Immunology 16L Flashcards

1
Q

Plasma cells are derived from _____

A

B cells

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2
Q

Effector T cells are derived from _____

A

T cells

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3
Q

Macrophages are derived from _____

A

monocytes

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4
Q

Neutrophils, Eosinophils and Basophils are all derived from ______

A

Granulocyte Macrophage Progenitor

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5
Q

Platelets are derived from ____

A

Megakaryocytes

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6
Q

Erythrocytes are derived from _____

A

Erythroblasts

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7
Q

A high affinity bridge formation on a forign body that enhances phagocytosis

A

opsonization

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8
Q

Any molecule that enhances phagocytosis by marking an antigen for an immune response

A

Opsonin

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9
Q

Antibodies can either do ______ by binding Bacterial toxins or _____ by binding the bacterial surface

A

Neutralization

Opsonization

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10
Q

The ______ system is used to classify antigens

A

CD

Cluster of Differentiation

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11
Q

These make up 60-70% of circulating white cells

A

Neutrophiles

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12
Q

These three types of cells are called lymphocytes

A

T cells
B cells
NK cells

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13
Q

These cells have some type of CD cell surface marker

A

T cells

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14
Q

These are large granular lymphocytes that that kill tumor cells and some virally infected cells

A

NK cells

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15
Q

Proteins that will alter the response of the immune system

A

Cytokines

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16
Q

Antiviral and anti-tumor activity. These molecules stimulate macrophages, T cells, B cells and NK cells

A

Interferons

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17
Q

These interferons are synthesized by macrophages, fibroblasts and others

A

Alpha and Beta interferons (also type I)

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18
Q

Produced by stimulated T cells, stimulates macrophages, and leads to differentiation of T cells and B cells

A

Gamma interferon (INF-γ)

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19
Q

This is the primary mediator of septic shock in humans and is responsible for vascular damage and fever

A

TNF-α

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20
Q

TNF-β is also called ______

A

lymphotoxin (LT)

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21
Q

the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself (a binding location)

A

Epitope

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22
Q

_____ form the antigen-binding site and are found on both light and heavy chains and contribute to the specificity of each antibody

A

Highly Variable Regions

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23
Q

This antibody is attached to B cells and is first to be used in an immune response

A

IgM

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24
Q

This antibody is on Mast cells and when triggered, causes the release of histamine

A

IgE

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25
Q

When B lymphocytes encounter a pathogen they differentiate into ______

A

plasma cells

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26
Q

The largest immunoglobulin is _____

A

IgM

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27
Q

Which type of immunoglobulin diffuse into extravascular sites?

A

IgG

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28
Q

Which type of immunoglobulin sensitizes mast cells?

A

IgE

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29
Q

Which type of immunoglobulin plays the largest role in neutralization?

A

IgG

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30
Q

These immunoglobulin are toxin neutralizing, agglutinating, opsonizing and bacteriolytic with the aid of the complement system

A

IgG

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31
Q

These immunoglobulin are the predominant class in serum

A

IgG

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32
Q

These immunoglobulin are the predominant class in secretions such as mother’s milk

A

IgA

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33
Q

These immunoglobulin are transported across epithelium

A

IgA

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34
Q

These immunoglobulin are responsible for immediate hypersensitivity

A

IgE

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35
Q

These immunoglobulin are fixed to mast cells and mediate changes in vascular permeability

A

IgE

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36
Q

These immunoglobulin are involved in host defense against parasitic infectoin

A

IgE

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37
Q

These immunoglobulin are transported across the placenta

A

IgG

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38
Q

The _______ region contains of the immunoglobulin contains the amino acid sequence that does antigen binding

A

variable region

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39
Q

Between the light chain and heavy chain of an immunoglobulin there is a (continuous surface/large gap) capable of providing complementarity with a specific antigen

A

continuous surface

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40
Q

K = [Ab Ag] / ([Ab] * [Ag]) is called the _____

A

Antibody affinity

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41
Q

Most antigens have (one/many) epitopes

A

many

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42
Q

The strength of binding of multivalent antiserum to multivalent antigen is called ______

A

avidity

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43
Q

The affinity for antigen binding of a population of antibodies is (heterogeneous/homogeneous)

A

There is a heterogeneity of affinity

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44
Q

Monospecific antibodies that are made by identical immune cells that are all clones of a unique parent cell

A

Monoclonal Antibodies

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45
Q

All drugs from monoclonal antibodies end with the suffix -_____

A

-mab

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46
Q

To make monoclonal antibodies, you must fuze the desired B-cells with ______ cells to grow them in vitro

A

plasmacytoma (myeloma) tumor cells

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47
Q

Cell sorting can be automated by ______

A

FACS: Fluorescence activated cell sorter (flow cytometry)

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48
Q

Western Blots are used for ______

A

seperating protiens

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49
Q

Describe the 6 steps for producing a monoclonal antibody

A

1) Immunize animal
2) isolate spleen
3) fuse spleen cells to plasmacytoma
4) Select for hybrid tumor-B-cells
5) Clone Hybridomas
6) Select clones you are interested in

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50
Q

What can you tell about an antigen by western blot but not by ELISA?

A

1) weight
2) amount of antigen
3) possible different forms of antigen

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51
Q

The period of time after initial exposure to an immunogen before a specific antibody can be detected

A

Lag or inductive phase

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52
Q

The 4 phases of the antibody production curve are:

A

1) lag phase
2) logarithmic (or exponential) growth
3) Steady State
4) Decline pahse

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53
Q

A protein that will kill you is called a ______

A

Toxin

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54
Q

Antigenically the same as a toxin, but biologically inactive

A

Toxiod

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55
Q

After initial exposure to an antigen, the resulting immune response is called the ____ response

A

secondary / memory

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56
Q

The secondary response has more (IgM/IgE/IgG)

A

IgG

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57
Q

The switch from IgM to IgG is called the _____ switch

A

Class Switch

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58
Q

Selection for the best antibody is based on _______

A

Binding affinity

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59
Q

The process of selecting the Antibody with the highest binding affinity is called _______

A

Affinity maturation

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60
Q

By the end of an infective process, the antibody _____ has developed the highest binding affinity

A

IgG

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61
Q

B cells can differentiate into ______ cells or _____ cells under stimulation by T-cells

A

plasma cells

memory cells

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62
Q

The unique set of antigenic determinants (epitopes) of the variable portion of an antibody is called the ______

A

idiotope

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63
Q

When a B-cell has an antibody that matches an infective antigen, it undergoes _____ _____ to make up to 1000 daughter cells to help clear the infection

A

clonal expantion

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64
Q

These cells are distinguished by the surface antigen CD4

A

T helper cells

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65
Q

These cells do endocytosis or phagocytosis to capture antigens and show them to B-cell

A

APCs, Antigen Presenting Cells

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66
Q

Two common APCs are _____ and ____

A

Macrophages
Dendritic cells
(and langerhans cells)

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67
Q

Antigen is presented by cells that bear _____ antigens

A

MHC

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68
Q

T-cells can help stimulate B-cells to turn into ______

A

Plasma cells

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69
Q

T-cells can stimulate B-cells to switch from producing _____ to producting ____

A

IgM to IgG

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70
Q

In addition to antigen processing, antigen presenting cells must also provide ______

A

a second, co-stimulating factor

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71
Q

Any agent capable of producing an immune response is an _____

A

Immunogen

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72
Q

Any agent that binds to components of the immune system is an _____

A

Antigen

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73
Q

The small molecule Hapten is (immunogenic/antigenic) but not (immunogenic/antigenic)

A

Hapten is antigenic but not immunogenic

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74
Q

The enzyme responsible for both class switching and somatic hypermutation is _______

A

AID

Activation-induced cytidine deaminase

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75
Q

RAG 1 deficiency leads to a lack of ___ cells and ___ cells

A

T cells and B cells

like bubble boy, severe combined immunodeficiency

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76
Q

These genes encode enzymes that are important for rearrangement and recombination of the genes of immunoglobulin and T cell receptor molecules during VDJ recombination

