Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

UWorld Journal > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

how does galactokinase deficiency causes cataracts

A

buildup of galactose–> converted to galactitol, an osmostic agent that causes cataracts

may present as failure to track objects or to develop a social smile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MHC Class _____ requires acidification of lysosomes to be expressed and bound to foreign antigen

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what can be used to differentiate between pancreatic vs. mucosal causes of malabsorption

A

D-xylose absorption

monosaccharides don’t need pancreatic and brush border amylases to be absorbed- they can be absorbed directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what enzyme is used to convert trypsinogen to trypsin

A

enteropeptidase—>

deficiency leads to protein and fat malabsorption–> diarrhea, failure to thrive, and edema (from hypoproteinemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

side effect of fibrates

A

cholesterol stones

fibrates inhibit cholesterol 7alpha-hydroxylase which help synthesize bile acids. with less bile acids,–> decreased cholesterol solubility in bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain identifies ______

A

glycogen

help with diagnosing glycogen storage diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

clinical manifestation of riboflavin (vitamin B2) deficiency

A

angular stomatitis, cheilitis (inflammation of the lips), glossitis, seborrheic dermatitis, eye changes, and anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

role of riboflavin (vitamin B2)- containing coenzymes

A

make up part of the electron transport chain

precursor of the coenzymes FMN and FAD

FAD=component of succinate dehydrogenase (complex II)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

mechanism of action for ribavirin

A

interfere with the duplication of viral genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

iron is absorbed in

A

duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

folate is absorbed in

A

small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

vitamin B12 is absorbed in

A

terminal ileum along with bile salts, requires intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the surgical landmark used for appendectomy

A

teniae coli— 3 bands that travel on the outside of the entire colon before converging at the root of the veriform appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

to encircle the supper stomach, the gastric band must pass through the ____________

A

less omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is Crigler-Najjar syndrome

A

autosomal recessive
impaired bilirubin metabolism caused by a genetic lack of the UGT enzyme needed to catalyze bile glucuronidation–> hyperbilirubinemia in infants–> kernicerus (bilirubin in brain) and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

increased activity of ____________ cells play a role in Crohn’s disease

A

TH-1 helper

increase production IL-2, interferon-gamma, and TNF–> cause more intestinal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

result of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

panacinar emphysema and liver disease (cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome-what is it

A

obstruction of venous outflow from the liver

present with acute or subacute liver failure or asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how would someone with chronic mesenteric ischemia present?

A

postprandial epigastric pain and associated food aversion/weight loss in the settling of generalized atherosclerosis (eg, coronary and carotid artery disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

biopsy of which part of the GI tract will be most helpful to diagnose Celiac disease

A

duodenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is protective for women against hemochromatosis?

A

physiologic iron loss through menstruation and pregnancy

hemochromatosis– gradual buildup of iron–> skin pigmentation, hepatomegaly, impaired glucose homeostasis, cardiac dysfunction, atypical arthritis, hypogonadism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

right-sided colon cancers vs. left-sided colon cancers

A

right: grow as exophytic masses and present with occult bleeding and symptom of iron deficiency anemia
left: infiltrate intestinal wall and encircle lumen–> constipation and symptoms of intestinal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the walls of pancreatic pseudocyst is made u p of:

A

granulation tissue and fibrosis, not epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is needed to activate hepatitis D virus

