Immunology 16L Flashcards
1
Q
Plasma cells are derived from _____
A
B cells
2
Q
Effector T cells are derived from _____
A
T cells
3
Q
Macrophages are derived from _____
A
monocytes
4
Q
Neutrophils, Eosinophils and Basophils are all derived from ______
A
Granulocyte Macrophage Progenitor
5
Q
Platelets are derived from ____
A
Megakaryocytes
6
Q
Erythrocytes are derived from _____
A
Erythroblasts
7
Q
A high affinity bridge formation on a forign body that enhances phagocytosis
A
opsonization
8
Q
Any molecule that enhances phagocytosis by marking an antigen for an immune response
A
Opsonin
9
Q
Antibodies can either do ______ by binding Bacterial toxins or _____ by binding the bacterial surface
A
Neutralization
Opsonization
10
Q
The ______ system is used to classify antigens
A
CD
Cluster of Differentiation
11
Q
These make up 60-70% of circulating white cells
A
Neutrophiles
12
Q
These three types of cells are called lymphocytes
A
T cells
B cells
NK cells
13
Q
These cells have some type of CD cell surface marker
A
T cells
14
Q
These are large granular lymphocytes that that kill tumor cells and some virally infected cells
A
NK cells
15
Q
Proteins that will alter the response of the immune system
A
Cytokines
16
Q
Antiviral and anti-tumor activity. These molecules stimulate macrophages, T cells, B cells and NK cells
A
Interferons
17
Q
These interferons are synthesized by macrophages, fibroblasts and others
A
Alpha and Beta interferons (also type I)
18
Q
Produced by stimulated T cells, stimulates macrophages, and leads to differentiation of T cells and B cells
A
Gamma interferon (INF-γ)
19
Q
This is the primary mediator of septic shock in humans and is responsible for vascular damage and fever
A
TNF-α
20
Q
TNF-β is also called ______
A
lymphotoxin (LT)
21
Q
the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself (a binding location)
A
Epitope
22
Q
_____ form the antigen-binding site and are found on both light and heavy chains and contribute to the specificity of each antibody
A
Highly Variable Regions
23
Q
This antibody is attached to B cells and is first to be used in an immune response
A
IgM
24
Q
This antibody is on Mast cells and when triggered, causes the release of histamine
A
IgE
25
When B lymphocytes encounter a pathogen they differentiate into ______
plasma cells
26
The largest immunoglobulin is _____
IgM
27
Which type of immunoglobulin diffuse into extravascular sites?
IgG
28
Which type of immunoglobulin sensitizes mast cells?
IgE
29
Which type of immunoglobulin plays the largest role in neutralization?
IgG
30
These immunoglobulin are toxin neutralizing, agglutinating, opsonizing and bacteriolytic with the aid of the complement system
IgG
31
These immunoglobulin are the predominant class in serum
IgG
32
These immunoglobulin are the predominant class in secretions such as mother's milk
IgA
33
These immunoglobulin are transported across epithelium
IgA
34
These immunoglobulin are responsible for immediate hypersensitivity
IgE
35
These immunoglobulin are fixed to mast cells and mediate changes in vascular permeability
IgE
36
These immunoglobulin are involved in host defense against parasitic infectoin
IgE
37
These immunoglobulin are transported across the placenta
IgG
38
The _______ region contains of the immunoglobulin contains the amino acid sequence that does antigen binding
variable region
39
Between the light chain and heavy chain of an immunoglobulin there is a (continuous surface/large gap) capable of providing complementarity with a specific antigen
continuous surface
40
K = [Ab Ag] / ([Ab] * [Ag]) is called the _____
Antibody affinity
41
Most antigens have (one/many) epitopes
many
42
The strength of binding of multivalent antiserum to multivalent antigen is called ______
avidity
43
The affinity for antigen binding of a population of antibodies is (heterogeneous/homogeneous)
There is a heterogeneity of affinity
44
Monospecific antibodies that are made by identical immune cells that are all clones of a unique parent cell
Monoclonal Antibodies
45
All drugs from monoclonal antibodies end with the suffix -_____
-mab
46
To make monoclonal antibodies, you must fuze the desired B-cells with ______ cells to grow them in vitro
plasmacytoma (myeloma) tumor cells
47
Cell sorting can be automated by ______
FACS: Fluorescence activated cell sorter (flow cytometry)
48
Western Blots are used for ______
seperating protiens
49
Describe the 6 steps for producing a monoclonal antibody
1) Immunize animal
2) isolate spleen
3) fuse spleen cells to plasmacytoma
4) Select for hybrid tumor-B-cells
5) Clone Hybridomas
6) Select clones you are interested in
50
What can you tell about an antigen by western blot but not by ELISA?