A

RAG

Recombination-activation gene

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77
Q

The sole purpose of a B-cell is to make an ______

A

immunoglobulin

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78
Q

For an early pro-B cell to rearrange the immunoglobulin heavy-chain genes it must express the recombination-activating genes ______ and ______

A

RAG-1 and RAG-2

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79
Q

The V, D and J segments of DNA are brought together by the recombinase genes _____ and _____

A

RAG-1 and RAG-2

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80
Q

Each immunoglobulin gene segment has ____ ______ which determine which segments can be joined to each other

A

signal sequences

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81
Q

Immunoglobulin can bind (linear/discontinuous/both) epitopes

A

Both linear and discontinuous

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82
Q

During the development of B cells, the arrays of V, D, and J segments are cut and re-spliced by DNA recombination. This is called _____

A

Somatic Recombination

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83
Q

The recombination of V, J, and D gene segments is directed by sequences called ________

A

Recombination Signal Sequences (RSSs)

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84
Q

The main differences between different V gene segments are in the sequences that encode _____ and _____ of the V domain

A

CDR1 and CDR2

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85
Q

____, _____ and ____ are the contact residues of the antigen that are selected for alteration

A

CDR1, CDR2 and CDR3

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86
Q

Most mechanisms of formation of the T-cell receptor are the same as the B-cell except the _____ ______

A

somatic hypermutation

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87
Q

Which immunoglobulin gene rearrangement happens first, D-J or V-DJ?

A

First D-J
(Second V-DJ
Then κ
Then λ)

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88
Q

Engagement of the ______ receptor in macrophages lead to transcription of inflammatory cytokines

A

toll-receptor

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89
Q

Circulating precursors to macrophages are called ______

A

Monocytes

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90
Q

These cells control the immune response to parasites

A

Basophiles

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91
Q

These lymphocytes are important in defense against viral infections

A

NK cells

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92
Q

This class of cells has different version, one that kills infected cells, a second that secretes cytokines and that activates macrophages and a third that controls activity of cytotoxic cells

A

T cells

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93
Q

Immunity due to antibodies and their actions is often known as ______ immunity

A

humoral

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94
Q

In the spleen, the ____ pulp is where RBCs are are monitored and removed, the ____ pulp is where WBCsgather to provide adaptive immunity

A

Red pulp

White Pulp

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95
Q

An IgG’s Fc region and Fab regions can be cleaved apart by an enzyme called a ______

A

protease

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96
Q

The V region of a heavy chain is encoded by the combination of one ___, one ___, and one ___ segment.

A

one V, one D, and one J segment

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97
Q

mutations occur with greater frequency in the (V/J) regions of the variable region

A

V

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98
Q

Light chains are composed of only two segments. which two? (V/D/J)

A

V + J

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99
Q

N nucleotides are added randomly to the end of a single strand by the enzyme _____

A

TdT

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

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100
Q

In Naive B cells, simultaneous expression of both μ and δ chains from the same heavy-chain locus is accomplished by ______ of the same primary RNA transcript and no rearrangement of genomic DNA

A

differential splicing

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101
Q

B cells rearrange their immunoglobulin genes in the bone marrow, the precursors of T cells leave the bone marrow and enter the lymphoid organ, _____, before they rearrange their T-cell receptor genes

A

the thymus

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102
Q

A molecule found on the surface of T lymphocytes that is responsible for recognizing antigens bound to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules

A

TCR

T Cell Receptor

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103
Q

Helper CD4+ T cells will only recognize MHC class (I/II) and become activated

A

Class II

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104
Q

Cytotoxic “killer T” CD8+ T cells only recognize MHC class (I/II).

A

Class I

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105
Q

DiGeorge syndrome (22q11.2 deletion) leads to congenital heart disease, defects in the palate, are athymic and effects which immune cells?

A

T cells

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106
Q

The ____ transcription factor expressed in the medulla of the thymus regulates the expression of tissue specific antigens. Prevents the immune system from attacking itself

A

AIRE

autoimmune regulator

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107
Q

The sum of all the T cell specificities produced in the thymus is known as the T cell _____

A

Repertoire

108
Q

N regions are found in (light chains, heavy chains, both)

A

Heavy chains only

109
Q

ALL joining junctions have (P nucleotides/ N nucleotides/ Both)

A

All joining junction have P nucleotides

Only developing B-cells have N nucleotides

110
Q

Heavy chains are selected from the gene at the level of (DNA/RNA)

111
Q

Progenitor B cells exclusively make Ig____

112
Q

The most variable part of the variable region, the part that does the antigen binding is called the _____

A

CDR

Complementarity Determining Region

113
Q

The enzyme that brings specific switching regions together to create looping out is called _____

A

AID

Activation-Induced cytidine Deaminase

114
Q

O antigen is an endotoxin found on gram negative bacteria and is the outermost part of the molecule _____

A

LPS

Lipopolysaccharides

115
Q

The endotoxic part of LPS is the ______ region, made up of a disaccharide of glucosamine

116
Q

Septic shock is associated with gram (negative/positive) infection

A

gram negative

117
Q

An assay that can be used to check for circulating levels of endotoxin is _____

A

LAL

Limulus Amebocyte Lysate

118
Q

The most important mediators of the inflammatory response are _____ and _____

A

Interleukin (IL-1)

and Tumor Necrosis Factors (TNF-α)

119
Q

LPS stimulates ________ cell type to produce IL-1 and TNF-α, which produce an inflammatory response

A

macrophages

120
Q

The primary mediator of septic shock is the molecule ______

121
Q

The inflammatory molecule ____ has been implicated in arthritis and Crohn’s disease

122
Q

Mature double positive T cell has both the ___ and ___ markers

A

CD4 and CD8

123
Q

A double positive T cell with CD4 and CD8 is type (α:β/γ:δ)

124
Q

Each Toll Receptor has (unique/the same) signaling transduction pathway

125
Q

When a Toll Like Receptor (TLR) engages a target (like LPS) it an intracellular cascade releases the molecule ______, that activates transcription of genes for inflammatory cytokines

126
Q

The TLR4 homodimer on macrophages is great at binding the endotoxin _____ produced by gram ______ bacteria

A

LPS produced by gram negative bacteria

127
Q

Cell Apoptosis –> release of ATP into ECM –> High ATP activates ______ –> cleavage of pro-IL-1β –> release of IL-1

128
Q

Cleavage of the pro-cytokine pro-IL-1β is done by _____ which causes the release of IL-1

129
Q

The two Super-Antigenic Toxins that mediate toxic shock are _____ and _____

A

TNF-α and IL-1

130
Q

The end result of both the classical and alternative pathways is the cleavage of C____

131
Q

In the complement system, the “b” fragment is bigger except for the molecule C____

132
Q

C3a, C4a and C5a are all ______, meaning that they cause release of histamine from mast cells and increase vascular permeability

A

Anaphlytoxins

133
Q

C5a does ____, meaning that it attracts polymorphonuclear leukocytes and macrophages

A

Chemotaxis

134
Q

C3b does _____, meaning that it increases phagocytosis of particles by granulocytes and macrophages

A

Opsinization

135
Q

A deficiency in C1, C2, or C4 will lead to ______

A

immune complex disease

136
Q

A deficiency in C3 will make you susceptible to ______

A

encapsulated bacteria

137
Q

A deficiency in C5 through C9 will leave you susceptible to _______

138
Q

Deficiency in Factor I leads to similar effects as a deficiency in ____

139
Q

The C1 complex binds to a single _______ bound on the surface of a bacterium. C1q binds to multiple.