A

it needs to be coated by external coat hepatitis B surface antigen of HBV to penetrate the hepatocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
3 main causes of HIV-associated esophagitis
Candida (patches of adherent, grey/white pseudomembranes) Cytomegalovirus (large, shallow linear ulcerations) (enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusions) herpes simplex virus (small vesicles "punched-out" ulcers)
26
what is Kehr sign
shoulder pain in the C3-C5 region (phrenic nerve) represents referred pain due to peritoneal irritation
27
define ectompy
identifies microscopically and functionally normal cells/tissues found in an abnormal location due to embryonic maldevelopment
28
increased pressure in what vessel would lead to gastric varices only in the fundus
splenic vein-- blood clot here will increase pressure in the short gastric veins and cause gastric varices
29
base excision repair steps
glycosylase (cleaves altered base)--> endonuclease (cleaves 5' end)--> lyase (cleaves 3' sugar-phosphate)--> DNA polymerase (fills single nucleotide gap)--> ligase (seals nick)
30
what lab findings would be most indicative of poor prognosis for alcoholic cirrhosis?
serum albumin levels (low) and prothrombin time (high)
31
process of forming Zenker diverticulum
abnormal spasm or diminished relaxation of the cricopharyngeal muscles during swallowing (cricopharyngeal motor dysfunction)--> early oropharyngeal dysphagia--> herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa through the zone of muscle weakness (false diverticulum) in the posterior hypopharynx (Killian triangle)
32
hyperammonemia- how does this disrupt excitatory neurotransmission
astrocytes use ammonia to convert glutamate to glutamine--> glutamine released and taken up by neurons and converted back to glutamate excess ammonia--> too much glutamine and astrocyte can't release glutamine so decrease conversion to glutamate
33
why would liver cirrhosis lead to gynecomastia?
impaired estrogen metabolism by liver--> gynecomastia, testicular atrophy, decreased body hair, spider aniomata (usually seen in pregnancy)
34
calculate bioavailbility
area under oral curve divided by area under IV curve
35
drug used to teat arsenic poisoning (found in insecticides)
dimercaprol= chelating agent
36
major immune mechanism against Giardia
CD4+ T helper cells and secretory IgA production (prevent giardia from adhering to the intestinal brush border and causing damage in the duodenum and jejunum)
37
strictures and fistulas (complications of Crohn's disease) are caused by
transmural inflammation--> edema and fibrosis
38
vessels in the portal triad
hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, common bile duct all run through hepatoduodenal ligament
39
clinical features of vitamin A deficiency how can people become vitamin A deficient
night blindness, severe eye dryness and corneal ulceration, hyperkeratosis (thickened, dry skin), growth retardation due to malabsorption related to biliary obstruction, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, or small-bowel resection
40
what is Sudan III stain used for
test stool for fat to screen for malabsorptive disorders
41
parietal cells secrete
gastric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor located in gastric glands of the fundus and body of the stomach
42
where do you find Helicobacter pylori that cause duodenal ulcers
greatest concentration in the prepyloric area of the gastric antrum
43
first symptom reported for primary biliary cirrhosis
severe pruritus (especially at night) most common in middle-aged women autoimmune destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts and cholestasis (eleated alkaline phosphatase)
44
porcelain gallbladder is associated with increased risk of
gallbladder adenocarcinoma -porcelain= calcified gallbladder
45
Crohn disease is associated with mutations in
NOD2 (encodes intracellular microbial receptor)--> decreased activity of the NF-kB protein (proinflammatory transcription factor) with reduced cytokin production
46
histamine induces ______ secretion
gastric acid lead to gastric ulceration
47
mutation associated with Lynch synrome
defective DNA mismatch repair--> mutation in MSH2 and MLH1 -hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer, endometrial cancer, ovarian cancer auto dominant
48
inherited defects involving what pathway resul in disseminated mycobacterial disease in infancy or early childhood
interferon-gamma signaling pathway
49
define Curling ulcers
ulcers arising in proximal duodenum in association with severe trauma/burns
50
define Cushing ulcers
ulcers arising in the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum in patients with intracranial injury -consequence of direct vagus nerve stimulation caused by elevated intracranial pressure--> acetylcholine release and hypersecretion of gastric acid
51
mechanism of action of Fidaxomicin
macrocyclic antibiotic that inhibits the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase--> protein synthesis impairment and cell death (bacteriocidal against recurrent C. difficile)
52
compare sporadic colorectal carcinomas with colitis-associated carcinomsa
colitis-associated: arise from non-polypoid dysplastic lesion, multifocal in nature, develop early p53 mutations and late APC gene mutations, higher histological grade sporadic: arise from polypoid lesions
53
direct inguinal hernias are covered by _______ fascia, while indirect inguinal hernias are covered by _________ fascial layer (s)