1) weight
2) amount of antigen
3) possible different forms of antigen
51
The period of time after initial exposure to an immunogen before a specific antibody can be detected
Lag or inductive phase
52
The 4 phases of the antibody production curve are:
1) lag phase
2) logarithmic (or exponential) growth
3) Steady State
4) Decline pahse
53
A protein that will kill you is called a ______
Toxin
54
Antigenically the same as a toxin, but biologically inactive
Toxiod
55
After initial exposure to an antigen, the resulting immune response is called the ____ response
secondary / memory
56
The secondary response has more (IgM/IgE/IgG)
IgG
57
The switch from IgM to IgG is called the _____ switch
Class Switch
58
Selection for the best antibody is based on _______
Binding affinity
59
The process of selecting the Antibody with the highest binding affinity is called _______
Affinity maturation
60
By the end of an infective process, the antibody _____ has developed the highest binding affinity
IgG
61
B cells can differentiate into ______ cells or _____ cells under stimulation by T-cells
plasma cells
| memory cells
62
The unique set of antigenic determinants (epitopes) of the variable portion of an antibody is called the ______
idiotope
63
When a B-cell has an antibody that matches an infective antigen, it undergoes _____ _____ to make up to 1000 daughter cells to help clear the infection
clonal expantion
64
These cells are distinguished by the surface antigen CD4
T helper cells
65
These cells do endocytosis or phagocytosis to capture antigens and show them to B-cell
APCs, Antigen Presenting Cells
66
Two common APCs are _____ and ____
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
(and langerhans cells)
67
Antigen is presented by cells that bear _____ antigens
MHC
68
T-cells can help stimulate B-cells to turn into ______
Plasma cells
69
T-cells can stimulate B-cells to switch from producing _____ to producting ____
IgM to IgG
70
In addition to antigen processing, antigen presenting cells must also provide ______
a second, co-stimulating factor
71
Any agent capable of producing an immune response is an _____
Immunogen
72
Any agent that binds to components of the immune system is an _____
Antigen
73
The small molecule Hapten is (immunogenic/antigenic) but not (immunogenic/antigenic)
Hapten is antigenic but not immunogenic
74
The enzyme responsible for both class switching and somatic hypermutation is _______
AID
| Activation-induced cytidine deaminase
75
RAG 1 deficiency leads to a lack of ___ cells and ___ cells
T cells and B cells
| like bubble boy, severe combined immunodeficiency
76
These genes encode enzymes that are important for rearrangement and recombination of the genes of immunoglobulin and T cell receptor molecules during VDJ recombination
RAG
| Recombination-activation gene
77
The sole purpose of a B-cell is to make an ______
immunoglobulin
78
For an early pro-B cell to rearrange the immunoglobulin heavy-chain genes it must express the recombination-activating genes ______ and ______
RAG-1 and RAG-2
79
The V, D and J segments of DNA are brought together by the recombinase genes _____ and _____
RAG-1 and RAG-2
80
Each immunoglobulin gene segment has ____ ______ which determine which segments can be joined to each other
signal sequences
81
Immunoglobulin can bind (linear/discontinuous/both) epitopes
Both linear and discontinuous
82
During the development of B cells, the arrays of V, D, and J segments are cut and re-spliced by DNA recombination. This is called _____
Somatic Recombination
83
The recombination of V, J, and D gene segments is directed by sequences called ________
Recombination Signal Sequences (RSSs)
84
The main differences between different V gene segments are in the sequences that encode _____ and _____ of the V domain
CDR1 and CDR2
85
____, _____ and ____ are the contact residues of the antigen that are selected for alteration
CDR1, CDR2 and CDR3
86
Most mechanisms of formation of the T-cell receptor are the same as the B-cell except the _____ ______
somatic hypermutation
87
Which immunoglobulin gene rearrangement happens first, D-J or V-DJ?
First D-J
(Second V-DJ
Then κ
Then λ)
88
Engagement of the ______ receptor in macrophages lead to transcription of inflammatory cytokines
toll-receptor
89
Circulating precursors to macrophages are called ______
Monocytes
90
These cells control the immune response to parasites
Basophiles
91
These lymphocytes are important in defense against viral infections
NK cells
92
This class of cells has different version, one that kills infected cells, a second that secretes cytokines and that activates macrophages and a third that controls activity of cytotoxic cells
T cells
93
Immunity due to antibodies and their actions is often known as ______ immunity
humoral
94
In the spleen, the ____ pulp is where RBCs are are monitored and removed, the ____ pulp is where WBCsgather to provide adaptive immunity
Red pulp
| White Pulp
95
An IgG's Fc region and Fab regions can be cleaved apart by an enzyme called a ______
protease
96
The V region of a heavy chain is encoded by the combination of one ___, one ___, and one ___ segment.
one V, one D, and one J segment
97
mutations occur with greater frequency in the (V/J) regions of the variable region
V
98
Light chains are composed of only two segments. which two? (V/D/J)
V + J
99
N nucleotides are added randomly to the end of a single strand by the enzyme _____
TdT
| Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
100
In Naive B cells, simultaneous expression of both μ and δ chains from the same heavy-chain locus is accomplished by ______ of the same primary RNA transcript and no rearrangement of genomic DNA
differential splicing
101
B cells rearrange their immunoglobulin genes in the bone marrow, the precursors of T cells leave the bone marrow and enter the lymphoid organ, _____, before they rearrange their T-cell receptor genes
the thymus
102
A molecule found on the surface of T lymphocytes that is responsible for recognizing antigens bound to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules
TCR
| T Cell Receptor
103
Helper CD4+ T cells will only recognize MHC class (I/II) and become activated
Class II
104
Cytotoxic "killer T" CD8+ T cells only recognize MHC class (I/II).
Class I
105
DiGeorge syndrome (22q11.2 deletion) leads to congenital heart disease, defects in the palate, are athymic and effects which immune cells?
T cells
106
The ____ transcription factor expressed in the medulla of the thymus regulates the expression of tissue specific antigens. Prevents the immune system from attacking itself
AIRE
| autoimmune regulator
107
The sum of all the T cell specificities produced in the thymus is known as the T cell _____
Repertoire
108
N regions are found in (light chains, heavy chains, both)
Heavy chains only
109
ALL joining junctions have (P nucleotides/ N nucleotides/ Both)
All joining junction have P nucleotides
| Only developing B-cells have N nucleotides
110
Heavy chains are selected from the gene at the level of (DNA/RNA)
RNA
111
Progenitor B cells exclusively make Ig____
IgM
112
The most variable part of the variable region, the part that does the antigen binding is called the _____
CDR
| Complementarity Determining Region
113
The enzyme that brings specific switching regions together to create looping out is called _____
AID
| Activation-Induced cytidine Deaminase
114
O antigen is an endotoxin found on gram negative bacteria and is the outermost part of the molecule _____
LPS
| Lipopolysaccharides
115
The endotoxic part of LPS is the ______ region, made up of a disaccharide of glucosamine
Lipid A
116
Septic shock is associated with gram (negative/positive) infection
gram negative
117
An assay that can be used to check for circulating levels of endotoxin is _____
LAL
| Limulus Amebocyte Lysate
118
The most important mediators of the inflammatory response are _____ and _____
Interleukin (IL-1)
| and Tumor Necrosis Factors (TNF-α)
119
LPS stimulates ________ cell type to produce IL-1 and TNF-α, which produce an inflammatory response
macrophages
120
The primary mediator of septic shock is the molecule ______
TNF-α
121
The inflammatory molecule ____ has been implicated in arthritis and Crohn's disease
TNF-α
122
Mature double positive T cell has both the ___ and ___ markers
CD4 and CD8
123
A double positive T cell with CD4 and CD8 is type (α:β/γ:δ)
αβ
124
Each Toll Receptor has (unique/the same) signaling transduction pathway
The same
125
When a Toll Like Receptor (TLR) engages a target (like LPS) it an intracellular cascade releases the molecule ______, that activates transcription of genes for inflammatory cytokines
NFκB
126
The TLR4 homodimer on macrophages is great at binding the endotoxin _____ produced by gram ______ bacteria
LPS produced by gram negative bacteria
127
Cell Apoptosis --> release of ATP into ECM --> High ATP activates ______ --> cleavage of pro-IL-1β --> release of IL-1
capsase 1
128
Cleavage of the pro-cytokine pro-IL-1β is done by _____ which causes the release of IL-1
capsase 1
129
The two Super-Antigenic Toxins that mediate toxic shock are _____ and _____
TNF-α and IL-1
130
The end result of both the classical and alternative pathways is the cleavage of C____
C3
131
In the complement system, the "b" fragment is bigger except for the molecule C____
C2
132
C3a, C4a and C5a are all ______, meaning that they cause release of histamine from mast cells and increase vascular permeability
Anaphlytoxins
133
C5a does ____, meaning that it attracts polymorphonuclear leukocytes and macrophages
Chemotaxis
134
C3b does _____, meaning that it increases phagocytosis of particles by granulocytes and macrophages
Opsinization
135
A deficiency in C1, C2, or C4 will lead to ______
immune complex disease
136
A deficiency in C3 will make you susceptible to ______
encapsulated bacteria
137
A deficiency in C5 through C9 will leave you susceptible to _______
Neisseria
138
Deficiency in Factor I leads to similar effects as a deficiency in ____
C3
139
The C1 complex binds to a single _______ bound on the surface of a bacterium. C1q binds to multiple.
