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Farrell > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

SLE

A

systematic lupus erythematosus, chronic autoimmune disease resulting in inflammation and tissue damage

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2
Q

Signs and symptoms of Lupus

A

painful or swollen joints and muscle pain, unexplained fever, rashes, chest pain when deep breathing, hair loss, Raynaud’s, sun sensitivity, edema, mouth ulcers, swollen glands, extreme fatigue

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3
Q

Malar rash

A

erythema, spares the nasolabial folds, photosensitive, can be transient

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4
Q

Discoid lupus

A

Can be part of SLE or by itself, 10% will develop SLE, coin-shaped scaly plaques, expand to form lesions with depressed central scarring, increase skin pigment around edge, anywhere on body

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5
Q

Cardiac manifestations of SLE

A

pericarditis, myocarditis, congestive heart failure, hypertension, coronary vasculitis, Libman-Sacks endocarditis, valvular insufficiency

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6
Q

First line of defense is

A

Skin

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7
Q

Cilia

A

sweep mucus into the throat for coughing or swallowing

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8
Q

Acid

A

swallowed bacteria are broken down by acids in stomach

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9
Q

Second line of defense is

A

WBCs

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10
Q

Third line of defense is

A

antibodies

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11
Q

Passive immunity

A

immunity from an external source, like antibodies through placenta

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12
Q

Active immunity

A

you produce the antibodies, exposed to antigen and fought off

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13
Q

FAB

A

fragment, antigen binding

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14
Q

Fc

A

fragment, crystalline

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15
Q

Monomer

A

Y-shaped molecule with 4 protein chains, 2 identical light chains and 2 identical heavy chains

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16
Q

Variable regions

A

2 sections at the end of Y’s arms, contain FAB, identical on same antibody, but vary from one antibody to another

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17
Q

Constant regions

A

stem of monomer and lower parts of Y arms

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18
Q

Fc region

A

stem of monomer only, can bind to complement or cells

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19
Q

IgM

A

produced as 1st response, levels remain high transiently

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20
Q

IgG

A

produced after IgM, higher levels in small amounts throughout life, produced in large amounts during secondary phase

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21
Q

IgA

A

neutralizes microbes and toxins

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22
Q

IgE

A

anaphylaxis, immunity to helminthic parasites

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23
Q

B cells are stimulated by

A

CD40, which is expressed on T cells

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24
Q

Plasma cells

A

mature B cells, produce high affinity antibodies against original antigen

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25
Q

T cells receptors

A

recognize pieces of antigen, antigenic peptides are presented to TCRs by antigen presenting cells like Macrophages or dendrocytes

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26
Q

What are the co-receptors for the TCR?

A

CD4 and CD8

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27
Q

Activated T cells increase expression of

A

CD25

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28
Q

CD8+ T cells

A

generated in the Thymus and express the TCR, express CD8, recognize peptides presented by MHC Class 1 molecules

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29
Q

What happens when a CD8+ T cell recognizes an antigen and is activated?

A

Cytokines TNF-alpha and IFN-y are secreted, cytotoxic granules are released, Fas/FasL destroy infected cells

30
Q

Types of memory T cells

A

Central memory T cells and Effector Memory T cells

31
Q

Central Memory T Cells

A

circulate through secondary lymphoid tissues, slower but more robust response

32
Q

Effector Memory T Cells

A

in non-lymphoid tissues, respond immediately

33
Q

Regulatory T cells

A

CD4+ and CD25+, produce IL-10, TGF-beta, and IL-35, must recognize same MHC peptide as the effector T cell

34
Q

Cytokines

A

TGF-beta1 and IL-10

35
Q

TLRs

A

pattern recognition receptors that initiate innate immune response by detecting possible antigens

36
Q

What TLR recognize bacterial lipids?

A

TLR 1, 2, 4 and 6

37
Q

What TLR recognize viral RNA?

