Form 1

Question 1

cardiac tissue conduction velocity

Answer 1

fastest–> slowest

purkinje system, atrial muscle, ventricular muscle, AV node

“Park At Venture Avenue”

Question 2

bone disease most associated with Paget’s disease of the bone

Answer 2

osteosarcoma- bone tumor

Question 3

what is globus sensation aka globus hystericus aka globus pharyngeus?

Answer 3

abnormal sensation of foreign body, tightness or fullness in throat

worse when swallowing saliva and maybe alleviated with food or liquid

Question 4

dopamine agonists used to treat Parkinson’s

Answer 4

bromocriptine (ergot compounds-derived from ergot fungi),

pramipexole and ropinirole (nonergot compounds)

help delay the need to start levodopa

Question 5

what do you need to test for before prescribing isotretinoin (vitamin A)

Answer 5

negative pregnancy test and two forms of contraception

-terotogenic if you have vitamin A excess

Question 6

a lot of the drugs that are anticholinesterases (indirect agonists) have in common with their names

Answer 6

end with -tigmine

eg. rivastigmin, neostigmine, physostigmine, and pyridostigmine

Question 7

organophosphate poisoning leads to

Answer 7

DUMBBELSS

diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, sweating, and salivation

may lead to respiratory failure if untreated

treat with atropine and pralidoxime (regenerates AChE )

Question 8

auer rods associated with

Answer 8

acute promyelocytic leukemia t(15;17) chromosomal rearrangement

Question 9

which cytokines is produced exclusively by antigen-stimulated T lymphocytes

Answer 9

IL-2

-stimulate growth and differentiation of T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages

Question 10

both anterior and posterior dislocations of the knee joint can injure the ____________-

Answer 10

popliteal artery

-

Question 11

most important risk factor for postpartum endometritis

Answer 11

cesarean delivery–> introduce microbial organism and foreign bodies into the incised uterus

Question 12

sublimation

Answer 12

mature defense mechanism

channeling impulses into socially acceptable behaviors

Question 13

mechanism of action of sildenafil (viagra)

Answer 13

phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors increase intracellular concentrations of cGMP in the vascular smooth muscle of the corpora cavernosa–> smooth muscle relaxation and subsequent engorgement

Question 14

rank in order or how long the symptoms have to last to qualify

Answer 14

• brief psychotic disorder: lasting < 1 month
• schizophreniform disorder: lasting 1-6 months
• schizophrenia: lasting >6 months

Question 15

most common cause of sporadic encephalitis

Answer 15

herpes simplex virus type 1

temporal lobe is the main region affected

present with fever, headache, seizures, altered level of consciousness, and symptoms of temporal lobe dysfunction

Question 16

myasthenia gravis is commonly associated with

Answer 16

thymoma and thymic hyperplasia

Question 17

what is the Knudson “2-hit” hypothesis

Answer 17

both copies of the gene must be knocked out in order to promote malignancy

sporadic cancer- 2 acquired mutations

hereditary cancer= 1 inherited and 1 acquired mutation

example: retinoblastoma

associated with loss of heterozygosity

Question 18

define loss of heterozygosity

Answer 18

if person inherits or develops a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene, the complementary allele must be deleted/mutated before cancer develops (not true of oncogenes)

Question 19

why is DiGeorge syndrome associated with recurrent viral/fungal infections?

Answer 19

absent or hypoplastic thymus–> T-cell deficiency

Question 20

complication of surgical resection of pheochromocytoma

Answer 20

intraoperative hypertiensive crisis

Question 21

why use alpha adrenergic blocker before beta blockers in surgical resection of pheochromocytoma to prevent intraoperative hypertensive crisis

Answer 21

alpha prevents peripheral vasoconstriction

beta alone will cause severe vasoconstriction and lead to hypertensive crisis

Question 22

premature or low birth weight infants are at high risk of intraventricular hemorrhage due to

Answer 22

germinal matrix fragility

germinal matrix: dense cellular and vascular layer of the subependymal zone of brain where neurons and glial cells develop in utero–> disappears by term but don’t if the baby is premature