antibodies
140
C____ is a product of C3 convertase and binds to the bacteria surface and induces bacteria phagocytosis
C3b
141
C5b, C6, C7, C8 and C9 all work together as part of the _____ pathway which pokes holes in a pathogen
Lytic pathway
142
A measurement of complement activity: the dilution of serum that lyses 50% of RBCs
CH50
| Complement Hemolysis
143
This receptor on macrophages binds C3b on a bacterial surface as part of the signaling for phagocytosis
CR1
144
This molecule binds an antibody on a bacterial surface and begins the complement system cascade
C1q
145
MHC Class (I/II) can bind more residues outside (at either end) of the groove
Class II
146
MHC class (I/II) is expressed on ALL nucleated cells
Class I
147
MHC class (I/II) molecules are expressed on a subset of hematopoietic cells and thymic stromal cells
Class II
148
(αβ/γδ)TCR recognizes an antigen bound to an APC's MHC
αβTCR
149
(αβ/γδ)TCR can recognizes a free (natural) antigen, similar to how a BCR works
γδTCR
150
More MHC diversity makes you (more/less) resistant to infections such as HIV
more
151
CLIP is Class (I/II)-associated invariant chain peptide that binds MHC class (I/II) groove to prevent the binding of self-peptide fragments
Class II
152
These can act as bridge between TCR and MHC and stimulate high percentage of T cells without additional co-stimulation.
Super Anitgens
153
The first immunoglobulin synthesized by a new born is _____
IgM
154
One of the most important cytokines in the non-specific activation of MACROPHAGES as effector cells of cell mediated immunity is ______
IFNγ
155
The primary function of the T cell is to monitor the ______ environment of the host cell
intracellular
156
Somatic mutations (does/does not) take place in T cells
does not
157
Somatic mutation (does/does not) take place in B cells
does
| how antigens are randomized
158
There is a greater potential for diversity in (immunoglobulin/αβ TCRs)
αβ TCRs
159
Recognition of specific antigen alone leads unresponsiveness, called ____
Anergy
160
The major T-cell co-stimulatory molecules found on other immune cells that binds CD28
B7 molecules
161
The receptor on T cells for the B7 co-stimulatory molecules. Plays a key role in the activation and proliferation of T cells after they first encounter antigen
CD28
162
The high affinity receptor for B7 molecules on T cell. Role in shutting off the B cell response
CTLA-4
163
Serine proteases in cytotoxic T cells and NK cells that induce cell death of target cells
Granzymes
164
A cytokine made by naive T cells essential for their proliferation and differentiation by an autocrine response is _____
IL-2
| Interlukin-2
165
A hematopoetic growth factor secreted by stomal cells in the bone marrow and thymus as well as keratinocytes, dendritic cells, hepatocytes, etc. Important for T-cell development
IL-7
| interlukin-7
166
A protein made by the complement system lytic pathway (C-5 through C9) that drills holes in invading cells
perforin
167
Bacterial proteins picked up by a dendritic cell will be presented on MHC class (I/II)
Class II
168
Migration of naive T cells is modulated by mature T cells that express 3 types of molecules, ___, ___ and ___
Selectins, Integrins and Chemokine
169
To stimulate a T cell, the dendritic cells must present it with matching antigen and co-stimulation by B7 binding _____
CD28
170
Certain antigens, such as _____ antigens do not require a CD28 co-stimulation
super antigens
171
Stimulation through CD28 (is/is not) required for naive T cells to become activated
Is required
172
Production of cytokines IL-12 and INF-γ by macrophages induces this type of T cells to differentiate
Th1 cells
173
Production of cytokine IL-4 by basophiles induces this T cells to differentiate
Th2 cells
174
Production of cytokines IL-16 and IL-23 induces this T cells to differentiate
Tfh cells
175
