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Farrell > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

SLE

A

systematic lupus erythematosus, chronic autoimmune disease resulting in inflammation and tissue damage

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2
Q

Signs and symptoms of Lupus

A

painful or swollen joints and muscle pain, unexplained fever, rashes, chest pain when deep breathing, hair loss, Raynaud’s, sun sensitivity, edema, mouth ulcers, swollen glands, extreme fatigue

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3
Q

Malar rash

A

erythema, spares the nasolabial folds, photosensitive, can be transient

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4
Q

Discoid lupus

A

Can be part of SLE or by itself, 10% will develop SLE, coin-shaped scaly plaques, expand to form lesions with depressed central scarring, increase skin pigment around edge, anywhere on body

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5
Q

Cardiac manifestations of SLE

A

pericarditis, myocarditis, congestive heart failure, hypertension, coronary vasculitis, Libman-Sacks endocarditis, valvular insufficiency

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6
Q

First line of defense is

A

Skin

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7
Q

Cilia

A

sweep mucus into the throat for coughing or swallowing

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8
Q

Acid

A

swallowed bacteria are broken down by acids in stomach

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9
Q

Second line of defense is

A

WBCs

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10
Q

Third line of defense is

A

antibodies

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11
Q

Passive immunity

A

immunity from an external source, like antibodies through placenta

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12
Q

Active immunity

A

you produce the antibodies, exposed to antigen and fought off

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13
Q

FAB

A

fragment, antigen binding

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14
Q

Fc

A

fragment, crystalline

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15
Q

Monomer

A

Y-shaped molecule with 4 protein chains, 2 identical light chains and 2 identical heavy chains

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16
Q

Variable regions

A

2 sections at the end of Y’s arms, contain FAB, identical on same antibody, but vary from one antibody to another

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17
Q

Constant regions

A

stem of monomer and lower parts of Y arms

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18
Q

Fc region

A

stem of monomer only, can bind to complement or cells

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19
Q

IgM

A

produced as 1st response, levels remain high transiently

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20
Q

IgG

A

produced after IgM, higher levels in small amounts throughout life, produced in large amounts during secondary phase

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21
Q

IgA

A

neutralizes microbes and toxins

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22
Q

IgE

A

anaphylaxis, immunity to helminthic parasites

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23
Q

B cells are stimulated by

A

CD40, which is expressed on T cells

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24
Q

Plasma cells

A

mature B cells, produce high affinity antibodies against original antigen

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25
T cells receptors
recognize pieces of antigen, antigenic peptides are presented to TCRs by antigen presenting cells like Macrophages or dendrocytes
26
What are the co-receptors for the TCR?
CD4 and CD8
27
Activated T cells increase expression of
CD25
28
CD8+ T cells
generated in the Thymus and express the TCR, express CD8, recognize peptides presented by MHC Class 1 molecules
29
What happens when a CD8+ T cell recognizes an antigen and is activated?
Cytokines TNF-alpha and IFN-y are secreted, cytotoxic granules are released, Fas/FasL destroy infected cells
30
Types of memory T cells
Central memory T cells and Effector Memory T cells
31
Central Memory T Cells
circulate through secondary lymphoid tissues, slower but more robust response
32
Effector Memory T Cells
in non-lymphoid tissues, respond immediately
33
Regulatory T cells
CD4+ and CD25+, produce IL-10, TGF-beta, and IL-35, must recognize same MHC peptide as the effector T cell
34
Cytokines
TGF-beta1 and IL-10
35
TLRs
pattern recognition receptors that initiate innate immune response by detecting possible antigens
36
What TLR recognize bacterial lipids?
TLR 1, 2, 4 and 6
37
What TLR recognize viral RNA?
TLR 3, 7, and 8
38
What TLR recognize bacterial RNA?
TLR 9
39
What TLR recognize bacterial or parasite proteins?
TLR 5 and 10
40
TLR adaptors
TLR signaling initiates with the recruitment of adaptors proteins to their tail, MYD88 and TRIF
41
What 3 pathways are activated by TLRs?
MAP kinase pathway, NFkB pathway, and IRF pathway
42
Innate immunity
protection by skin and mucous membranes, phagocytic cells, NK cells, complement system
43
Natural immunity
Lymphocytes, macrophages, Mast cells, and dendritic cells
44
Steps of phagocytosis
1. physical contact between the white cell and the foreign particle 2. formation of a phagosome 3. fusion with cytoplasmic granules to form a phagolysosome 4. digestion and release of debris to the outside
45
4 complement functions
lysis, opsonization, activation of inflammatory response, and clearance of immune complexes
46
Cell lysis
lyse bacteria, parasites, viruses, erythrocytes, and nucleated cells (tumor cells)
47
Inflammatory response
C3a, C4a, and C5a bind to complement receptors on mast cells and basophils and induce degranulation with release of histamine and other mediators
48
Anaphylatoxins
induce smooth-muscle contraction increase vascular permeability, extravasation and chemoattraction, induce by C5a, C3a, and C5b67
49
Opsonization
C3b is the major opsonin of the complement system
50
Viral neutralization
deposits of antibody and complement on viral particles neutralize viral infectivity by blocking viral attachment to susceptible host cells and facilitates binding of viral particle to FcR or CR1
51
Risks of Asplenia
Fulminant sepsis
52
What does ToRCHeS stand for?
Toxoplasma gondii, RSV, CMV, HSV, and Syphilis
53
Complement fixation?
classical technique for detection and identification of the presence of Ag-Ab complexes
54
Positive complement fixation test
Antibody in sample + antigen + complement -> Ag-Ab complex fixed with complement Complement fixed Ag-Ab + indicator system -> no change
55
Negative complement fixation test
Sample with no antibody + antigen + complement -> free complement antigen + antibody in indicator system -> Ag-Ab complex Ag-Ab complex + complement -> fixed complement system -> hemolysis
56
Meconium
Meconium in the amniotic fluid because the baby does not poop, Causes infants death.
57
Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is
a serious gastrointestinal problem that mostly affects premature babies.
58
Galactosemia
a rare, hereditary disorder of carbohydrate metabolism that affects the body's ability to convert galactose to glucose.
59
PJP infection has what CD4 count?
200, treated with TMP/SMX
60
Toxo and Crypto have what CD4 count?
100, treated with TMP/SMX
61
CMV and MAC have what CD4 count?
50, treated with Z-pak
62
Toxoplasma gondii
no vaccine, seen commonly in cats
63
Vertical transmission
If it is tested on the torch panel it can be transferred using vertical transmission
64
Disgnosing syphilis not in newborns
RPR/VDRL, MHA-To/FTA-ABS
65
RPR
non-treponemal, agglutination assay
66
Low avidity
If it is tested on the torch panel it can be transferred using vertical transmission
67
The strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen is termed ______?
Avidity
68
Syphilis culture
T. pallidum cannot be grown in culture, Warthin Starry stain used
69
IgG in infants
can last up to 6 months
70
Secondary and tertiary syphilis
RPR positive
71
If a person has HBeAg
super infectious and easily spreads virus

Farrell (6 decks)

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