A

antibodies

140
Q

C____ is a product of C3 convertase and binds to the bacteria surface and induces bacteria phagocytosis

141
Q

C5b, C6, C7, C8 and C9 all work together as part of the _____ pathway which pokes holes in a pathogen

A

Lytic pathway

142
Q

A measurement of complement activity: the dilution of serum that lyses 50% of RBCs

A

CH50

Complement Hemolysis

143
Q

This receptor on macrophages binds C3b on a bacterial surface as part of the signaling for phagocytosis

144
Q

This molecule binds an antibody on a bacterial surface and begins the complement system cascade

145
Q

MHC Class (I/II) can bind more residues outside (at either end) of the groove

146
Q

MHC class (I/II) is expressed on ALL nucleated cells

147
Q

MHC class (I/II) molecules are expressed on a subset of hematopoietic cells and thymic stromal cells

148
Q

(αβ/γδ)TCR recognizes an antigen bound to an APC’s MHC

149
Q

(αβ/γδ)TCR can recognizes a free (natural) antigen, similar to how a BCR works

150
Q

More MHC diversity makes you (more/less) resistant to infections such as HIV

151
Q

CLIP is Class (I/II)-associated invariant chain peptide that binds MHC class (I/II) groove to prevent the binding of self-peptide fragments

152
Q

These can act as bridge between TCR and MHC and stimulate high percentage of T cells without additional co-stimulation.

A

Super Anitgens

153
Q

The first immunoglobulin synthesized by a new born is _____

154
Q

One of the most important cytokines in the non-specific activation of MACROPHAGES as effector cells of cell mediated immunity is ______

155
Q

The primary function of the T cell is to monitor the ______ environment of the host cell

A

intracellular

156
Q

Somatic mutations (does/does not) take place in T cells

157
Q

Somatic mutation (does/does not) take place in B cells

A

does

how antigens are randomized

158
Q

There is a greater potential for diversity in (immunoglobulin/αβ TCRs)

159
Q

Recognition of specific antigen alone leads unresponsiveness, called ____

160
Q

The major T-cell co-stimulatory molecules found on other immune cells that binds CD28

A

B7 molecules

161
Q

The receptor on T cells for the B7 co-stimulatory molecules. Plays a key role in the activation and proliferation of T cells after they first encounter antigen

162
Q

The high affinity receptor for B7 molecules on T cell. Role in shutting off the B cell response

163
Q

Serine proteases in cytotoxic T cells and NK cells that induce cell death of target cells

164
Q

A cytokine made by naive T cells essential for their proliferation and differentiation by an autocrine response is _____

A

IL-2

Interlukin-2

165
Q

A hematopoetic growth factor secreted by stomal cells in the bone marrow and thymus as well as keratinocytes, dendritic cells, hepatocytes, etc. Important for T-cell development

A

IL-7

interlukin-7

166
Q

A protein made by the complement system lytic pathway (C-5 through C9) that drills holes in invading cells

167
Q

Bacterial proteins picked up by a dendritic cell will be presented on MHC class (I/II)

168
Q

Migration of naive T cells is modulated by mature T cells that express 3 types of molecules, ___, ___ and ___

A

Selectins, Integrins and Chemokine

169
Q

To stimulate a T cell, the dendritic cells must present it with matching antigen and co-stimulation by B7 binding _____

170
Q

Certain antigens, such as _____ antigens do not require a CD28 co-stimulation

A

super antigens

171
Q

Stimulation through CD28 (is/is not) required for naive T cells to become activated

A

Is required

172
Q

Production of cytokines IL-12 and INF-γ by macrophages induces this type of T cells to differentiate

173
Q

Production of cytokine IL-4 by basophiles induces this T cells to differentiate

174
Q

Production of cytokines IL-16 and IL-23 induces this T cells to differentiate

175
Q

Production of cytokine TGFβ induces this T cells to differentiate

A

Treg

T regulatory cells

176
Q

After killing one cell, a killer T cell (can/cannot) disengage to kill new target

177
Q

T cell activation can be regulated by ______, an inhibitory receptor for B7

178
Q

The MHC class I has __α chains and __β chains while class II has ___α and ___β

A

class I has 3α chains and 1β chain while class II has 2α and 2β

179
Q

TH1 cells secrete cytokines that induce activation of ______

A

macrophages

180
Q

With this diesase, patients do not generate mature B cells manifesting as a complete lack of antibodies in their bloodstream

A

XLA

X-linked agammaglobulinemia

181
Q

B cells require stimulation from T__cells to Proliferate, Class switch and Differentiate to plasma cells

182
Q

Which type of T cells activate macrophages?