Production of cytokine TGFβ induces this T cells to differentiate
Treg
| T regulatory cells
176
After killing one cell, a killer T cell (can/cannot) disengage to kill new target
can
177
T cell activation can be regulated by ______, an inhibitory receptor for B7
CTLA-4
178
The MHC class I has __α chains and __β chains while class II has ___α and ___β
class I has 3α chains and 1β chain while class II has 2α and 2β
179
TH1 cells secrete cytokines that induce activation of ______
macrophages
180
With this diesase, patients do not generate mature B cells manifesting as a complete lack of antibodies in their bloodstream
XLA
| X-linked agammaglobulinemia
181
B cells require stimulation from T__cells to Proliferate, Class switch and Differentiate to plasma cells
Th2 cells
182
Which type of T cells activate macrophages?
Th1 cells
183
These T cells help eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and B cells respond to parasite infections
Th2 cells
184
Who does this?
1. repertoire assembly
2. negative selection
3. positive selection
4. search for infection
5. find infection
6. attack infection
B cells
185
A "mature naive" B cells (has/has not) seen antigen
has not
186
The pre-B cell receptor signals that _____
a functional heavy chain has been made
187
The two light chain loci used for gene rearrangement are denoted ____ and ____
kappa and
| lambda
188
The first checkpoint for B cells is the _____
pre-B cell receptor check
| which checks the heavy chain
189
The second checkpoint for B cells is ____
light chain check
| checks both heavy and light
190
What is the function of AID?
Involved in double stranded breaks to recombine DNA at switching regions
191
Produced mostly in the fetus (B1/B2) cells
B1
192
Secrete mostly IgM (B1/B2) cells
B1
193
```
Made in bone marrow (B1/B2)
Self regenerating (B1/B2)
```
Bone marrow B2
| Self regenerating B1
194
What does AIRE do?
causes expression of peripheral genes in thymus to reduce self-reactivity of T cells
195
B cells are educated about self antigen in the ____ ____
bone marrow
196
B cells that fail to recognize any self antigen in the bone marrow _____
exit as naive B cells
197
If a B cells does recognize self in the bone marrow, it can re-express the RAG genes and try again through a process called ______
receptor editing
198
Class switching for B cells occurs in the ____ of lymph nodes
germinal centers
199
Interaction with follicular _____ cells drives the final maturation of B cells
dendritic cells
200
Light chain rearrangement happens at which stag of B-cell development
Pre-B
201
CR2 (also CD 21) of a B cells recognizes which components of the complement system bound on a pathogen?
iC3b and C3d (derivatives of C3b fragment)
202
When CR2 recognizes C3b, CR1 comes along and uses _____ to cleave C3b to iC3b and C3d
factor 1
203
CR2 on B cells binds to ____ after C3b cleavage
C3d
204
Cognate pairs of T and B cells meet up at the ____ of lymph nodes
boundary regions
| of the follicle
205
T and B cells see their targets differently
T cells see _____
B cells see _____
digested (processed) peptides
| native (intact) antigen
206
Somatic hypermutation occurs in ______
germinal centers
207
Define Tolerance:
Lack of response to a specific antigen
208
Tolerance is only relevant for __ and __ cells
T cells and B cells
209
Anergy is a specific type of ____ where an immune cell does not respond anymore
tolerance
210
Selection in the thymus involve only the (α:β/γ:δ) T cells and not the (α:β/γ:δ) T cells
Selection in the thymus involve only the α:β T cells and not the γ:δ T cells
211
Education of T cells in the thymus to prevent auto-immune disease is done by _____
AIRE
| Autoimmune regulator
212
T reg cells can be distinguished by the transcription factor ____
FoxP3
213
Mutation of FoxP3 can lead to _____
lack of Tregs: autoimmune disease
214
This T cell is FoxP3+, CD4+ and CD25+.
