immunology Flashcards

1
Q

CD8+ cytotoxic T-lymphocytes function

A

binds to MHC I on virus-infected cells

directly kill virus-infected, neoplastic, and donor graft cells by inducing apoptosis

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2
Q

CD4+ T cells function

A

help B cells make antibodies and produce cytokines to recruit phagocytes and activate other leukocytes

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3
Q

thymoma is associated with which two diseases/disorders

A

myasthenia gravis and superior vena cava syndrome

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4
Q

what is X-linked (Bruton) agammaglobulinemia

A

defect in B cell maturation, resulting in the absence of mature B cells with severe deficiency of all immunoglobulin types

T cell numbers and function remain intact

absence of B cells–> primary lymphoid follicles and germinal centers will not form within lymph nodes

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5
Q

what is the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

acute inflammatory reaction that occurs within hours of treatment for spirochetal (eg, syphilis) infection

rapid lysis of spirochetes releases inflammatory bacterial lipoproteins into the circulation and causes acute fevers, rigors, and myalgias

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6
Q

what does interferon-gamma do and where does it come from?

A

produced by activated T lymphocytes (both CD4+ and CD8+) and natural killer cells

activates macrophages, increases MHC expression, and promotes Th1 differentiation

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7
Q

what do IFN-gamma release assays (IGRAs) test for

A

latent TB infection by measuring the response of T lymphocyte when exposed to antigens unique to mycobacterium tuberculosis

have comparable sensitivity and specificity to TB skin tests but does not cross-react with Bacille Calmette Guerin (BCG) vaccine

can’t distinguish between active TB and latent TB (same thing with the skin test)

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8
Q

pneumococcal conjugate vs. pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccines

A

conjugate: strongly immunogenic in infancy due to both B and T cell recruitment; provide higher, longer-lasting antibody titers; allows for development of memory B cells; recommended for immunocompromised patients and adults >65 and children <2
polysaccaride: protects against wider range of serotypes, but antibody levels decline over about 5 years; have relatively immature humoral antibody response; recommended for all adults age >65 and for those age 2-64 with certain medical conditions

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9
Q

Henoch-Schonlein purpura- associated to what with the immune system

A

immune complex vasculitis associated with IgA and C3 deposition

affect children 3-11–> palpable skin lesions, with or without abdominal pain and athralgias

self-limiting, but kids must be observed for glomerulonephritis and even end-stage renal disease

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10
Q

C1 inhibitor (C1INH) deficiency increases

A

bradykinin

the deficiency causes increased cleavage of C2 and C4–> inappropriate activation of complement casecade

C1 blocks kallikrein-induced conversion of kininogen to bradykinin so deficiency leads to bradykinin

symptoms: bradykinin-associated angioedema (facial swelling, life-threatening laryngeal edema, and GI manifestations

treat with : manage acute attacks with supportive care and administer C1INH concentrate or a kallikrein inhibitor

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11
Q

what is hyperimmunoglobulin M (hyper-IgM) syndrome

A

defective immunoglobulin class switching due to defect in the CD40 ligand-CD40 interaction

X-linked recessive

clinical features: sinopulmonary, GI, and opportunistic infections

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12
Q

why use epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock

A

its ability to reverse all of the pathophysiologic mechanisms of anaphylaxis

stimulation of alpha1 receptors counteracts the vasodilatation of cutaneous and viscera vasculature, thus increasing blood pressure

increases cardiac contractility (beta1 effect) an dcardiac output increase blood pressure and improve peripheral perfusion

stimulation of beta2 receptors results in bronchodilatation, so help with asthmatic reactions

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13
Q

which complement is important or opsonization

A

C3b

also need IgG

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14
Q

which complement is important for anaphylactic reactions?

A

C3a and C5a

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15
Q

anaphylaxis results from widespread mass cell and basophil degranulation and release of preformed inflammatory mediators such as

A

histamine and tryptase

tryptase: relatively specific to mast cells and can be used as a marker for mast cell activation

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16
Q

what is calcineurin

A

protein phosphatase that is in T cells

helps activate IL-2, which promotes growth and differentiation of T cells

inhibited by cyclosporin and tacrolimus for immunosuppressant drugs

17
Q

adenosine deaminase deficiency (auto recessive) causes what disease

A

severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

toxic levels of adenosine accumlate within lymphocytes and lead to lymphocyte cell death –> deficiency in cellular and humoral immune deficiency

18
Q

what autoantibodies are commonly seen in SLE

A
  • antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
  • anti-dsDNA antibodies: highly specific for SLE
  • antibodies against small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (anti-snRNPs) (aka anti-Smith antibodies): highly specific for SLE