Question 23

side effect of cisplatin (chemotherapeutic agent)

Answer 23

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy

prevent nephrotoxicity with amifostine and chlorine diuresis

Question 24

side effects of aiodarone

Answer 24

interstitial pneumonitis, arrhythmias, hepatic injury, thyroid abnormalities, and bluish-gray skin discoloration

Question 25

how can NSAIDs lead to gastric ulcer

Answer 25

inhibit prostaglandin formation

prostaglandin stimulate gastric epithelial cell mucus production and help decrease parietal cell acid secretion (protects the mucosa from acid)

Question 26

location of vast majority of cancers in the head and neck are

Answer 26

squamous cell carcinomas

-oral cavity, ventral tongue, floor of the mouth, lower lip, soft palate, gingiva

Question 27

how can the use the nitroglycerin lead to reflex tachycardia

Answer 27

direct vascular smooth muscle relaxation –> systemic venodilatioin and decreased peripheral venous return so decrease end-diastolic left ventricular volume (decrease preload)–> reduces myocardial oxygen demand

Question 28

what explains the difference in electrolyte findings between the 2 types of body fluids

Answer 28

difference in tissue-specific function of the CFTR receptor

• sweat gland: mutated CFTR prevents salt reabsorption, producting sweat that has higher levels of Na and Cl
• respiratory epithelium: mutated CFTR causes thick, viscid secretions that are low in both sodium and chloride

Question 29

what is pseudohypoparathyroidism

Answer 29

group of disorders characterized by end-organ resistance to parathyroid hormone due to defect in PTH receptor and downstream signaling pathways

Question 30

symptoms of pseudohypoparathyroidism

Answer 30

hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, despite elevated PTH levels

Question 31

define allelic heterogeneity

Answer 31

different mutations at the same genetic locus cause similar phenotypes

Question 32

define pleoitrophy

Answer 32

when multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic manifestations as a result of a single genetic defect

ex) Marfan affects skin, bones, blood vessels, and eyes

Question 33

define polygenic disease

Answer 33

disease that result from defects in numerous, often unrelated genes

ex) Type 2 diabetes- heritable but cannot be traced to any specific gene

Question 34

what chemical mediator plays an important role in bronchial asthma pathognesis by inducing bronchospasm and increasing bronchial mucus secretion

Answer 34

Leukotriene D4- synthesized by eosinophils and mast cells

Question 35

how can cirrhosis lead to splenomegaly

Answer 35

cirrhosis–> portal hypertension due to distortion of the hepatic vascular bed–> splenic vein hypertension and splenomegaly

Question 36

what is impetigo and what is it commonly caused by?

Answer 36

superficial infection of the skin associated with erythema and yellow “honey” crust

Staph aureus and Group A Strep

Staph aureus: bullae may form due to toxin production (bullous impetigo)

Question 37

gene mutation of achondroplasia (most common cause of dwarfism)

Answer 37

FGFR3 (fibroblast growth factor receptor 3)

proximal limb shortening and result short stature, midface hypoplasia, and frontal bossing

auto dom- and usually spontaneous

Question 38

maple syrup urine disease has a defect in what enzyme

Answer 38

branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase

and it needs thiamine (vitamin B1) as a coenzyme

so treat with thiamine supplementation and restriction of branched-chain amino acid in diet

Question 39

what is produced by the sertoli cells of the seminiferous epithelium and is secreted into the seminiferous tubule lumen

Answer 39

androgen-binding protein (ABP)- maintains the high local concentration of testosterone necessary for normal sperm production and maturation

Question 40

what do red safranin O stains?

Answer 40

cartilage, mast cell granules, and mucin red

Question 41

urine concentrations of what and what are elevated in patients with pheochromocytomas and other catecholamine-secreting tumors

Answer 41

metanephrines adn vanillylmandelic acid

-b/c epinephrine and norepinephrine are metabolized to metanephrine and normetanephrine (respectively), and subsquently to vanillylmandelic acid