external spermatic fascia; all 3 spermatic fascial layers
54
pathophysiology of indirect inguinal, direct inguinal and femoral hernias
indirect: patent processus vaginalis (see with male infants) direct: weak transversalis fascia (see with older men) femoral: weak proximal femoral canal (see with women)
55
how can opioid analgesics increase pressure int he common bile duct and the gallbladder?
cause contraction of smooth muscle in the sphincter of Oddi
56
crohn disease is associated with _______ stones
oxalate kidney stones due to impaired bile acid absorption in the terminal ileum--> fat malabsorption that bind to calcium and result in free oxalate
57
watershed areas of the colon
splenic flexure and rectosigmoid junction
58
what is superior mesenteric artery syndrome
compression of the transverse (third) portion of the duodenum between the SMA and the aorta--> intermittent intestinal obstruction symptoms associated with diminished mesenteric fat like low body weight/malnutrition
59
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
benign autosomal recessive disorder characterized by defective hepatic excretion of bilirubin glucuronides due to mutation in the canalicular membrane transport protein liver appears black b/c impaired excretion of epinephrine metabolites that accumulate in lysosomes
60
which hepatitis is associated with significant elevations in aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferse, often >10 times the upper limit of normal
acute HBV
61
necrotizing enterocolitis-what is it?
bacterial invasion and ischemic necrosis of bowel wall associated with prematurity and initiation of enteral feeding x-ray shows pneumatosis (air in bowel wall)
62
what is cirrhosis characterized by
diffuse hepatic fibrosis with replacement of the normal lobular architecture by fibrous-lined parenchymal nodules
63
histology of acute hepatitis A infection
"spotty necrosis" with ballooning degeneration (hepatocyte swilling with wispy/clear cytoplasm), Councilman bodies (eosinophilic apoptotic hepatocytes), and mononuclear cell infiltrates
64
series of gene mutations called adenoma to carcinoma sequence
1) APC mutation--> normal mucosa to small adenomatous polyp (adenoma) 2) KRAS mutation--> increase is size of adenoma 3) TP53 mutation=-> transform adenoma into carcinoma
65
why can villous adenomas cause secretory diarrhea?
can secrete large quantities of watery mucus--> secretory diarrhea, hypovolemia, and electrolyte abonormalities
66
nonsurgical treatment for cholesterol gallstones
hydrophilic bile acids --> reduce cholesterol secretion and increases biliary bile acid concentration--> promotes gallstone dissolution
67
main mechanism of excess copper removal
hepatic excretion into bile
68
mechanism of action for Statins
inhibit HMG CoA reductase--> decreases hepatic cholesterol synthesis--> upregulate LDL receptors--> decrease LDL cholesterol
69
what drugs are the most effective for motion sickness prevention
antimuscarinic agents and antihistamines with antimuscarinic action
70
weird thing about how gastric G cells reaction to secretin in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
ZES- when you administer secretin, this increases gastrin levels normal- secretion would inhibit release of gastrin form normal gastric G cells
71
anal fissures occur at the __________
posterior midline distal to the dentate line--> due to decreased blood flow in this area
72
where is majority of the plasma LDL cleared
in the liver-- have lots of LDL receptors
73
elevated pressure in ______ in liver cirrhosis
portal system
74
characteristics of primary biliary cirrhosis/cholangitis
autoimmune liver disease with destruction of intrahepatic, interlobular bile ducts by granulomatous inflammation -pruritus and fatigue in middle-aged women -->cholestasis (jaundice, pale stool, dark urine) and hypercholesterolemia
75
cephalic and gastric phases _______ gastric acid secretion, while intestinal influences tend to _____ gastric acid secretion
stimulate; reduce
76
conditions that cause GI irritation--> increased mucosal _______ release and activation of _________ on vagal and spinal afferent nerves
serotonin; 5-Ht3 receptors --> relay their impulses to the medullary vomiting center
77
Mallory-Weiss syndrome- tears occur secondar to
rapid increase in intraabdominal and intraluminal gastric pressure (retching and vomiting) half of patients have hiatal hernias
78
what do you see in esophageal manometry in achalasia
decreased amplitude of peristalsis in the mid esophagus with increased tone and incomplete relaxation at the lower esophageal sphincter
79
what laboratory measurements can you use to differentiate between alcohol-related acute pancreatitis and pancreatitis due to other causes
macrocytosis (mean corpuscular volume >100 fL) related to poor nutrition like folate deficiency, liver disease, and/or direct toxicity of alcohol on the marrow
80
how to determine whether an elevated alkaline phosphatase is of hepatic or bony origin since it is produced by both bone and liver
gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase -enzyme in hepatocyes and biliary epithelia so if elevated then know that the alkaline phosphatase came from the liver
81
vomiting is a reflex regulated by which 5 receptors
M1 muscarinic, D2 dopaminergic, H1 histaminic, 5-HT3 serotonergic, and neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptors 5-HT3 and NK1 receptor antagonists are particularly useful for chemotherapy-induced vomiting

UWorld Journal (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions