-cells

A
Type IV
Type III (T-cell infiltration after neutrophil-complement activation)

NOTE: Type I cytokines are produced also via eiosinophls, macrophages, mast cells

157
Q

B-cell defect immune deficiencies

A
  1. Brunton’s (X-linked) aggamaglobulinemia
  2. IgA deficiency
  3. Hyper-IgM syndrome
  4. Transient Hypogammaglobulinemia of Infancy
  5. Common Variable Immunodeficiency
158
Q

T-cell/SCID defect

A
  1. DiGeorge Syndrome
  2. T-cell Activation Defects
  3. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
  4. Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome
  5. Wiskott-Aldritch Syndrome
  6. Ataxia Telangiectasia
159
Q

To diagnose type II HS…

A

measure specific serum IgG Abs