183
Q

These T cells help eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and B cells respond to parasite infections

184
Q

Who does this?

  1. repertoire assembly
  2. negative selection
  3. positive selection
  4. search for infection
  5. find infection
  6. attack infection
185
Q

A “mature naive” B cells (has/has not) seen antigen

186
Q

The pre-B cell receptor signals that _____

A

a functional heavy chain has been made

187
Q

The two light chain loci used for gene rearrangement are denoted ____ and ____

A

kappa and

lambda

188
Q

The first checkpoint for B cells is the _____

A

pre-B cell receptor check

which checks the heavy chain

189
Q

The second checkpoint for B cells is ____

A

light chain check

checks both heavy and light

190
Q

What is the function of AID?

A

Involved in double stranded breaks to recombine DNA at switching regions

191
Q

Produced mostly in the fetus (B1/B2) cells

192
Q

Secrete mostly IgM (B1/B2) cells

193
Q
Made in bone marrow (B1/B2) 
Self regenerating (B1/B2)
A

Bone marrow B2

Self regenerating B1

194
Q

What does AIRE do?

A

causes expression of peripheral genes in thymus to reduce self-reactivity of T cells

195
Q

B cells are educated about self antigen in the ____ ____

A

bone marrow

196
Q

B cells that fail to recognize any self antigen in the bone marrow _____

A

exit as naive B cells

197
Q

If a B cells does recognize self in the bone marrow, it can re-express the RAG genes and try again through a process called ______

A

receptor editing

198
Q

Class switching for B cells occurs in the ____ of lymph nodes

A

germinal centers

199
Q

Interaction with follicular _____ cells drives the final maturation of B cells

A

dendritic cells

200
Q

Light chain rearrangement happens at which stag of B-cell development

201
Q

CR2 (also CD 21) of a B cells recognizes which components of the complement system bound on a pathogen?

A

iC3b and C3d (derivatives of C3b fragment)

202
Q

When CR2 recognizes C3b, CR1 comes along and uses _____ to cleave C3b to iC3b and C3d

203
Q

CR2 on B cells binds to ____ after C3b cleavage

204
Q

Cognate pairs of T and B cells meet up at the ____ of lymph nodes

A

boundary regions

of the follicle

205
Q

T and B cells see their targets differently
T cells see _____
B cells see _____

A

digested (processed) peptides

native (intact) antigen

206
Q

Somatic hypermutation occurs in ______

A

germinal centers

207
Q

Define Tolerance:

A

Lack of response to a specific antigen

208
Q

Tolerance is only relevant for __ and __ cells

A

T cells and B cells

209
Q

Anergy is a specific type of ____ where an immune cell does not respond anymore

210
Q

Selection in the thymus involve only the (α:β/γ:δ) T cells and not the (α:β/γ:δ) T cells

A

Selection in the thymus involve only the α:β T cells and not the γ:δ T cells

211
Q

Education of T cells in the thymus to prevent auto-immune disease is done by _____

A

AIRE

Autoimmune regulator

212
Q

T reg cells can be distinguished by the transcription factor ____

213
Q

Mutation of FoxP3 can lead to _____

A

lack of Tregs: autoimmune disease

214
Q

This T cell is FoxP3+, CD4+ and CD25+.

A

T reg cells

215
Q

T cells have (B7/CD28)

216
Q

APC cells have (B7/CD28)

217
Q

CTLA-4 binds (B7/CD28)

218
Q

If a B cell reacts with self antigen in the bone marrow, it is allowed to try to ______ before it dies

A

receptor edit

219
Q

A B cell that sees antigen, but doesn’t get T cell help becomes _____

220
Q

The AIRE protein is only in the (thymus/bone marrow)

221
Q

Activate cellular and antibody response to parasites (Th1/Th2)

222
Q

Most antigens are T (dependent/independent)

223
Q

Who is better educated about self and antigens (T/B) cells

A

T cells

due to AIRE

224
Q

Feedback that there is too much antibody is mediated though a B cells ____ receptor

225
Q

List the mechanisms for inducing immunological tolerance

A
  1. functional deletion
  2. clonal deletion
  3. clonal anergy
  4. regulatory T cells
226
Q

If you blocked all the B7, what would happen?