T reg cells
215
T cells have (B7/CD28)
CD28
216
APC cells have (B7/CD28)
B7
217
CTLA-4 binds (B7/CD28)
B7
218
If a B cell reacts with self antigen in the bone marrow, it is allowed to try to ______ before it dies
receptor edit
219
A B cell that sees antigen, but doesn't get T cell help becomes _____
anergic
220
The AIRE protein is only in the (thymus/bone marrow)
thymus
221
Activate cellular and antibody response to parasites (Th1/Th2)
Th2
222
Most antigens are T (dependent/independent)
depndent
223
Who is better educated about self and antigens (T/B) cells
T cells
| due to AIRE
224
Feedback that there is too much antibody is mediated though a B cells ____ receptor
Fc
225
List the mechanisms for inducing immunological tolerance
1. functional deletion
2. clonal deletion
3. clonal anergy
4. regulatory T cells
226
If you blocked all the B7, what would happen?
no immune response could be elicited
227
Which bacteria can escape a phagosomes? (3)
Listeria
Mycobacter tuberculosis
Mycobacter leprae
(an gonorrhea)
228
With Mycobacter leprae a Th1 response leads to (tuberculoid/lepromatous) infection
tuberculoid
229
With Mycobacter leprae a Th2 response leads to (tuberculoid/lepromatous) infection
lepromatous
230
Without T cells, you are more susceptible to (bacteria/viruses)
viruses
231
The only way to cure SCID is _____
Bone marrow transplant
232
X-linked agammaglobulinemia is due to a deficiency in _____
BTK
| Bruton's Tyrosine Kinase
233
There are two types of NK cells _______ and _____
cytolytic and cytokine producing
234
NK cells can kill (one/multiple) cells at a time
one
235
IL___ and IL___ both activate NK cells
12 and 15
236
NK cells express TLR numbers __, __ and __
3, 7,and 8
237
the CD94:NKG2-A on NK cells interacts with _____ to prevent and NK cell from attacking a healthy cell
HLA-E
238
In order for HLA-E to get out of the ER and to the cell surface it must have a ____ attached to it
leader protien
239
Expression of MIC and CD48 on the surface of an infected cell tells the NK cell to ____
kill the infecetd cell
240
Education for NK cells happens in the _____
bone marrow
241
Killer Inhibitor Receptor (KIR) on NK cells allows them to recognize ______
HLA molecules (A, B or C)
242
A special role of NK cells is in controlling ____ virus infection
cytomegalovirus (CMV)
243
Class switch recombination is IL___
IL4
244
Peripheral T cell homeostasis is IL___
IL2
245
Abnormal embryonic development of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches is associated with _____ syndrome
DiGeorge
246
AIDS results in a loss of ____ T cells
CD4+
247
A compound that increases the immunogenicity of an antigen is called a _____
adjuvant
248
The use of immune serum to give an immediate resistance to infection is called _____
Passive imunization
249
A weakened virus that can replicate to a limited extent is called a _____vaccine
Live attenuated
250
The act of immunizing with antigens to induce an immune response to a pathogen
Active immunization
251
CD94:NKG2-C is activating NK cell for control of _____ virus
cytomegalovirus (CMV)
252
A class of antigens that cause non-specific activation of T-cells, resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release
Super Antigen
253
Which Th cells is associated with asthma (Th1/Th2)
Th2
254
Activated macrophages secrete IL__ and TNF__ to induce an inflammatory response
IL1 and TNF alpha
255
An uncommitted T cell progenitor expresses CD__
34
256
Cells that lack HLA-E are ____ ____
virally infected
257
Cells that are virally infected do not express HLA-E and express ____ instead
MIC
258
NK cells recognize HLA (A,B,C) via their ___
KIR
| Killer inhibitory response
259
IL__ from macrophages Induces fat and muscle to increase metabolism, raise body temp
IL-6
260
IL___ from macrophages recruits activated NK cells
IL-12
261
the enzyme AID is only expressed in ___ cells
B cells
262
IL 4,5,6 are associated with (Th1/Th2)
Th2
263
CD2 is found on the surface of ____ cells and ____ cells
T cells and NK cells
264
Leader peptides from HLA A,B and C get stuck onto HLA-___
HLA-E
265
HLAs corresponding to MHC class ___
MHC class I
266
A Th1 response leads to activated _____
macrophages
