Form 1 Flashcards

1
Q

cardiac tissue conduction velocity

A

fastest–> slowest

purkinje system, atrial muscle, ventricular muscle, AV node

“Park At Venture Avenue”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bone disease most associated with Paget’s disease of the bone

A

osteosarcoma- bone tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is globus sensation aka globus hystericus aka globus pharyngeus?

A

abnormal sensation of foreign body, tightness or fullness in throat

worse when swallowing saliva and maybe alleviated with food or liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

dopamine agonists used to treat Parkinson’s

A

bromocriptine (ergot compounds-derived from ergot fungi),

pramipexole and ropinirole (nonergot compounds)

help delay the need to start levodopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what do you need to test for before prescribing isotretinoin (vitamin A)

A

negative pregnancy test and two forms of contraception

-terotogenic if you have vitamin A excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a lot of the drugs that are anticholinesterases (indirect agonists) have in common with their names

A

end with -tigmine

eg. rivastigmin, neostigmine, physostigmine, and pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

organophosphate poisoning leads to

A

DUMBBELSS

diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, sweating, and salivation

may lead to respiratory failure if untreated

treat with atropine and pralidoxime (regenerates AChE )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

auer rods associated with

A

acute promyelocytic leukemia t(15;17) chromosomal rearrangement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which cytokines is produced exclusively by antigen-stimulated T lymphocytes

A

IL-2

-stimulate growth and differentiation of T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

both anterior and posterior dislocations of the knee joint can injure the ____________-

A

popliteal artery

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

most important risk factor for postpartum endometritis

A

cesarean delivery–> introduce microbial organism and foreign bodies into the incised uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sublimation

A

mature defense mechanism

channeling impulses into socially acceptable behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

mechanism of action of sildenafil (viagra)

A

phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors increase intracellular concentrations of cGMP in the vascular smooth muscle of the corpora cavernosa–> smooth muscle relaxation and subsequent engorgement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rank in order or how long the symptoms have to last to qualify

A
  • brief psychotic disorder: lasting < 1 month
  • schizophreniform disorder: lasting 1-6 months
  • schizophrenia: lasting >6 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most common cause of sporadic encephalitis

A

herpes simplex virus type 1

temporal lobe is the main region affected

present with fever, headache, seizures, altered level of consciousness, and symptoms of temporal lobe dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

myasthenia gravis is commonly associated with

A

thymoma and thymic hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the Knudson “2-hit” hypothesis

A

both copies of the gene must be knocked out in order to promote malignancy

sporadic cancer- 2 acquired mutations

hereditary cancer= 1 inherited and 1 acquired mutation

example: retinoblastoma

associated with loss of heterozygosity

18
Q

define loss of heterozygosity

A

if person inherits or develops a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene, the complementary allele must be deleted/mutated before cancer develops (not true of oncogenes)

19
Q

why is DiGeorge syndrome associated with recurrent viral/fungal infections?

A

absent or hypoplastic thymus–> T-cell deficiency

20
Q

complication of surgical resection of pheochromocytoma

A

intraoperative hypertiensive crisis

21
Q

why use alpha adrenergic blocker before beta blockers in surgical resection of pheochromocytoma to prevent intraoperative hypertensive crisis

A

alpha prevents peripheral vasoconstriction

beta alone will cause severe vasoconstriction and lead to hypertensive crisis

22
Q

premature or low birth weight infants are at high risk of intraventricular hemorrhage due to

A

germinal matrix fragility

germinal matrix: dense cellular and vascular layer of the subependymal zone of brain where neurons and glial cells develop in utero–> disappears by term but don’t if the baby is premature

23
Q

side effect of cisplatin (chemotherapeutic agent)

A

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy

prevent nephrotoxicity with amifostine and chlorine diuresis

24
Q

side effects of aiodarone

A

interstitial pneumonitis, arrhythmias, hepatic injury, thyroid abnormalities, and bluish-gray skin discoloration

25
how can NSAIDs lead to gastric ulcer
inhibit prostaglandin formation prostaglandin stimulate gastric epithelial cell mucus production and help decrease parietal cell acid secretion (protects the mucosa from acid)
26
location of vast majority of cancers in the head and neck are
squamous cell carcinomas -oral cavity, ventral tongue, floor of the mouth, lower lip, soft palate, gingiva
27
how can the use the nitroglycerin lead to reflex tachycardia
direct vascular smooth muscle relaxation --> systemic venodilatioin and decreased peripheral venous return so decrease end-diastolic left ventricular volume (decrease preload)--> reduces myocardial oxygen demand
28
what explains the difference in electrolyte findings between the 2 types of body fluids
difference in tissue-specific function of the CFTR receptor - sweat gland: mutated CFTR prevents salt reabsorption, producting sweat that has higher levels of Na and Cl - respiratory epithelium: mutated CFTR causes thick, viscid secretions that are low in both sodium and chloride
29
what is pseudohypoparathyroidism
group of disorders characterized by end-organ resistance to parathyroid hormone due to defect in PTH receptor and downstream signaling pathways
30
symptoms of pseudohypoparathyroidism
hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, despite elevated PTH levels
31
define allelic heterogeneity
different mutations at the same genetic locus cause similar phenotypes
32
define pleoitrophy
when multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic manifestations as a result of a single genetic defect ex) Marfan affects skin, bones, blood vessels, and eyes
33
define polygenic disease
disease that result from defects in numerous, often unrelated genes ex) Type 2 diabetes- heritable but cannot be traced to any specific gene
34
what chemical mediator plays an important role in bronchial asthma pathognesis by inducing bronchospasm and increasing bronchial mucus secretion
Leukotriene D4- synthesized by eosinophils and mast cells
35
how can cirrhosis lead to splenomegaly
cirrhosis--> portal hypertension due to distortion of the hepatic vascular bed--> splenic vein hypertension and splenomegaly
36
what is impetigo and what is it commonly caused by?
superficial infection of the skin associated with erythema and yellow "honey" crust Staph aureus and Group A Strep Staph aureus: bullae may form due to toxin production (bullous impetigo)
37
gene mutation of achondroplasia (most common cause of dwarfism)
FGFR3 (fibroblast growth factor receptor 3) proximal limb shortening and result short stature, midface hypoplasia, and frontal bossing auto dom- and usually spontaneous
38
maple syrup urine disease has a defect in what enzyme
branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase and it needs thiamine (vitamin B1) as a coenzyme so treat with thiamine supplementation and restriction of branched-chain amino acid in diet
39
what is produced by the sertoli cells of the seminiferous epithelium and is secreted into the seminiferous tubule lumen
androgen-binding protein (ABP)- maintains the high local concentration of testosterone necessary for normal sperm production and maturation
40
what do red safranin O stains?
cartilage, mast cell granules, and mucin red
41
urine concentrations of what and what are elevated in patients with pheochromocytomas and other catecholamine-secreting tumors
metanephrines adn vanillylmandelic acid -b/c epinephrine and norepinephrine are metabolized to metanephrine and normetanephrine (respectively), and subsquently to vanillylmandelic acid