A

no immune response could be elicited

227
Q

Which bacteria can escape a phagosomes? (3)

A

Listeria
Mycobacter tuberculosis
Mycobacter leprae
(an gonorrhea)

228
Q

With Mycobacter leprae a Th1 response leads to (tuberculoid/lepromatous) infection

A

tuberculoid

229
Q

With Mycobacter leprae a Th2 response leads to (tuberculoid/lepromatous) infection

A

lepromatous

230
Q

Without T cells, you are more susceptible to (bacteria/viruses)

231
Q

The only way to cure SCID is _____

A

Bone marrow transplant

232
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinemia is due to a deficiency in _____

A

BTK

Bruton’s Tyrosine Kinase

233
Q

There are two types of NK cells _______ and _____

A

cytolytic and cytokine producing

234
Q

NK cells can kill (one/multiple) cells at a time

235
Q

IL___ and IL___ both activate NK cells

236
Q

NK cells express TLR numbers __, __ and __

A

3, 7,and 8

237
Q

the CD94:NKG2-A on NK cells interacts with _____ to prevent and NK cell from attacking a healthy cell

238
Q

In order for HLA-E to get out of the ER and to the cell surface it must have a ____ attached to it

A

leader protien

239
Q

Expression of MIC and CD48 on the surface of an infected cell tells the NK cell to ____

A

kill the infecetd cell

240
Q

Education for NK cells happens in the _____

A

bone marrow

241
Q

Killer Inhibitor Receptor (KIR) on NK cells allows them to recognize ______

A

HLA molecules (A, B or C)

242
Q

A special role of NK cells is in controlling ____ virus infection

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

243
Q

Class switch recombination is IL___

244
Q

Peripheral T cell homeostasis is IL___

245
Q

Abnormal embryonic development of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches is associated with _____ syndrome

246
Q

AIDS results in a loss of ____ T cells

247
Q

A compound that increases the immunogenicity of an antigen is called a _____

248
Q

The use of immune serum to give an immediate resistance to infection is called _____

A

Passive imunization

249
Q

A weakened virus that can replicate to a limited extent is called a _____vaccine

A

Live attenuated

250
Q

The actofimmunizingwithantigenstoinduceanimmune response to a pathogen

A

Active immunization

251
Q

CD94:NKG2-C is activating NK cell for control of _____ virus

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

252
Q

A class of antigens that cause non-specific activation of T-cells, resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release

A

Super Antigen

253
Q

Which Th cells is associated with asthma (Th1/Th2)

254
Q

Activated macrophages secrete IL__ and TNF__ to induce an inflammatory response

A

IL1 and TNF alpha

255
Q

An uncommitted T cell progenitor expresses CD__

256
Q

Cells that lack HLA-E are ____ ____

A

virally infected

257
Q

Cells that are virally infected do not express HLA-E and express ____ instead

258
Q

NK cells recognize HLA (A,B,C) via their ___

A

KIR

Killer inhibitory response

259
Q

IL__ from macrophages Induces fat and muscle to increase metabolism, raise body temp

260
Q

IL___ from macrophages recruits activated NK cells

261
Q

the enzyme AID is only expressed in ___ cells

262
Q

IL 4,5,6 are associated with (Th1/Th2)

263
Q

CD2 is found on the surface of ____ cells and ____ cells

A

T cells and NK cells

264
Q

Leader peptides from HLA A,B and C get stuck onto HLA-___

265
Q

HLAs corresponding to MHC class ___

A

MHC class I

266
Q

A Th1 response leads to activated _____

A

macrophages