A

TLR 3, 7, and 8

38
Q

What TLR recognize bacterial RNA?

39
Q

What TLR recognize bacterial or parasite proteins?

A

TLR 5 and 10

40
Q

TLR adaptors

A

TLR signaling initiates with the recruitment of adaptors proteins to their tail, MYD88 and TRIF

41
Q

What 3 pathways are activated by TLRs?

A

MAP kinase pathway, NFkB pathway, and IRF pathway

42
Q

Innate immunity

A

protection by skin and mucous membranes, phagocytic cells, NK cells, complement system

43
Q

Natural immunity

A

Lymphocytes, macrophages, Mast cells, and dendritic cells

44
Q

Steps of phagocytosis

A
  1. physical contact between the white cell and the foreign particle
  2. formation of a phagosome
  3. fusion with cytoplasmic granules to form a phagolysosome
  4. digestion and release of debris to the outside
45
Q

4 complement functions

A

lysis, opsonization, activation of inflammatory response, and clearance of immune complexes

46
Q

Cell lysis

A

lyse bacteria, parasites, viruses, erythrocytes, and nucleated cells (tumor cells)

47
Q

Inflammatory response

A

C3a, C4a, and C5a bind to complement receptors on mast cells and basophils and induce degranulation with release of histamine and other mediators

48
Q

Anaphylatoxins

A

induce smooth-muscle contraction increase vascular permeability, extravasation and chemoattraction, induce by C5a, C3a, and C5b67

49
Q

Opsonization

A

C3b is the major opsonin of the complement system

50
Q

Viral neutralization

A

deposits of antibody and complement on viral particles neutralize viral infectivity by blocking viral attachment to susceptible host cells and facilitates binding of viral particle to FcR or CR1

51
Q

Risks of Asplenia

A

Fulminant sepsis

52
Q

What does ToRCHeS stand for?

A

Toxoplasma gondii, RSV, CMV, HSV, and Syphilis

53
Q

Complement fixation?

A

classical technique for detection and identification of the presence of Ag-Ab complexes

54
Q

Positive complement fixation test

A

Antibody in sample + antigen + complement -> Ag-Ab complex fixed with complement

Complement fixed Ag-Ab + indicator system -> no change

55
Q

Negative complement fixation test

A

Sample with no antibody + antigen + complement -> free complement

antigen + antibody in indicator system -> Ag-Ab complex

Ag-Ab complex + complement -> fixed complement system -> hemolysis

56
Q

Meconium

A

Meconium in the amniotic fluid because the baby does not poop, Causes infants death.

57
Q

Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is

A

a serious gastrointestinal problem that mostly affects premature babies.

58
Q

Galactosemia

A

a rare, hereditary disorder of carbohydrate metabolism that affects the body’s ability to convert galactose to glucose.

59
Q

PJP infection has what CD4 count?

A

200, treated with TMP/SMX

60
Q

Toxo and Crypto have what CD4 count?

A

100, treated with TMP/SMX

61
Q

CMV and MAC have what CD4 count?

A

50, treated with Z-pak

62
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

no vaccine, seen commonly in cats

63
Q

Vertical transmission

A

If it is tested on the torch panel it can be transferred using vertical transmission

64
Q

Disgnosing syphilis not in newborns

A

RPR/VDRL, MHA-To/FTA-ABS

65
Q

RPR

A

non-treponemal, agglutination assay

66
Q

Low avidity

A

If it is tested on the torch panel it can be transferred using vertical transmission

67
Q

The strength with which a multivalent antibody binds to a multivalent antigen is termed ______?

68
Q

Syphilis culture

A

T. pallidum cannot be grown in culture, Warthin Starry stain used

69
Q

IgG in infants

A

can last up to 6 months

70
Q

Secondary and tertiary syphilis

A

RPR positive

71
Q

If a person has HBeAg

A

super infectious and easily spreads virus

Farrell (6 decks)

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